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Repro module - 4th year > 2015 module exam > Flashcards

2015 module exam Flashcards

1
Q

A woman had a lesion that looked suspicious. The patient needed tocheck how invasive the lesion was. Core needle biopsy showed the clinician that the mass should be removed. What is it?

A) ductal carcinoma in situ
B) lobular carcinoma in situ
C) lymphocytic mastopathy
D) intraductal papilloma

A

A) ductal carcinoma in situ

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2
Q

A 35-year-old woman who’s known to have type 2 diabetes presented with a firm well defined mass in the left breast that was there for several years.

A) ductal carcinoma in situ
B) lobular carcinoma in situ
C) lymphocytic mastopathy
D) intraductal papilloma

A

C) lymphocytic mastopathy

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3
Q

A 40-year-old female presents with a mass, bloody nipple discharge in the right breast. mammogram and US.

A) ductal carcinoma in situ
B) lobular carcinoma in situ
C) lymphocytic mastopathy
D) intraductal papilloma

A

D) intraductal papilloma

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4
Q

Bleeding that occurs at any gestational age?

A) cervical polyp
B) placenta previa
C) placental abruptio
D) spontaneous miscarriage 
E) corpus luteum involution
A

A) cervical polyp

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5
Q

What can cause bleeding at less than 20 weeks of gestation?

A) cervical polyp
B) placenta previa
C) placental abruptio
D) spontaneous miscarriage 
E) corpus luteum involution
A

D) spontaneous miscarriage

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6
Q

What commonly/most commonly causes bleeding during the third trimester?

A) cervical polyp
B) placenta previa
C) placental abruptio
D) spontaneous miscarriage 
E) corpus luteum involution
A

C) placental abruptio

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7
Q

What causes post-coital bleeding?

A) cervical polyp
B) placenta previa
C) placental abruptio
D) spontaneous miscarriage 
E) corpus luteum involution
A

A) cervical polyp

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8
Q

Organic cause of heavy menstrual bleeding?

A) von willebrand disease 
B) adenomyosis
C) endometrial atrophy 
D) endometrial carcinoma 
E) cervical polyp
A

A) von willebrand disease

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9
Q

What is associated with (secondary) congestive (spasmodic) dysmenorrhea?

A) von willebrand disease 
B) adenomyosis
C) endometrial atrophy 
D) endometrial carcinoma 
E) cervical polyp
A

B) adenomyosis

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10
Q

What lesion in adolescence that causes heavy menstrual bleeding?

A) von willebrand disease 
B) adenomyosis
C) endometrial atrophy 
D) endometrial carcinoma 
E) cervical polyp
A

A) von willebrand disease

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11
Q

Lymph vessels follow this structure to drain into superficial inguinal lymph nodes?

A) round ligament
B) suspensory ligament
C) mesovarium

A

A) round ligament

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12
Q

Ovarian artery enters the broad ligament through this structure?

A) round ligament
B) suspensory ligament
C) mesovarium

A

B) suspensory ligament

C mesovarium was also correct

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13
Q

What muscle is normally cut in episiotomy?

A) external urethral sphincter
B) bulbospongiosus

A

B) bulbospongiosus

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14
Q

What muscle is responsible for ejecting the last drop of urine at the end of micturition?

A) external urethral sphincter
B) bulbospongiosus

A

A) external urethral sphincter
B) bulbospongiosus

A&B were counted correct

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15
Q

What cells produce AMH?

A) leydig cells
B) sertoli cells

A

B) sertoli cells

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16
Q

What cell synthesizes testosterone?

A) leydig cells
B) sertoli cells

A

A) leydig cells

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17
Q

What is seen next to most germ cell tumors?

A) leydig cell tumor
B) intratubular germ cell neoplasia

A

B) intratubular germ cell neoplasia

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18
Q

Case about a tumor with Reinke’s crystal?

A) leydig cell tumor
B) intratubular germ cell neoplasia

A

A) leydig cell tumor

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19
Q

Dilated chorionic villi and surrounding proliferation?

A) choriocarcinoma
B) hydatiform mole

A

B) hydatiform mole

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20
Q

A tumor showing trophoblastic proliferation and no chorionic villi?

A) choriocarcinoma
B) hydatiform mole

A

A) choriocarcinoma

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21
Q

Under the microscope, a section showed elongated cells with collagen fibers under the basement membrane of the seminiferous tubules, what are these cells?

A

Myoid cells

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22
Q

What nerve runs under the piriformis?

A) internal pudendal nerve
B) iliolumbar artery
C) inferior gluteal artery
D) superior gluteal artery

A

A) internal pudendal nerve

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23
Q

What artery is anterior to the ala of the sacrum?

A) internal pudendal nerve
B) iliolumbar artery
C) inferior gluteal artery
D) superior gluteal artery

A

B) iliolumbar artery

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24
Q

What artery enters between the ventral root of S1 and the lumbrosacral plexus?

A) internal pudendal nerve
B) iliolumbar artery
C) inferior gluteal artery
D) superior gluteal artery

A

D) superior gluteal artery

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25
Q

What is a contraindication for combined oral contraceptives?

A) Cerebrovascular disease
B) Decreased glucose
C) Ovarian disease
D) Endometrial carcinoma

A

A) Cerebrovascular disease

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26
Q

A testicular tumor with primitive neuroectodermal cells and foci of fetal tissue. What is it?

A) Mature teratoma
B) Immature teratoma
C) Seminoma
D) Embryonal carcinoma

A

B) Immature teratoma

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27
Q

Why does ectopic endometrial tissue in endometriosis survive?

A

Local aromatization of circulating androgens

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28
Q

Ectopic testis?

A) tunica vaginalis
B) persistent processus vaginalis
C) gubernaculum attaches to the pubic symphysis
D) paramesonephric duct
E) mesonephric duct
F) efferent ductules
G) urogenital sinus
A

C) gubernaculum attaches to the pubic symphysis

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29
Q

Encysted Hydrocele of the spermatic cord

A) tunica vaginalis
B) persistent processus vaginalis
C) gubernaculum attaches to the pubic symphysis
D) paramesonephric duct
E) mesonephric duct
F) efferent ductules
G) urogenital sinus
A

B) persistent processus vaginalis

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30
Q

proximal mesonephric tubule

A) tunica vaginalis
B) persistent processus vaginalis
C) gubernaculum attaches to the pubic symphysis
D) paramesonephric duct
E) mesonephric duct
F) efferent ductules
G) urogenital sinus
A

F) efferent ductules

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31
Q

A female athlete is suspected for gender ambiguity. She was found to have testicular feminizing syndrome/androgen insensitivity syndrome. What is the underlying cause?

A

Deficient androgen receptor

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32
Q

Which nerve is least likely to be affected in a caudal epidural block?

A) Pelvic splanchnic nerve
B) Internal pudendal nerve
C) Sacral splanchnic nerve
D) S2 dorsal root

A

C) Sacral splanchnic nerve

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33
Q

What is the mechanism of action of progesterone?

A

Thickens cervical mucus

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34
Q

What describes the role of progesterone during parturition?

A) It upregulates the oxytocin receptor
B) Maintenance of functional quiescence of the uterus
C) It increases gap junctions

A

B) Maintenance of functional quiescence of the uterus

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35
Q

A patient with BRCA2 breast cancer. What other cancer is he at risk of?

A) Thyroid
B) Prostate
C) Pancreatic

A

C) Pancreatic

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36
Q

Patient with lobular breast carcinoma. He then experienced hematemesis and biopsy showed signet cells. What gene is likely to be mutated?

A) TP53
B) CDH1
C) BRCA1

(gastric & breast cancer = CDH1)

A

B) CDH1

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37
Q

What increases validity of a cohort study the most?

A) Randomization
B) Eliminating recall bias
C) Matching
D) Blinding

A

D) Blinding

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38
Q

What tumor marker is elevated in ovarian epithelial tumors?

A) CA125
B) CA19-9 
C) CEA
D) LDH
E) AFP
A

A) CA125

39
Q

Gave us type of tumor (breast carcinoma), receptor expressivity, TNM staging and other things. What is the most important parameter that determines the patient’s prognosis?

A) TNM staging
B) Receptor expressivity
C) Grade of tumor
D) Histological type of tumor

A

A) TNM staging

40
Q

You gathered information about all cases of breast cancer in your hospital for the last 5 years. What are you most likely to find?

A) Approximately 3% of men will have breast cancer
B) More than 90% of the tumors expressed estrogen receptors
C) 25% in situ will be detected
D) 50% of Herceptin expressed

A

B) More than 90% of the tumors expressed estrogen receptors

41
Q

Which critically appraised topic is used as a source for recent information?

A) pubmed
B) up-to-date
C) Wikipedia
D) trip database
E) Clinical guidelines
A

D) trip database

42
Q

What is a delayed symptom of menopause?

A) Sexual dysfunction
B) Depression
C) Pelvic organ prolapse
D) Vaginal dryness

A

C) Pelvic organ prolapse

43
Q

What is a feature of fasting state in pregnancy?

A) Increase in serum HPL
B) Increase in serum Cortisol
C) Increase in serum Estrogen
D) Increase in serum Insulin

A

A) Increase in serum HPL

44
Q

Patient with cancer had swelling of her leg. Metastasis from what structure could have caused this?

A) Fundus of uterus
B) Body of uterus
C) Cervix of uterus

A

C) Cervix of uterus (external iliac LN)

45
Q

This time varies in males and duration increases with age.

A) Erection
B) Excitation
C) refractory period
D) plateau

A

C) refractory period

46
Q

Psychogenic and reflex types exist.

A) Erection
B) Excitation
C) refractory period
D) plateau

A

A) Erection

47
Q

There are increased muscle spasms.

A) Erection
B) Excitation
C) refractory period
D) plateau

A

D) plateau

48
Q

Increased blood flow to genital organs.

A) Erection
B) Excitation
C) refractory period
D) plateau

A

B) Excitation

49
Q

Which of the following is the first imaging modality for a 44-year-old woman with menstrual irregularities and lower abdominal mass?

A) Pelvic MRI
B) CT
C) pelvic US

A

C) pelvic US

50
Q

What increases in the second half of pregnancy?

A) Postprandial increase in amino acids
B) Decreased insulin
C) Lipogenesis

A

A) Postprandial increase in amino acids

51
Q

A 45 year old woman with bilateral ovarian masses with extensive peritoneal implants, thick peritoneal fluid and enlarged appendix.a biopsy was taken from the peritoneum. What is the expected microscopic picture?

A) Singet ring cells
B) Invasive papillary tumor
C) pools of acellular mucin
D) Clear cell carcinoma
E) Endometrial glands and stroma
A

C) pools of acellular mucin

52
Q

Outer glandular part of prostate is formed by what?

A

Urogenital sinus

53
Q

At 21 weeks of gestation the symphyseal-fundal height was at the level of the umbilicus. What does this indicate?

A) Small for gestational age
B) Large for gestational age
C) Normal

A

C) Normal

54
Q

52-year-old woman with amenorrhea for 11 months suddenly bled for 15 days. What is this type of bleeding?

A) Premenopausal
B) Perimenopausal
C) Postmenopausal
D) Intermenstrual bleeding

A

B) Perimenopausal

55
Q

What is the first line of treatment of dysfunctional uterine bleeding in a 35-year-old?

A) Hormonal medication
B) Non hormonal medication
C) Endometrial ablation
D) Hysterectomy

A

B) Non hormonal medication

56
Q

What is a semi-conservative (semi-objective) way to assess menstural bleeding?

  1. Menstrual padpictogram
  2. Number of vulva pads
  3. Clots
  4. Days of menstruation
A
  1. Menstrual padpictogram
57
Q

What is the most important imaging modality to evaluate dysfunctional uterine bleeding?

A) MRI
B) hysterosalpingogram
C) Transvaginal ultrasound
D) CT

A

C) Transvaginal ultrasound

58
Q

A 62 year female presented w postmenopausal bleeding was found to have a 6cm complex ovarian mass (solid and cystic) on ultrasonography. An endometrial biopsy showed complex atypical endometrial hyperplasia. What the pathological result of the ovarian mass?

A) Granulosa cell tumor
B) Thecoma
C) Fibroadenoma
D) HPV

A

A) Granulosa cell tumor

59
Q

What is the first imaging modality used in evaluating an abdominal mass?

A) MRI
B) CT
C) Ultrasound
D) Hysterosalpingogram

A

C) Ultrasound

60
Q

female with breast cancer and skin lesions and PTEN?

A) Cowden syndrome
B) Peutz jeugher syndrome
C) Li-fraumani syndrome

A

A) Cowden syndrome

61
Q

a 32 years old female with breast cancer and positive p53?

A) Cowden syndrome
B) Peutz jeugher syndrome
C) Li-fraumani syndrome

A

C) Li-fraumani syndrome

62
Q

breast cancer with positive STK11?

A) Cowden syndrome
B) Peutz jeugher syndrome
C) Li-fraumani syndrome

A

B) Peutz jeugher syndrome

63
Q

Plasma cells within the endometrial stromal cells?

A) Endometrial hyperplasia
B) Endometrial atrophy 
C) Endomterial polyp 
D) Endometritis
E) Endometriosis
A

D) Endometritis

64
Q

a male patient presenting with difficult urination which lobe of the prostate is involved?

A) posterior lobe
B) median lobe

A

B) median lobe

65
Q

commonest cause of carcinoma of cervix:

A) hpv 16/18
B) hpv 11/6

A

A) hpv 16/18

66
Q

What describes the characteristics of drugs during breastfeeding?

A) ionized drugs cross to milk compartment more than unionized drugs
B) heparin passes easily to the milk compartment
C) most drugs pass to milk compartment by passive diffusion
D) transfer of drugs into breast milk depend on half-life of thedrug
E) benzodiazepines are considered safe drugs during breastfeeding

A

C) most drugs pass to milk compartment by passive diffusion

67
Q

during normal pregnancy BP normally decreases in first 2 trimesters, this is due to a decrease in?

A

total peripheral resistance

68
Q

What is the function of the mid-piece of sperm?

A) contains mitochondria
B) contains DNA
C) helps in motility

A

A) contains mitochondria

69
Q

in females, it covers the crus clitoris?

A

Ischiocavernous

70
Q

what must a pregnant lady avoid eating?

A) Soybeans
B) Greek Yogurt
C) Raw shellfish
D) Salmon

A

C) Raw shellfish

71
Q

A man presents with a tumor that is homogenous grey-white, has a bulging cut surface, and no necrosis, hemorrhage, or cystic change?

A) Teratoma
B) Embryonal carcinoma
C) Seminoma
D) Choriocarcinoma

A

C) Seminoma

72
Q

Free serum thyroxine doesn’t change but the total thyroxine is increased, increase in which of the following is the reason behind that?

A

thyroxine binding protein (TBP)

73
Q

A 14 years old healthy girl otherwise having a mass in the left adnexal part of measurement 14 cm x 10 cm which is complex in ultrasonography.
And elevated alfa-fetoprotein. What is the diagnosis of this ovarian mass?

A

Endodermal sinus tumor (aka yolk sac tumor)

74
Q

What histological feature differentiates endometrial atrophic hyperplasia from endometrial carcinoma?

A

Invasion

75
Q

a 25-year-old female complains that she has her period every 50 days. What is the clinical term for her complain?

A) primary amenorrhea
B) secondary amenorrhea
C) anovulation
D) oligomenorrhea
E) hypo menorrhea
A

D) oligomenorrhea

76
Q

Women underwent D&C following spontaneous miscarriage, curettage specimen show cystic grape like structures with no fetal component. What is the placental abnormality?

A) placenta accreta
B) Placenta previa
C) circumvallate placenta 
D) hydatidform mole
E) choriocacinoma
A

D) hydatidform mole

77
Q

Who is more likely to develop menopause earlier (premature menopause)?

A) a lady who smokes 20 packs of cigarettes per day for 10 years
B) 30-year-old who had unilateral oophorectomy because of ovarian torsion
C) 49-year-old with simple hysterectomy

A

A) a lady who smokes 20 packs of cigarettes per day for 10 years

78
Q

A baby was born with ambiguous external genitalia. Upon endocrinological investigation, it was found that the baby has high testosterone levels and an autosomal recessive gene mutation that reduce the enzyme activity which converts cholesterol to cortisol, what is the condition?

A

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

79
Q

Fetal head is on the left lumbar and buttocks on the right lumbar?

A) transverse lie
B) Horizontal lie

A

A) transverse lie

80
Q

Penetration of the sperm to fertilize the ovum/oocyte by?

A

acrosomal reaction

81
Q

Endometrial glands proliferation and nuclear atypia?

A

endometrial hyperplasia

82
Q

cause foror secondary dysmenorrhea?

A

endometriosis

83
Q

Where does the vestibular gland drain to (lymphatics)?

A

Superficial inguinal lymph nodes

84
Q

It is bio transformed into a metabolite that inhibits FSH release?

A) Mestranol (prodrug)
B) Ethinyl estradiol

A

A) Mestranol (prodrug)

85
Q

What two structures join to form ejaculatory duct?

A

Ductus deferens & duct of seminal vesicle

86
Q

A 40-year-old pregnant woman, now 10 weeks of gestation, with previous 4 cesarean sections at 38 weeks of gestation. one child died 3 after birth for congenital anomaly. also she had two miscarriage

A) G6 P+4+0+2+3 
B) G7 P+0+4+2+3 
C) G7 P+4+0+2+3 
D) G6 P+4+0+2+4 
E) G7 P+4+0+2+4
A

E) G7 P+4+0+2+4

87
Q

autoantibodies to which autoantigen causes recurrent spontaneous miscarriage?

A

Phospholipids

88
Q

22 years old pregnant LMP is 12/12/2018. First trimester ends at?

A) 5/3
B) 12/3
C) 17/3 
D) 12/4 
E) 12/5
A

B) 12/3

89
Q

Which of the following drugs is a category X in pregnancy?

A

Warfarin

90
Q

What is the best treatment for dysmenorrhea in a 16 years old girl?

A) NSAIDs
B) Paracetamol

A

A) NSAIDs

91
Q

Which of the following induces lactation?

A) Cesarean section
B) Vaginal Delivery

A

B) Vaginal Delivery

92
Q

Which of the following is the prostatic artery a branch of?

A. Inferior vesical artery
B. Superior vesical artery

A

A. Inferior vesical artery

93
Q

What could be a cause of recurrent spontaneous miscarriages?

  1. Anti-endometrial antibodies
  2. Th1 cytokines
  3. Th2cytokines
  4. Anti-sperm antibodies
  5. Ab to syncytiotrophoblast
  6. Ab to cytotrophoblast
A
  1. Th1 cytokines

Repro module - 4th year (18 decks)

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