2015 module exam Flashcards
A woman had a lesion that looked suspicious. The patient needed tocheck how invasive the lesion was. Core needle biopsy showed the clinician that the mass should be removed. What is it?
A) ductal carcinoma in situ
B) lobular carcinoma in situ
C) lymphocytic mastopathy
D) intraductal papilloma
A) ductal carcinoma in situ
A 35-year-old woman who’s known to have type 2 diabetes presented with a firm well defined mass in the left breast that was there for several years.
A) ductal carcinoma in situ
B) lobular carcinoma in situ
C) lymphocytic mastopathy
D) intraductal papilloma
C) lymphocytic mastopathy
A 40-year-old female presents with a mass, bloody nipple discharge in the right breast. mammogram and US.
A) ductal carcinoma in situ
B) lobular carcinoma in situ
C) lymphocytic mastopathy
D) intraductal papilloma
D) intraductal papilloma
Bleeding that occurs at any gestational age?
A) cervical polyp B) placenta previa C) placental abruptio D) spontaneous miscarriage E) corpus luteum involution
A) cervical polyp
What can cause bleeding at less than 20 weeks of gestation?
A) cervical polyp B) placenta previa C) placental abruptio D) spontaneous miscarriage E) corpus luteum involution
D) spontaneous miscarriage
What commonly/most commonly causes bleeding during the third trimester?
A) cervical polyp B) placenta previa C) placental abruptio D) spontaneous miscarriage E) corpus luteum involution
C) placental abruptio
What causes post-coital bleeding?
A) cervical polyp B) placenta previa C) placental abruptio D) spontaneous miscarriage E) corpus luteum involution
A) cervical polyp
Organic cause of heavy menstrual bleeding?
A) von willebrand disease B) adenomyosis C) endometrial atrophy D) endometrial carcinoma E) cervical polyp
A) von willebrand disease
What is associated with (secondary) congestive (spasmodic) dysmenorrhea?
A) von willebrand disease B) adenomyosis C) endometrial atrophy D) endometrial carcinoma E) cervical polyp
B) adenomyosis
What lesion in adolescence that causes heavy menstrual bleeding?
A) von willebrand disease B) adenomyosis C) endometrial atrophy D) endometrial carcinoma E) cervical polyp
A) von willebrand disease
Lymph vessels follow this structure to drain into superficial inguinal lymph nodes?
A) round ligament
B) suspensory ligament
C) mesovarium
A) round ligament
Ovarian artery enters the broad ligament through this structure?
A) round ligament
B) suspensory ligament
C) mesovarium
B) suspensory ligament
C mesovarium was also correct
What muscle is normally cut in episiotomy?
A) external urethral sphincter
B) bulbospongiosus
B) bulbospongiosus
What muscle is responsible for ejecting the last drop of urine at the end of micturition?
A) external urethral sphincter
B) bulbospongiosus
A) external urethral sphincter
B) bulbospongiosus
A&B were counted correct
What cells produce AMH?
A) leydig cells
B) sertoli cells
B) sertoli cells
What cell synthesizes testosterone?
A) leydig cells
B) sertoli cells
A) leydig cells
What is seen next to most germ cell tumors?
A) leydig cell tumor
B) intratubular germ cell neoplasia
B) intratubular germ cell neoplasia
Case about a tumor with Reinke’s crystal?
A) leydig cell tumor
B) intratubular germ cell neoplasia
A) leydig cell tumor
Dilated chorionic villi and surrounding proliferation?
A) choriocarcinoma
B) hydatiform mole
B) hydatiform mole
A tumor showing trophoblastic proliferation and no chorionic villi?
A) choriocarcinoma
B) hydatiform mole
A) choriocarcinoma
Under the microscope, a section showed elongated cells with collagen fibers under the basement membrane of the seminiferous tubules, what are these cells?
Myoid cells
What nerve runs under the piriformis?
A) internal pudendal nerve
B) iliolumbar artery
C) inferior gluteal artery
D) superior gluteal artery
A) internal pudendal nerve
What artery is anterior to the ala of the sacrum?
A) internal pudendal nerve
B) iliolumbar artery
C) inferior gluteal artery
D) superior gluteal artery
B) iliolumbar artery
What artery enters between the ventral root of S1 and the lumbrosacral plexus?
A) internal pudendal nerve
B) iliolumbar artery
C) inferior gluteal artery
D) superior gluteal artery
D) superior gluteal artery
What is a contraindication for combined oral contraceptives?
A) Cerebrovascular disease
B) Decreased glucose
C) Ovarian disease
D) Endometrial carcinoma
A) Cerebrovascular disease
A testicular tumor with primitive neuroectodermal cells and foci of fetal tissue. What is it?
A) Mature teratoma
B) Immature teratoma
C) Seminoma
D) Embryonal carcinoma
B) Immature teratoma
Why does ectopic endometrial tissue in endometriosis survive?
Local aromatization of circulating androgens
Ectopic testis?
A) tunica vaginalis B) persistent processus vaginalis C) gubernaculum attaches to the pubic symphysis D) paramesonephric duct E) mesonephric duct F) efferent ductules G) urogenital sinus
C) gubernaculum attaches to the pubic symphysis
Encysted Hydrocele of the spermatic cord
A) tunica vaginalis B) persistent processus vaginalis C) gubernaculum attaches to the pubic symphysis D) paramesonephric duct E) mesonephric duct F) efferent ductules G) urogenital sinus
B) persistent processus vaginalis
proximal mesonephric tubule
A) tunica vaginalis B) persistent processus vaginalis C) gubernaculum attaches to the pubic symphysis D) paramesonephric duct E) mesonephric duct F) efferent ductules G) urogenital sinus
F) efferent ductules
A female athlete is suspected for gender ambiguity. She was found to have testicular feminizing syndrome/androgen insensitivity syndrome. What is the underlying cause?
Deficient androgen receptor
Which nerve is least likely to be affected in a caudal epidural block?
A) Pelvic splanchnic nerve
B) Internal pudendal nerve
C) Sacral splanchnic nerve
D) S2 dorsal root
C) Sacral splanchnic nerve
What is the mechanism of action of progesterone?
Thickens cervical mucus
What describes the role of progesterone during parturition?
A) It upregulates the oxytocin receptor
B) Maintenance of functional quiescence of the uterus
C) It increases gap junctions
B) Maintenance of functional quiescence of the uterus
A patient with BRCA2 breast cancer. What other cancer is he at risk of?
A) Thyroid
B) Prostate
C) Pancreatic
C) Pancreatic
Patient with lobular breast carcinoma. He then experienced hematemesis and biopsy showed signet cells. What gene is likely to be mutated?
A) TP53
B) CDH1
C) BRCA1
(gastric & breast cancer = CDH1)
B) CDH1
What increases validity of a cohort study the most?
A) Randomization
B) Eliminating recall bias
C) Matching
D) Blinding
D) Blinding
What tumor marker is elevated in ovarian epithelial tumors?
A) CA125 B) CA19-9 C) CEA D) LDH E) AFP
A) CA125
Gave us type of tumor (breast carcinoma), receptor expressivity, TNM staging and other things. What is the most important parameter that determines the patient’s prognosis?
A) TNM staging
B) Receptor expressivity
C) Grade of tumor
D) Histological type of tumor
A) TNM staging
You gathered information about all cases of breast cancer in your hospital for the last 5 years. What are you most likely to find?
A) Approximately 3% of men will have breast cancer
B) More than 90% of the tumors expressed estrogen receptors
C) 25% in situ will be detected
D) 50% of Herceptin expressed
B) More than 90% of the tumors expressed estrogen receptors
Which critically appraised topic is used as a source for recent information?
A) pubmed B) up-to-date C) Wikipedia D) trip database E) Clinical guidelines
D) trip database
What is a delayed symptom of menopause?
A) Sexual dysfunction
B) Depression
C) Pelvic organ prolapse
D) Vaginal dryness
C) Pelvic organ prolapse
What is a feature of fasting state in pregnancy?
A) Increase in serum HPL
B) Increase in serum Cortisol
C) Increase in serum Estrogen
D) Increase in serum Insulin
A) Increase in serum HPL
Patient with cancer had swelling of her leg. Metastasis from what structure could have caused this?
A) Fundus of uterus
B) Body of uterus
C) Cervix of uterus
C) Cervix of uterus (external iliac LN)
This time varies in males and duration increases with age.
A) Erection
B) Excitation
C) refractory period
D) plateau
C) refractory period
Psychogenic and reflex types exist.
A) Erection
B) Excitation
C) refractory period
D) plateau
A) Erection
There are increased muscle spasms.
A) Erection
B) Excitation
C) refractory period
D) plateau
D) plateau
Increased blood flow to genital organs.
A) Erection
B) Excitation
C) refractory period
D) plateau
B) Excitation
Which of the following is the first imaging modality for a 44-year-old woman with menstrual irregularities and lower abdominal mass?
A) Pelvic MRI
B) CT
C) pelvic US
C) pelvic US
What increases in the second half of pregnancy?
A) Postprandial increase in amino acids
B) Decreased insulin
C) Lipogenesis
A) Postprandial increase in amino acids
A 45 year old woman with bilateral ovarian masses with extensive peritoneal implants, thick peritoneal fluid and enlarged appendix.a biopsy was taken from the peritoneum. What is the expected microscopic picture?
A) Singet ring cells B) Invasive papillary tumor C) pools of acellular mucin D) Clear cell carcinoma E) Endometrial glands and stroma
C) pools of acellular mucin
Outer glandular part of prostate is formed by what?
Urogenital sinus
At 21 weeks of gestation the symphyseal-fundal height was at the level of the umbilicus. What does this indicate?
A) Small for gestational age
B) Large for gestational age
C) Normal
C) Normal
52-year-old woman with amenorrhea for 11 months suddenly bled for 15 days. What is this type of bleeding?
A) Premenopausal
B) Perimenopausal
C) Postmenopausal
D) Intermenstrual bleeding
B) Perimenopausal
What is the first line of treatment of dysfunctional uterine bleeding in a 35-year-old?
A) Hormonal medication
B) Non hormonal medication
C) Endometrial ablation
D) Hysterectomy
B) Non hormonal medication
What is a semi-conservative (semi-objective) way to assess menstural bleeding?
- Menstrual padpictogram
- Number of vulva pads
- Clots
- Days of menstruation
- Menstrual padpictogram
What is the most important imaging modality to evaluate dysfunctional uterine bleeding?
A) MRI
B) hysterosalpingogram
C) Transvaginal ultrasound
D) CT
C) Transvaginal ultrasound
A 62 year female presented w postmenopausal bleeding was found to have a 6cm complex ovarian mass (solid and cystic) on ultrasonography. An endometrial biopsy showed complex atypical endometrial hyperplasia. What the pathological result of the ovarian mass?
A) Granulosa cell tumor
B) Thecoma
C) Fibroadenoma
D) HPV
A) Granulosa cell tumor
What is the first imaging modality used in evaluating an abdominal mass?
A) MRI
B) CT
C) Ultrasound
D) Hysterosalpingogram
C) Ultrasound
female with breast cancer and skin lesions and PTEN?
A) Cowden syndrome
B) Peutz jeugher syndrome
C) Li-fraumani syndrome
A) Cowden syndrome
a 32 years old female with breast cancer and positive p53?
A) Cowden syndrome
B) Peutz jeugher syndrome
C) Li-fraumani syndrome
C) Li-fraumani syndrome
breast cancer with positive STK11?
A) Cowden syndrome
B) Peutz jeugher syndrome
C) Li-fraumani syndrome
B) Peutz jeugher syndrome
Plasma cells within the endometrial stromal cells?
A) Endometrial hyperplasia B) Endometrial atrophy C) Endomterial polyp D) Endometritis E) Endometriosis
D) Endometritis
a male patient presenting with difficult urination which lobe of the prostate is involved?
A) posterior lobe
B) median lobe
B) median lobe
commonest cause of carcinoma of cervix:
A) hpv 16/18
B) hpv 11/6
A) hpv 16/18
What describes the characteristics of drugs during breastfeeding?
A) ionized drugs cross to milk compartment more than unionized drugs
B) heparin passes easily to the milk compartment
C) most drugs pass to milk compartment by passive diffusion
D) transfer of drugs into breast milk depend on half-life of thedrug
E) benzodiazepines are considered safe drugs during breastfeeding
C) most drugs pass to milk compartment by passive diffusion
during normal pregnancy BP normally decreases in first 2 trimesters, this is due to a decrease in?
total peripheral resistance
What is the function of the mid-piece of sperm?
A) contains mitochondria
B) contains DNA
C) helps in motility
A) contains mitochondria
in females, it covers the crus clitoris?
Ischiocavernous
what must a pregnant lady avoid eating?
A) Soybeans
B) Greek Yogurt
C) Raw shellfish
D) Salmon
C) Raw shellfish
A man presents with a tumor that is homogenous grey-white, has a bulging cut surface, and no necrosis, hemorrhage, or cystic change?
A) Teratoma
B) Embryonal carcinoma
C) Seminoma
D) Choriocarcinoma
C) Seminoma
Free serum thyroxine doesn’t change but the total thyroxine is increased, increase in which of the following is the reason behind that?
thyroxine binding protein (TBP)
A 14 years old healthy girl otherwise having a mass in the left adnexal part of measurement 14 cm x 10 cm which is complex in ultrasonography.
And elevated alfa-fetoprotein. What is the diagnosis of this ovarian mass?
Endodermal sinus tumor (aka yolk sac tumor)
What histological feature differentiates endometrial atrophic hyperplasia from endometrial carcinoma?
Invasion
a 25-year-old female complains that she has her period every 50 days. What is the clinical term for her complain?
A) primary amenorrhea B) secondary amenorrhea C) anovulation D) oligomenorrhea E) hypo menorrhea
D) oligomenorrhea
Women underwent D&C following spontaneous miscarriage, curettage specimen show cystic grape like structures with no fetal component. What is the placental abnormality?
A) placenta accreta B) Placenta previa C) circumvallate placenta D) hydatidform mole E) choriocacinoma
D) hydatidform mole
Who is more likely to develop menopause earlier (premature menopause)?
A) a lady who smokes 20 packs of cigarettes per day for 10 years
B) 30-year-old who had unilateral oophorectomy because of ovarian torsion
C) 49-year-old with simple hysterectomy
A) a lady who smokes 20 packs of cigarettes per day for 10 years
A baby was born with ambiguous external genitalia. Upon endocrinological investigation, it was found that the baby has high testosterone levels and an autosomal recessive gene mutation that reduce the enzyme activity which converts cholesterol to cortisol, what is the condition?
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Fetal head is on the left lumbar and buttocks on the right lumbar?
A) transverse lie
B) Horizontal lie
A) transverse lie
Penetration of the sperm to fertilize the ovum/oocyte by?
acrosomal reaction
Endometrial glands proliferation and nuclear atypia?
endometrial hyperplasia
cause foror secondary dysmenorrhea?
endometriosis
Where does the vestibular gland drain to (lymphatics)?
Superficial inguinal lymph nodes
It is bio transformed into a metabolite that inhibits FSH release?
A) Mestranol (prodrug)
B) Ethinyl estradiol
A) Mestranol (prodrug)
What two structures join to form ejaculatory duct?
Ductus deferens & duct of seminal vesicle
A 40-year-old pregnant woman, now 10 weeks of gestation, with previous 4 cesarean sections at 38 weeks of gestation. one child died 3 after birth for congenital anomaly. also she had two miscarriage
A) G6 P+4+0+2+3 B) G7 P+0+4+2+3 C) G7 P+4+0+2+3 D) G6 P+4+0+2+4 E) G7 P+4+0+2+4
E) G7 P+4+0+2+4
autoantibodies to which autoantigen causes recurrent spontaneous miscarriage?
Phospholipids
22 years old pregnant LMP is 12/12/2018. First trimester ends at?
A) 5/3 B) 12/3 C) 17/3 D) 12/4 E) 12/5
B) 12/3
Which of the following drugs is a category X in pregnancy?
Warfarin
What is the best treatment for dysmenorrhea in a 16 years old girl?
A) NSAIDs
B) Paracetamol
A) NSAIDs
Which of the following induces lactation?
A) Cesarean section
B) Vaginal Delivery
B) Vaginal Delivery
Which of the following is the prostatic artery a branch of?
A. Inferior vesical artery
B. Superior vesical artery
A. Inferior vesical artery
What could be a cause of recurrent spontaneous miscarriages?
- Anti-endometrial antibodies
- Th1 cytokines
- Th2cytokines
- Anti-sperm antibodies
- Ab to syncytiotrophoblast
- Ab to cytotrophoblast
- Th1 cytokines
