15.16 Turboprop Engines Flashcards

1
Q

What is a gas-coupled turbine?

A

An engine designed with no mechanical connection between the gas generator and the free-power turbine, relying solely on gas flow.

This design allows for flexibility in engine configuration.

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2
Q

What are the advantages of a free-power turbine engine?

A
  • Vibration is not transmitted to the gas generator from the propeller/reduction gearbox
  • Easier to start, especially in cold weather
  • Low RPM during taxiing for low noise and low blade erosion
  • Use of a propeller brake to prevent movement during loading

The gas generator can function as an APU during engine shutdown.

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3
Q

What is the core engine of a turboprop engine commonly known as?

A

Gas generator or gas producer.

It produces high-velocity gases to drive the power turbine.

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4
Q

What is the primary function of a turboprop engine?

A

To provide efficient power for aircraft operating in the 483 to 725 km/h speed range.

It is more efficient than turbojets in this speed range.

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5
Q

How much total power can a turboprop engine extract to drive the propeller and other components?

A

Up to 95% of the total power produced.

The remaining energy is used as residual thrust.

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6
Q

What differentiates gear-coupled turbines from free-power turbines?

A

Gear-coupled turbines have extra turbine discs mechanically connected to the compressor and reduction gearbox.

This allows for increased power transmission generated by the exhaust gases.

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7
Q

What must be coordinated to maintain constant speed conditions in gear-coupled turbines?

A

Propeller pitch and fuel flow.

Changes in fuel flow necessitate adjustments in propeller pitch.

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8
Q

True or False: The propulsive efficiency of a turboprop remains constant in the normal cruising range.

A

True.

In contrast, the efficiency of a turbojet increases rapidly with airspeed.

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9
Q

What is the relationship between propeller speed and engine speed in gear-coupled turbines?

A

Both the propeller speed and engine speed are constant at normal operating conditions.

This requires a complex integrated propeller control system.

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10
Q

Fill in the blank: The turboprop engine provides the best specific fuel consumption of any _______ engine.

A

gas turbine

This efficiency is maintained from sea level to altitudes over 6000 metres.

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11
Q

What is the primary function of a reduction gearbox?

A

To reduce the high rpm from the engine to a propeller rpm that can be maintained without exceeding the maximum propeller tip speed.

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12
Q

What reduction ratio does the Pratt & Whitney PT6A-34 engine use?

A

A two-stage 15:1 reduction ratio.

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13
Q

At what rpm does the propeller rotate when the power turbine rotates at 33,000 rpm?

A

2200 rpm.

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14
Q

What types of gears are used in reduction gearboxes?

A

Both spur gears and epicyclic gears.

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15
Q

What is the advantage of using spur gears for smaller reductions?

A

They are mechanically simple and have lower frictional losses.

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16
Q

What is a disadvantage of straight-cut spur gears?

A

They are very noisy.

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17
Q

What type of gear arrangement allows for quieter operation but is less efficient?

A

Helical engagement of the gear teeth.

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18
Q

What is the function of ball bearings in reduction gearboxes?

A

To absorb and transmit all loads imposed on the gears to the casing.

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19
Q

How are gears in engine reduction gearboxes typically manufactured?

A

Machined from high-quality alloy-steel forgings.

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20
Q

What lubrication systems can be used for reduction gearboxes?

A

Lubricated from the engine’s lubrication system or a self-contained system.

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21
Q

What are the two main types of reduction gears?

A
  • Parallel spur gear type
  • Epicyclical type
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22
Q

What is the basic operational principle of epicyclic reduction gears?

A

A sun gear drives several planet gears engaged with a fixed or rotating ring gear.

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23
Q

How is the reduction gear ratio calculated in an epicyclic arrangement?

A

By dividing the number of driven teeth by the number of driving teeth.

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24
Q

In a fixed annulus arrangement, what is stationary?

A

The outer fixed gear ring or annulus.

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25
Q

What does the planet gear carrier do in a fixed annulus arrangement?

A

Drives the propeller shaft in the same direction of rotation as the power turbine shaft.

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26
Q

In a rotating annulus arrangement, how does the direction of the propeller shaft compare to the power turbine shaft?

A

It drives in the opposite direction.

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27
Q

What are the two types of bearing arrangements involved in helical gears?

A
  • Ball bearings
  • Tapered roller bearings
28
Q

True or False: The reduction ratio depends on the relationship between the size of the driving and fixed gear.

29
Q

Fill in the blank: Reduction gearboxes may have their own _______ system.

A

self-contained

30
Q

What is the primary purpose of a turbopropeller?

A

To provide an efficient and flexible means of using the power of the engine at any condition in flight.

31
Q

What are the two operational ranges of a turbopropeller?

A
  • Alpha range
  • Beta range
32
Q

What is the function of the low-pitch stop assembly in a turbopropeller?

A

To prevent the propeller blades from moving below a specified pitch angle.

33
Q

What does FADEC stand for?

A

Full Authority Digital Engine Control

34
Q

What is the role of the spinner assembly in a turbopropeller?

A

To reduce drag by enclosing the dome and barrel.

35
Q

What does the synchro-phasing system do?

A

Maintains a pre-set angular relationship between the master and slave propellers.

36
Q

What type of control system do larger turboprop engines typically use?

A

Dual acting hydraulic control systems.

37
Q

What is the purpose of the feathering system in turboprop control assemblies?

A

To feather the propeller when the engine is shut down in flight.

38
Q

Where is the throttle quadrant located in the flight deck?

A

On the centre pedestal.

39
Q

In a single-lever control system, what happens when the thrust lever is moved forward?

A

Increases fuel flow and selects a higher rpm.

40
Q

What is the function of the High-Pressure Fuel Shut-Off Valve during feathering?

A

Shuts off fuel flow to prevent engine overheating.

41
Q

What are the two distinct ranges of operation for the power lever in dual-lever controls?

A
  • Power range
  • Propeller control range
42
Q

What does the thrust lever do when retarded from idle to reverse?

A

Schedules fuel flow and blade angle from +20° to -20°.

43
Q

What is the Beta range in turboprop operation?

A

Ground operating range where the thrust lever influences blade angle.

44
Q

How does the propeller lever function in relation to the PCU?

A

Selects the required rpm by applying or releasing pressure on the governor control spring.

45
Q

What is the purpose of a control lock in turboprop engines?

A

To prevent excessive flutter of control surfaces on the ground.

46
Q

Fill in the blank: The degree of fining off into reverse in Beta range is governed by the position of the _______.

A

thrust control lever

47
Q

What is the primary purpose of overspeed protection systems for propeller aircraft?

A

To prevent extreme stress to the propeller and engine that can lead to rapid and total failure in flight.

48
Q

What causes overspeed in propeller aircraft?

A

Overspeed can result from engine power output exceeding the propeller’s ability to absorb it.

49
Q

How does centrifugal force affect propeller blades during overspeed?

A

Centrifugal force tries to reduce the blade angle to zero, potentially leading to a negative angle of attack.

50
Q

What happens to the propeller blades if the engine fails in flight?

A

The blades try to return to a zero angle, causing windmilling and uncontrollable RPM.

51
Q

What is the feathering angle of a propeller?

A

The angle where the blade chord is in line with the airflow, stopping the propeller from rotating.

52
Q

What is the function of the Automatic Drag Limiting System (ADLS)?

A

To quickly feather the propeller blades to avoid windmilling if oil supply to the propeller fails.

53
Q

What triggers the auto-feather system in the ADLS?

A

Negative torque indication sensed by the torque indication system.

54
Q

What is the role of the pitch increase solenoid in the auto-feather system?

A

To pass oil pressure to the control valve and force the propeller blades to feather.

55
Q

What are the two backup locking mechanisms for pitch locking?

A
  • Mechanical
  • Hydraulic
56
Q

What happens if the fine-pitch oil line pressure fails?

A

The mechanical pitch lock engages and prevents movement towards fine pitch.

57
Q

What does the propeller overspeed governor do?

A

It dumps oil pressure to increase blade angle if propeller speed exceeds 105%.

58
Q

What are the two functions of the propeller overspeed governor?

A
  • Control fuel flow to hold RPM in ground range
  • Limit maximum RPM in flight range
59
Q

How does the governor maintain RPM during flight?

A

A governor slide valve spills metered fuel to maintain the given RPM.

60
Q

What happens in the event of a turbine shaft failure?

A

A mechanical system shuts off the engine-metered fuel supply to prevent catastrophic breakup.

61
Q

What mechanism may be used to activate the closure of a fuel valve during turbine shaft failure?

A

A centrifugal mechanical switch.

62
Q

Fill in the blank: The reduction gearing can be as low as ______.

63
Q

True or False: The propeller acts as a brake when overspeed occurs.

64
Q

What is the result of the propeller driving the engine during overspeed?

A

The aircraft becomes uncontrollable.

65
Q

What is the function of the shuttle valve in the mechanical pitch lock?

A

To drain the oil holding the locks out of engagement if oil pressure fails.