3. Investment Planning. 13. Asset Pricing Models Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Did you know that a $100 investment in Microsoft’s shares in 1986 was worth about $29,000 just twelve years later? Those who expected large returns and made this investment were indeed very fortunate. Everybody likes to get in on the ground floor of an emerging growth company, such as Intel or Microsoft. Though buying a company’s common stock may be riskier than bonds or preferred stock, it nevertheless gives the investor a stake in the company’s future - for better or worse.

What is the exact value of a stock? This is a very difficult question to answer. Nevertheless, investors must at least try to compute how much a stock is worth. Perhaps it will help them find the Microsofts of the future. Even if it doesn’t, it will make them more informed investors. Professional analysts use certain techniques to value stocks. An investor can apply these asset pricing models to value securities and options.

A

The Asset Pricing Models module, which should take approximately four hours to complete, will explain the theories that are used to calculate the expected returns of securities and options.

Upon completion of this module you should be able to:
* State the workings of the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM),
* Describe the Arbitrage Pricing Theory (APT),
* Explain the Binomial Option Pricing Model (BOPM),
* Describe the Black-Scholes-Merton call option pricing model, and
* Apply the asset pricing formulas to data and solve equations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Module Overview

An economic equilibrium occurs whenever supply equals demand. As a result, prices have no tendency to change. The capital asset pricing model and the arbitrage pricing theory are two similar but different equilibrium portfolio theories. These theories are similar because they are both grounded in portfolio theory and they have parallel asset pricing implications. They both use quantitative risk surrogates like variance and covariance and the concepts of diversifiable risk and undiversifiable risk.

The capital asset pricing model (CAPM) provides an intuitive way of thinking about the return that an investor should require from an investment, given the asset’s systematic risk. It suggests that investors need not worry about the market portfolio. They only need to decide how much systematic risk they wish to accept. Market forces will ensure that any stock can be expected to yield the appropriate return.

The arbitrage pricing theory is an alternative theory that has gained acceptance in the financial community. Under this theory, a security’s price is explained by multiple economic factors (known as a multi-factor model) rather than the single systematic risk factor.

A

The behavioral pricing model (BAPM) was developed to improve upon CAPM. At the heart of the model is the study of behavioral finance, which acknowledges the contributions of standard finance, but argues that people are “normal” instead of “rational.”

The binomial pricing model and the Black-Scholes-Merton pricing model provide formulas for determining the price of options, that is, their premiums. Binomial option pricing models are mathematically simple models that have been developed to deal with a broad class of valuation problems that include options, stocks, bonds and other risky financial claims. The Black-Scholes-Merton model was the first closed-form option-pricing model.

To ensure that you have a solid understanding of asset pricing models, the following lessons will be covered in this module:
* Capital Asset Pricing Model
* Arbitrage Pricing Theory
* Behavioral Pricing Model
* Option Pricing Models

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

AUDIO:

  • Capital asset pricing model (CAPM) – states that the return of an asset is related to one risk factor – the beta
  • Arbitrage pricing theory – asset’s returns are affected by more than 1 risk factor
  • Both equilibrium models of security prices meant to determine a security’s return based on risk premiums
  • Options pricing models – determine the price of call and put options
  • Asset pricing models –understand the consequences to the asset prices as the variables in the model change
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Section 1 – Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM)

The capital asset pricing model (CAPM) enters the realm of positive economics by presenting a descriptive model of how assets are priced. The significant implication of the CAPM is that the expected return of an asset is related to the measure of market risk for that asset known as beta. The capital asset pricing model provides a formula that calculates the expected return on a security based on its level of risk. The capital asset pricing model formula is the risk-free rate plus beta times the difference between the return on the market and the risk-free rate.

The formula for CAPM is:

ri is the CAPM expected return
rf is the risk-free rate
rm is the market return
ßi is the security’s beta
(rm - rf) is often referred to as the “market premium.”

A

This model provides the intellectual basis for a number of the current practices in the investment industry. Although many of these practices are based on various extensions and modifications of the CAPM, a sound understanding of the original version is necessary in order to understand them. Accordingly, this lesson presents the original version of the CAPM.

To ensure that you have a solid understanding of the capital asset pricing model, the following topics will be covered in this lesson:
* Assumptions
* Capital Market Line (CML)
* Security Market Line (SML)
* Market Model

Upon completion of this lesson, you should be able to:
* List the assumptions behind the CAPM and state their implications,
* Describe the theory of capital market line,
* Explain the separation theorem,
* Define market portfolio,
* Explain the security market line,
* Distinguish between CML and SML, and
* Detail the relationship between the market model and CAPM.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe the Capital Market Line

A

The capital market line (CML) represents the linear efficient set in the world of CAPM. All investors will hold a portfolio lying on the CML. It is the efficient frontier when borrowing and lending at the risk-free rate are permitted.

It can be described as the most desirable asset allocation line. It denotes the set of most desirable risky portfolios that can be generated by borrowing and lending at the risk-free rate of interest. Assuming homogeneous expectations and perfect markets, the CML, therefore, represents the efficient set.

The slope of the CML is equal to the difference between the expected return of the market portfolio and that of the risk-free security,
(r⎯⎯M−rf)
Divided by the difference in their risks,
(σM−0)
Or,
(rM−rf)/σM

As the vertical intercept of the CML is rf, the straight line characterizing the CML has the following equation:
rP=rf+[rM−rfσM]σp
where r⎯⎯p and σp refer to the expected return and standard deviation of an efficient portfolio. This formula represents the expected return of the portfolio equals the risk-free rate plus the risk premium for the asset.

Two key numbers characterize equilibrium in the securities market:
* The first is the vertical intercept of the CML, that is, the risk-free rate. It is often referred to as the reward for waiting.
* The second is the slope of the CML, which is often referred to as the reward per unit of risk borne.

In essence, the security market provides a place where time and risk can be traded, with their prices determined by the forces of supply and demand. Thus, the intercept and slope of the CML can be thought of as the price of time and the price of risk, respectively. In the example, they are equal to 4% and 1.21, respectively.

Exam Tip: The distinguishing feature of the capital market line is that the denominator is the standard deviation of the market. This will help you recognize the capital market line equation on the CFP® exam.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

CML Calculation Example:

The market portfolio associated with a risk-free rate of 4% consisted of Able, Baker, and Charlie in the proportions of 0.12, 0.19, and 0.69, respectively. This is under the assumption that these stocks are the only ones that exist. The expected returns for the portfolio and standard deviation for the market portfolio with these proportions are 22.4% and 15.2%, respectively.
* What is the equation for the resulting CML?

A

The equation for the resulting CML is:
r⎯⎯p=4+[22.4−415.2]σp=4+1.21σp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

AUDIO:

Exam Tip: The distinguishing feature of the capital market line is that the denominator is the standard deviation of the market.
This will help you recognize the capital market line equation on the CFP® exam.

A
  • Not likely to have to calculate on exam. If so, drop in variables, and play order of operations
  • Conceptually could be exam question
  • SML is looking at a particular security and expected return given a risk free rate
  • CML takes it a bit further. In the world of CAPM, all risky assets, can be plotted along a line and represent a new efficient frontier
  • In this calculation, standard deviation is used as the risk factor
  • Everything on that line represents the most efficient portfolios for a return for a given amount of risk (measured by standard deviation)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Exam: Highly-testable calculation Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM)

Exam Tip:
* The Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) is a highly-testable formula that is** included on your CFP® Board-provided formula sheet**.
* Check out exam tip to learn about the variables & additional need-to-know facts about CAPM.

A
  • Highly-testable calculation: The Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM)
  • Security Market Line (SML) is simply CAPM expressed in a graphic form
  • Likely will have to calculate
  • One of the provided formulas – be able to recognize it by sight and recognize that’s what they’re asking for in the question
  • Order of operations:
  • Rm – Rf: market return minus the risk-free return
  • Multiply by beta
  • Add to risk free return
  • And that would be CAMP – risk free return
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Section 1 – Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) Summary

The capital asset pricing model is widely used by analysts to value securities. It is a theory about equilibrium prices in the markets for risky assets. CAPM focuses on the relationship between systematic risk and returns.

In this lesson, we have covered the following
* The assumptions behind the CAPM are mainly that investors are risk-averse and never satiated. They lend or borrow at a common risk-free interest rate. Investors evaluate portfolios by analyzing expected returns and standard deviations over the same one-period horizon. They have homogeneous expectations regarding expected returns and risks of securities. The implications of these assumptions are that all investors will hold the same efficient portfolio of risky assets, differing only in the amounts of risk-free borrowing or lending they undertake.
* The capital market line is the linear efficient set of the CAPM. The CML represents the equilibrium relationship between the expected return and standard deviation of efficient portfolios. The separation theorem states that an investor’s optimal risky portfolio can be determined without reference to the investor’s risk-return preferences. The market portfolio is the risky portfolio held by all investors consisting of all securities, each weighted in proportion to its market value relative to the market value of all securities.

A
  • The security market line is the linear relationship between market covariance and expected return. The slope of the SML indicates the level of aggregate investor risk aversion. Like the CML, the SML is an equilibrium risk-return relationship. In SML the relevant measure of risk for individual securities is the contribution that they make to the standard deviation of the market portfolio as measured by their respective covariances with the market portfolio or their betas. The beta is a measure of the covariance between the security and the market portfolio relative to the market portfolio’s variance.
  • The market model is not an equilibrium model of security prices as is the CAPM. However, the beta from the CAPM is similar in concept to the beta from the market model. The market model differs from the CAPM in that it is a factor model while the CAPM is an equilibrium model. Further, the market model uses a market index while the CAPM uses the market portfolio. The market index is a subset of the CAPM’s market portfolio. The total risk of a security can be separated into market risk and non-market risk, under the CAPM. Each security’s non-market risk is unique to that security and hence is also termed its “unique risk.”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Identify the variables that represent the ‘market risk premium’ within the CAPM formula.
ri = rf + (rm – rf)ßi
* rf + (rm – rf)
* (rm – rf)Bi
* (rm – rf)
* rf

A

(rm – rf)
* The ‘market risk premium’ is the difference between the market return and the risk-free rate [i.e., (rm – rf)].
* This is the premium given to investors for taking on systematic risk.
* When multiplied by ß, it becomes the ‘stock risk premium.’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which one of the following is not a key assumption underlying the CAPM?
* Investors prefer portfolios with lower standard deviations.
* Assets are infinitely divisible.
* Investors may borrow or lend at a single risk-free interest rate.
* Taxes and transaction costs reduce market liquidity.

A

Taxes and transaction costs reduce market liquidity.
* The assumption regarding taxes and transactions costs under CAPM is that they are irrelevant. It is not assumed that they reduce market liquidity.
* The CAPM also assumes that investors are risk averse and therefore prefer portfolios with lower standard deviations. Other assumptions are that assets are infinitely divisible and that investors may borrow or lend at a single risk-free rate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

If the risk-free rate is 4%, the beta on Intel is 1.1, and the rate of return of the market portfolio is 12.0, what is the expected return on Intel?
* 12.8%
* 11.2%
* 12%
* 13.1%

A

12.8%
* The expected rate of return
* = 4% + (12.0 – 4) (1.1)
* = 12.8%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In the equilibrium world of the CAPM, a security that is not part of the market portfolio: (Select all that apply)
* Is not owned by investors
* Has an equilibrium price of zero
* Is attractive to the very risk-averse investor
* Has a market value of zero

A

Is not owned by investors
Has an equilibrium price of zero
Has a market value of zero
* The market portfolio is the risky portfolio held by all investors. Therefore, a security that is not part of the market portfolio is not attractive to the risk-averse investor.
* An important feature of the CAPM is that in equilibrium each security must have a nonzero proportion in the composition of the tangency portfolio.
* That is, no security can, in equilibrium, have a proportion in the portfolio that is zero.
* Hence, the market portfolio is a set of securities that can be freely owned by investors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Match the term with the correct description:
Market risk
Non-market risk
Risk-free rate of return
Total risk of a security
* It is composed of market risk and non-market risk.
* The portion of a security’s total risk that is related to events specific to the security and not to the movements in the market portfolio.
* In the CAPM world, the expected return of a security with a beta of zero equals this rate of return.
* The portion of a security’s total risk that is related to movements in the market portfolio and hence to the beta of the security.

A
  • Market risk - The portion of a security’s total risk that is related to movements in the market portfolio and hence to the beta of the security.
  • Non-market risk - The portion of a security’s total risk that is related to events specific to the security and not to the movements in the market portfolio.
  • Risk-free rate of return - In the CAPM world, the expected return of a security with a beta of zero equals this rate of return.
  • Total risk of a security - It is composed of market risk and non-market risk.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Section 2 – Arbitrage Pricing Theory (APT)

The capital asset pricing model is an equilibrium model that describes why different securities have different expected returns. In particular, this economic model of asset pricing asserts that securities have different expected returns because they have different betas. However, there exists an alternative model of asset pricing that was developed by Stephen Ross. It is known as arbitrage pricing theory, and in some ways it is less complicated than the CAPM.

One primary APT assumption is that each investor, when given the opportunity to increase the return of his or her portfolio without increasing its risk, will proceed to do so. The mechanism for doing so involves the use of arbitrage portfolios. An arbitrage portfolio is defined by three conditions:
* Self Financing: Does not require additional funds from investor.
* Riskless: There is no sensitivity to any factor; there is zero variance and covariance with other portfolios; and there is negligible nonfactor risk.
* Positive Return: The riskless arbitrage will result in a positive return.

A

To ensure that you have a solid understanding of arbitrage pricing theory, the following topics will be covered in this lesson:
* Factor Models
* Identifying the Factors

Upon completion of this lesson, you should be able to:
* Explain arbitrage pricing theory,
* Explain arbitrage opportunities arising from disequilibirum, and
* List factors that might affect expected returns in APT.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe the Factor Model of Arbitrage Pricing Theory (APT)

A

Stephen Ross formulated various arbitrage arguments into a formal Arbitrage Pricing Theory (APT) that uses any number of risk factors. The theory is based on the law of one price, which states that if a security’s price is different in different markets, then a riskless profit exists for investors to buy the security from the market with the lower price and sell it in the market with the higher price.

ri = a + b1F1 + b2F2 + bkFk + ei

Where:
ri = rate of return on security i
ai = the zero factor: the expected return when all factors = zero
Fk = the value of the factor, such as the rate of growth in industrial production
ei = random error term

In this equation, bi is known as the sensitivity of security i to the factor. It is also known as the factor loading for securityi or the attribute of securityi.

The law of one price tells us that assets with equal betas have the same amount of undiversifiable risk and, therefore, should have identical expected rates of return. Furthermore, they should also have identical expected rates of return and intercept terms. The scenario described here is an equilibrium situation in which it will not be profitable to perform arbitrage between assets. When multiple assets are in equilibrium, their Arbitrage Pricing Theory Lines would be identical. The y-intercept and slope are the same for all assets. Every asset that plots above the arbitrage pricing line is underpriced, and every asset that plots below the APT line is overpriced.

In a theoretically ideal market, a smart investor might use the law of one price to earn riskless arbitrage profits. By setting up an imperfect hedge with the imbalanced portfolios, the smart investor can create a profit without investing any money or without taking any risk. For example, if two assets have the same sensitivity to a factor but different expected returns, then the investor would buy the one with the higher return while selling the one with the lower return. The proceeds from the sale will pay for the purchase and the return would be the difference between the two securities.

TEST TIP
The factors are the distinctive characteristic of the arbitrage pricing theory. If a question on the certification exam begins to talk about factors and sensitivity to factors, it is referring to the APT.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Cheri is trying to determine the return for a security that has zero factor of 4%, expected return from economic growth of 8% with sensitivity to the growth of 0.8. If the error term is 0, what is the return of this security?
* 8%
* 12%
* 13.6%
* 10.4%

A

10.4%
* The one factor model for this security is
* r = .04+(.8)(.08)
* =10.4%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

List the 4 Factors
Stephen Ross employed in APT

A

Stephen Ross and Richard Roll employed factor analytic techniques to analyze 1,260 NYSE-listed stocks divided into 42 groups that contained 30 stocks each. They analyzed one decade of daily stock price returns. They concluded there were four or fewer significant risk factors. These factors represented unanticipated changes in four variables:
* Changes in the rate of inflation
* Changes in the index of industrial production
* Changes in the yield spread between high-grade and low-grade corporate bonds, a measure of investor confidence
* Changes in the slope of the term structure of interest rates, as measured by the difference between the yields on long-term government bonds and T-bills

Different researchers reported other risk factors. The most commonly identified factors that affect expected returns are indicators of aggregate economic activity, such as corporate earnings and dividends, inflation and interest rates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Section 2 – Arbitrage Pricing Theory (APT) Summary

The APT requires fewer underlying assumptions and includes a wider array of variables into the analysis than the SML. The APT is a more general theory than the SML.

The APT can be shown to be mathematically equivalent to the SML when the market portfolio is the only risk factor in both models. Other similarities show that the two theories do not contradict each other. Moreover, the two theories are similar because both delineate undiversifiable commonalties that form the basis for risk premiums in market prices and returns. Since APT has been in existence for fewer years than the SML, it has not been tested as extensively. However, the results from initial tests look favorable.

In this lesson, we have covered the following:

A
  • Factor Models are the basis of arbitrage pricing theory because APT assumes that security returns are generated by a factor model but does not specify the number or identity of the factors. Arbitrage is the process of earning riskless profits by taking advantage of differential pricing for the same physical asset or security. An arbitrage portfolio includes long and short positions in securities. It is self-financing, riskless, and has a positive expected return. The model states that securities or portfolios with equal factor sensitivities will behave in the same way except for non-factor risk. Therefore, securities or portfolios with the same factor sensitivities must offer the same expected returns.
  • Factors: Empirical research has isolated four risk factors that significantly influenced securities returns:
  • Unanticipated changes in the rate of inflation
  • Unanticipated changes in the index of industrial production
  • Unanticipated changes in the yield spread between high-grade and low-grade corporate bonds
  • Unanticipated changes in the slope of the yield curve
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following is true about the arbitrage pricing theory? (Select all that apply)
* Investors will take advantage of arbitrage opportunities thus eliminating them.
* Investors will not act on arbitrage opportunities.
* Arbitrage has fewer assumptions than the CAPM.
* Arbitrage opportunities are expensive and risky.

A

Investors will take advantage of arbitrage opportunities thus eliminating them.
Arbitrage has fewer assumptions than the CAPM.
* The logic behind APT is that investors will observe and take advantage of arbitrage opportunities and eliminate them.
* When all arbitrage possibilities have been eliminated, the equilibrium expected return on a security will be a linear function of its sensitivities to the factors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does the process of arbitrage take advantage of?
* Differential pricing
* Abnormal returns
* Low stock price
* Volatility of stock

A

Differential pricing
* Investors who take advantage of differential pricing for the same physical asset or security engage in the arbitrage process.
* Abnormal returns, low stock price and volatility of stock do not figure in the arbitrage process.

22
Q

Some common characteristics of the relevant factors of APT models include: (Select all that apply)
* Inflation
* Term structure of interest rates
* Price of gold
* Corporate earnings and dividends

A

Inflation
Term structure of interest rates
Corporate earnings and dividends
* The most commonly identified factors that affect expected returns are indicators of aggregate economic activity, inflation and interest rates. Researchers have not identified the price of gold as a factor.

23
Q

Section 3 – Behavioral Asset Pricing Model (BAPM)

Behavioral Portfolio Theory, as defined by Sherfrin and Statman in 1999, presents the idea that investors build portfolios as “pyramids of assets.” Each layer in the pyramid (e.g., emergency funds, investment portfolio, qualified retirement funds, etc.) carries different attitudes toward risk. This is completely different than the Markowitz model (CAPM), which is based on consistent attitudes toward risk. Based on this early work in behavioral finance, Shefrin and Statman recently developed the BAPM, in order to improve upon CAPM. The following table represents the major differences between CAPM and BAPM. In order to fully appreciate these differences, the next several pages will compare and contrast standard finance to behavioral finance.

A
  • Model Premise - Market interaction between information traders and noise traders, who do not have mean-variance preferences and do commit cognitive errors.
  • Expected returns - Determined by behavioral betas, measures of risk with respect to the mean-variance-efficient portfolio. This portfolio differs from the Markowitz market portfolio and depends on the preferences of the noise traders (e.g., whether growth or value stocks are currently favored).
  • Beta - Behavioral betas are difficult to determine because the preferences of the noise traders can change over time.
  • Supply & Demand for Stock - Determined by the behavioral beta, which is both utilitarian and value-expressive.
24
Q

Section 3 – Behavioral Asset Pricing Model (BAPM) Summary

Behavioral finance is a relatively new area of study that focuses on the fact that people are human, they make mistakes, and investor motivation is not strictly based on “rational” behavior but instead is based on value-expressive characteristics as well.

In this lesson, we have covered the following:
* The Behavioral Asset Pricing Model was developed by Shefrin and Statman, the model improves on CAPM and its associated variations. The main difference between CAPM and BAPM is the presence of “noise” traders, who do not have specific mean-variance preferences and do commit cognitive errors.

A
  • Standard Finance versus Behavioral Finance: Standard finance and its associated models such as CAPM, APT, Black-Scholes-Merton, and EMH assumes investors to be “rational” and also assumes an equilibrium-based market. Behavioral finance states that investors are “normal” and make decisions based on the way they feel about situations. Behaviorists argue that investors are human and are prone to make mistakes, such as cognitive errors and poor decisions made with biased expectations.
  • Prospect Theory: A behavioral finance model that is based on the concepts of “mental accounting” and loss aversion. Mental accounting describes investor propensity to segment their money into separate accounts. Loss aversion shows that investors are much more risk adverse when facing gains, and significantly less risk adverse when facing losses.
25
Q

The following statements describe either characteristics of the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) or the Behavior Asset Pricing Model (BAPM). Select the statements that pertain to the BAPM. (Select all that apply)
* Betas are determined with respect to the preferences of noise traders.
* Supply and demand for a stock is utilitarian.
* Determining Beta is difficult because the preferences of noise traders change over time.
* Expected returns are based on beta, which is determined by the market portfolio.
* Beta is determined using both utilitarian and value-expressive measures.

A

Betas are determined with respect to the preferences of noise traders.
Determining Beta is difficult because the preferences of noise traders change over time.
Beta is determined using both utilitarian and value-expressive measures.
* BAPM is based on the interaction between information traders and noise traders, while CAPM only considers information traders.
* CAPM uses utilitarian factors in determining supply and demand for a stock, while BAPM also considers value-expressive measures.

26
Q

Which of the following statements is/are true? (Select all that apply)
* Both the standard finance view and the behavioral finance view assume the investor to be “rational.”
* Investors make mistakes under the standard finance models.
* Behavioral finance recognizes the contributions of standard finance.
* Behavioral finance considers how investors act and feel.
* Mental accounting is a key concept of “prospect theory.”

A

Behavioral finance recognizes the contributions of standard finance.
Behavioral finance considers how investors act and feel.
Mental accounting is a key concept of “prospect theory.”
* Investors, assumed to be “rational” under the standard finance view, do not make mistakes using these standard finance models.

27
Q

Match the term with the correct description.
Cognitive Errors
Biased Expectations
Mental Accounting
Loss Aversion
* Investors segment their money into separate accounts.
* Investors are overly confident in their ability.
* Investors are more risk adverse when faced with gains and less risk adverse when faced with losses.
* Investors make mistakes.

A
  • Cognitive Errors - Investors make mistakes.
  • Biased Expectations - Investors are overly confident in their ability.
  • Mental Accounting - Investors segment their money into separate accounts.
  • Loss Aversion - Investors are more risk adverse when faced with gains and less risk adverse when faced with losses.
28
Q

Section 4 – Option Pricing Models

Option pricing models use formulas that permit an investor to compute put and call prices, or premiums, from certain variables. These option pricing models can be applied to options on stocks, options on stock market indexes, options on foreign currencies, and options on other underlying assets.

A binomial option pricing model for valuing calls is presented first, followed by the Black-Scholes-Merton call-pricing model and the put-call parity formula. The put-call parity formula is used to determine put prices after call prices have been computed and to determine if the prices of puts and calls are aligned properly. If the underlying asset makes a cash payment, there is a formula to adjust the option price for that cash flow.

A

To ensure that you have a solid understanding of option pricing models, the following topics will be covered in this lesson:
* Binomial Option Pricing Model
* Put-Call Parity
* Black-Scholes-Merton Model for Call options
* Comparison
* Valuation of Put Option

Upon completion of this lesson, you should be able to:
* Describe the working of BOPM,
* State the application of BOPM in order to value calls and puts,
* Explain the concept of replicating portfolios,
* Specify the method for calculating the hedge ratio,
* Define put-call parity,
* Describe the functioning of Black-Scholes-Merton model,
* Identify the limitations of Black-Scholes-Merton model, and
* Distinguish between BOPM and Black-Scholes-Merton model.

29
Q

Put-Call Parity Example:

Security X has a current put price of $3, a strike price of $20, a market price of $22, and 30 days till expiration. If the risk-free rate is 1.5%, what is the current price of a call for security X for the same strike price and maturity?

A

C - P = S - PV(X)
C = S - PV(X) + P (Tip: Add P to each side to isolate C)
C = S - [ X / (1+r) T ] + P (Tip: Present value of the strike price.)
C = 22 - [20 / (1.015)(30/365)] + 3
C = 22 - [20 / 1.0012] + 3
C = 22 - [19.98] + 3
C = $5.02

PRACTITIONER’S ADVICE
The formula in the textbook may look different than the one presented here, in that the text uses an e (which represents a figure to allow for continuous compounding) to calculate the present value of the strike price. The CFA Institute (formerly known as AIMR), as of 2004, began using the simplified version (as present here) in their curriculum. My advice is to learn this simplified version presented in this module.

30
Q

Describe the Black-Scholes-Merton Measurements

A

Delta - Delta measures the impact of a change in the underlying stock price on the value of a stock option. Delta is positive for a call option and negative for a put option.
* A $1 change to the stock price is approximately equivalent to change in option price by delta dollars.

Eta - Eta measures the percentage impact of a change in the stock price on the option value. Eta is positive for a call option and negative for a put option.
* A 1% change to the stock price is approximately equivalent to change in option price by eta%.

Vega - Vega measures the impact of a change in the volatility of the stock on the stock option. Vega is positive for both a call option and a put option.
* A 1% change to the stock’s standard deviation is approximately equivalent to change in option price by vega.

Gamma - Gamma measures delta’s sensitivity to a stock price change.
* A $1 change in the stock price causes the delta to change by approximately the amount of gamma.

Theta - Theta measures the option price sensitivity to a change in time till expiration.
* A one-day change to time to expiration will cause the option price to change approximately by theta.

Rho - Rho measures the option price sensitivity to a change in interest rate.
* A 1% change to the interest rate will cause the option price to change approximately by rho.

  • TEST TIP: Since the Black-Scholes-Merton-Merton Model is calculated using computer software in real life, it is not as important to know the equation or how to calculate options prices using this model as it is to know how changes in various components of the model affect the price of the option.
31
Q

Exam Tip: Several components influence the pricing of options.

Exam Tip: Several components influence the pricing of options.
Listen to this exam tip audio to learn about relevant factors & how they each influence option pricing.

Option Pricing Model factors
**Know change in price and time variable **
* Inc in stock price – decrease value of put (option of selling at strike price)
* The closer stock price gets to strike price, the less valuable is the option
* Inc in stock price – increase value of call (call gives holder to purchase at strike price)
* The bigger the spread, the more valuable that option is
* Time – for both put and call – The more time to expiration, the higher the value of the option price
* The more time that’s left, the more probable it will move to a favorable position for a particular option

A

The option pricing model factors listed below illustrate how changes in certain variables will affect the price of puts and calls.
* Price: Change of share price beyond the parity will affect the price of calls and puts inversely.
* As the price of the stock increases, the call premium increases and the put premium decreases.
* If the stock price decreases, the opposite will occur.

  • Time: The longer the time to expiration, the higher the premium of a call and a put option. However, the put premium will level out while the call premium will continue to rise.
  • Risk: Will affect put and call premiums the same way (directly). The higher the standard deviation, the higher the premium.
  • Interest: Will have an inverse relationship with calls and puts. As interest rates increase, call premiums will increase but put premiums will decrease.
32
Q

Section 4 – Option Pricing Models Summary

The two widely used option pricing models are the binomial option pricing model and the Black-Scholes-Merton option valuation model. These models present mathematical formula for pricing options and other derivative securities.

In this lesson, we have covered the following:
* The Binomial Option Pricing Model can be used to determine the fair value of an option based on the assumption that the underlying asset will attain one of two possible known prices at the end of each of a finite number of periods, given its price at the start of each period.

A
  • The Put-call Parity allows investors to determine the price of a call option given information about a put option of the same security, strike price and expiration date, and vice versa. It illustrates the two option premiums as inter-related.
  • The Black-Scholes-Merton Option Valuation Model requires use of a computer program or a table of natural logarithms and a table of cumulative normal distribution probabilities. It shows that the fair value of an option is determined by six factors: current market price of the underlying stock, exercise price of the option, risk-free rate of return, life of the option, the stock’s dividend yield, and the risk or volatility of the common stock. It assumes that the risk-free rate and common stock volatility are constant over the option’s life. The limitations of Black-Scholes-Merton option valuation model are that it is applicable only to European options and options on stocks that will not pay any dividends over the life of the option.
33
Q

Which model is predicated on the assumption that stock prices can move to only two values over a short period of time?
* BOPM
* CAPM
* APT
* Black-Scholes-Merton

A

BOPM
* The binomial option pricing model assumes that stock prices will attain one of two possible known prices at the end of each of a finite number of periods.
* The Black-Scholes-Merton model is a continuous time model.
* The CAPM and APT are not option pricing models.

34
Q

The Black-Scholes-Merton formula calculates the fair value of an option based on five factors. Which of the following are included among those factors? (Select all that apply)
* Taxes and transaction costs
* Time remaining before expiration
* Risk-free rate of return
* Stock volatility

A

Time remaining before expiration
Risk-free rate of return
Stock volatility
* The Black-Scholes-Merton formula shows that the fair value of an option is determined by the following five factors: stock price, exercise price, risk-free rate, life of the option and the volatility of the common stock. It does not consider taxes and transaction costs as a factor in determining the fair value of an option.

35
Q

Which of the following is an important assumption of put-call parity?
* Both options may have different exercise prices but the same expiration dates
* Both options have the same exercise prices and the same expiration dates
* Both options will produce the same payoff on the stock as well as a risky bond
* Both options will produce the same payoff on the stock as well as another risky asset

A

Both options have the same exercise prices and the same expiration dates
* The payoff from buying a put option on a stock and a share of the stock will be the same as buying a call option on the stock and a risk-free bond.
* This is under the assumption that both options have the same exercise price and expiration date.
* This is called put-call parity.

36
Q

One limitation to the Black-Scholes-Merton model is that strictly speaking it is only applicable to options that do not:
* Have an expiration date
* Pay dividends over the life of the option
* Display implied volatility
* Have an intrinsic value

A

Pay dividends over the life of the option
* One limitation of the Black-Scholes-Merton model is that it can only be applied to options that will not pay dividends over the life of the option.
* The other limitation is that it is applicable only to European options and not to American options.

37
Q

Module Summary

Recognizing how much potential return a particular investment offers is one of the major decisions that investors face. They also have to determine the type and degree of risk they must take to earn such returns. Asset pricing models provide the mathematical formula to compute the value of stocks and derived securities such as options.

The assumptions underpinning all of modern portfolio theory may not always comport with reality. This is why there has been such a tremendous interest in behavioral finance. Standard finance uses the capital asset pricing model and the arbitrage pricing theory as two main models used for computing the expected returns of securities. The binomial option pricing model and the Black-Scholes-Merton model are used for calculating the value of options and other derivative securities.

The following are the key concepts to remember:
* Capital Asset Pricing Model: The CAPM is an equilibrium model of security prices based on a specific set of assumptions about rational investor behavior and the existence of perfect security markets. On the basis of these assumptions, it can be stated that all investors will hold the same efficient portfolio of risky assets, differing only in the amounts of risk-free borrowing or lending. In CAPM, the market portfolio is composed of all risky assets held by investors. The separation theorem is an important feature of CAPM, which states that the optimal combination of a risky portfolio can be determined without any knowledge of the investor’s risk-return preferences. The capital market line represents the efficient set in the world of CAPM and all investors will hold a portfolio lying on the CML. The security market line is the linear relationship between market covariance and expected return and the slope of the SML indicates the level of aggregate investor risk aversion. The market model is a single factor model and uses a market index, which is a subset of the CAPM’s market portfolio.

A
  • Arbitrage Pricing Theory: The APT is an asset pricing model that can employ multiple risk factors. The arbitrage portfolio involves opportunities for an investor to increase the expected return on his or her current portfolio without increasing the portfolio’s risk. The arbitrage process takes advantage of differential pricing for the same asset. An arbitrage portfolio is self-financing, risk-free, and has a positive expected return. Research on the factors that affect expected returns have generally focused on indicators of aggregate economic activity, inflation and interest rates.
  • Behavior Asset Pricing Model: The BAPM was designed to explain the human factors of investor behavior such as cognitive errors, biased expectations, loss aversion, and mental accounting. BAPM acknowledges the work of standard finance (i.e., CAPM) but improves upon these standard finance models to take human behavior into account. Prospect Theory and other models are used to detail this behavior.
  • Binomial Option Pricing Model: The BOPM is a valuation model to determine the price of a call option. It assumes that the optioned security will experience either of two possible rates of return over the time being analyzed. The BOPM can be adapted to encompass multiple periods of time and to value common stocks, mortgages, and other investments.
  • Put-Call Parity allows investors to determine the price of a call option based on given information about a put option of the same security, strike price and expiration.
  • Black-Scholes-Merton Model: This option pricing model assumes normally distributed rates of return. It shows that the fair value of an option is determined by the price of the stock, exercise price of the option, risk-free rate, life of the option, and the riskiness of the stock.
38
Q

Exam 13. Asset Pricing Models

Exam 13. Asset Pricing Models

Course 3. Investing Planning

A
39
Q

CAP Corporation has a Beta of 1.25 and a standard deviation of 5%. The risk-free rate is 1.00%. If the market premium is 10%, what is the expected return for CAP Corporation using the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM)?
* 11.25%
* 15%
* 13.50%
* 12.50%

A

13.50%

The formula for CAPM is ri = rf + (rm – rf) βi
* (rm – rf) is referred to as the “market premium”
* The CAPM for CAP Corporation is ri
* = 0.01 + 0.10(1.25)
* .0.01 + 0.125
* = 0.1350 or 13.50%

40
Q

CAP Corporation has a Beta of 1.25 and a standard deviation of 5%. The risk-free rate is 1.00% and the return of the market is 10%. Using the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM), calculate the expected return for CAP Corporation.
* 11.25%
* 12.25%
* 13.75%
* 15%

A

12.25%
The formula for CAPM is ri = rf + (rm – rf) βi
* CAPM for CAP Corporation is
* ri = 0.01 + (0.10 – 0.01)1.25
* 0.01 + 0.1125
* = 0.1225, or 12.25%

41
Q

Which of the following is NOT a condition in defining an arbitrage portfolio?
* There is no sensitivity to any factor and there is zero variance and covariance with other portfolios.
* The riskless arbitrage will result in a positive return.
* There is significant nonfactor risk.
* It does not require additional funds from the investor.

A

There is significant nonfactor risk.
* There is negligible nonfactor risk in an arbitrage portfolio.

42
Q

A call option that is found to be selling for substantially less than its Black-Scholes-Merton value is a candidate for __ ____??____ __.
* purchase
* options writing

A

purchase
* A call option that is found to be selling for substantially less than its Black-Scholes-Merton value is a candidate for purchase, whereas
* one that is found to be selling for substantially more is a candidate for writing.

43
Q

Using the capital asset pricing model (CAPM), if the market return is 10%, the risk-free rate is 1.10%, and the CAPM expected rate of return for CAP Corporation is 12%, what is CAP Corporation’s Beta?
* 1.50
* 1.10
* 1.2523
* 1.2247

A

1.2247
The formula for CAPM is ri = rf + (rm – rf) βi
* ri = 0.011 + (0.10 – 0.011) βi
* 0.12 = 0.011 + 0.0890(βi)
* 0.12 - 0.011 = 0.089(βi)
* 0.109 / 0.089 = 0.089(βi) /0.089
* 1.2247 = (βi)

44
Q

The relationship between the market prices of a call and a put on a given stock that have the same exercise price and expiration date is known as the __ ____??____ __.
* arbitrage portfolio
* put-call parity
* binomial option pricing model
* Black-Scholes-Merton Model

A

put-call parity
* The relationship between the market prices of a call and a put on a given stock that have the same exercise price and expiration date is known as the Put-Call Parity.
* Given the price of a call for a security, you can determine the price of a put for the same security with the same expiration date and strike price.

45
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding the Capital Market Line (CML)?
* All investors will hold a portfolio lying on the CML.
* It can be described as the most desirable asset allocation line.
* It is the efficient frontier when borrowing and lending at the risk-free rate are permitted.
* The risk factor used in the capital market line (CML) is Beta.

A

The risk factor used in the capital market line (CML) is Beta.
* The distinguishing feature of the capital market line is that the denominator is the standard deviation of the market.
* This will help you recognize the capital market line equation on the CFP® exam.

46
Q

The Security Market Line (SML) is a graphical depiction of __ ____??____ __.
* Beta
* Standard deviation
* Capital Asset Pricing Model
* market premium

A

Capital Asset Pricing Model
* SML is a graphical depiction of the CAPM and plots risks relative to expected returns.
* It is an equilibrium relationship between the expected return and covariance with the market portfolio for all securities and portfolios.
* The slope of the SML is the risk premium on the market portfolio.

47
Q

CAP Corporation has a Beta of 1.60 and a standard deviation of 6%. The risk-free rate is 1.00% and the return of the market is 10%. Using the capital asset pricing model (CAPM), would the purchase of CAP Corporation be advised for an investor with a required rate of return of 15%?
* Yes
* No

A

Yes
* The expected return for CAP Corporation meets the investor’s required rate of return.

The formula for CAPM is ri = rf + (rm – rf) βi
* ri = 0.01 + (0.10 – 0.01)1.60
* 0.01 + 0.1440
* = 0.1540 or 15.40%

48
Q

Which of the following can be used to estimate the fair value of a call or put option?
* Black-Scholes-Merton model
* Binomial option pricing model
* Arbitrage portfolio
* Put-call parity

A

Binomial option pricing model
* The binomial option pricing model can be used to estimate the fair value of a call or put option.

49
Q

In the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM), (rm - rf) is often referred to as the __ ____??____ __.
* market premium
* expected return
* risk factor
* assumed return

A

market premium
* In the CAPM formula, (rm - rf) is often referred to as the “market premium.”

50
Q

CAP Corporation has a Beta of 1.50 and a standard deviation of 6%. The risk-free rate is 1.00% and the return of the market is 10%. Using the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM), would the purchase of CAP Corporation be advised for an investor with a required rate of return of 15%?
* Yes
* No

A

No
* The expected return for CAP Corporation does not meet the investor’s required rate of return.

The formula for CAPM is ri = rf + (rm – rf) βi
* ri = 0.01 + (0.10 – 0.01)1.50
* 0.01 + 0.1350
* = 0.145 or, 14.50%