Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Boards sheet > YOU CAN DO IT > Flashcards

YOU CAN DO IT Flashcards

1
Q

Fergusons angle is what

A

Lumbosacral angle
Angle formed by // line thru superior aspect of sacrum and horizontal
Normal 35-45 deg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Hyper/Hypolordosis angles

A

Hyperlordosis is more than 45
Hypolordosis is less than 35
Fergusons angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Hyperlordosis leads to

A

Increased shear force on L5-S1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Sacrum moves ant on ilium with inhalation or exhalation

A

Exhalation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Sacrum moves post on ilium with inhalation or exhalation

A

Inhalation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Supine to sit pneumonic for leg length

A

ALS (ant rot if long to short)

PSL (post rot if short to long)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Resting position - what distance between teeth

A

2-5 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Depression of mandible = what translation

A

Anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Elevation of mandible = what translation

A

Posterior and superior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Normal opening ROM of TMJ

A

40-50 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Scapulohumeral rhythm

A

For every 2 deg of GH motion, there is 1 deg of scapular motion
Early phase 0-30 is all GH
Mid (30-90) is 40 GH, 30 SC
Late (90-180) is 60 GH, 30 AC, 10 spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Total of __ deg of scapular ___ during flex/abd

A

60 deg of upward rot with flex/abd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Subacromial space - RTC dysfunction is space is what

A

Less then 6 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Bakart lesion

A

Ant/Inf labral tear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Common shoulder - dislocation and lesion

A

Ant dislocation

Can lead to Hill Sachs lesion - fx of post head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Shoulder - start with closed or open chain

A

Start with closed chain first

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Hornblowers sign

A

RTC - ERs

pt hold arm in scaption with ER against resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Maudleys test

A

Hand flat
Middle figner extended
For lateral epicondylitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Contents of carpal tunnel

A

FDP/FDS
Median nerve
FPL
FCR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

OA vs. RA joints

A 
OA = HerberDens (DIP) 
RA = Bouchards (PIP) and MCPs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

DeQuairvains involves

A

EPB

APL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What deformities seen with RA

A

Swan neck - PIP ext, DIP flex

Boutonniere - PIP flex, DIP ex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

HS strain common with

A

Hip flexion and full ext (hurdlers/runners)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Quad strain common with

A

rapid decelertion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Most common type of hip location

A

Post

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Close packed for hip

A

IR, abd, ext

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Capsular pattern hip

A

IR, flexion, ext = abd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

PCL torn with what

A

Varus
Twisting
Tibia on dashboard or fall onto flexed knee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

ACL torn with

A

Hyperextension, valgus rot force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Medial meniscus - shape and attaches to what

A

C shaped, atttaches with MCL and semimem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Lateral meniscus - shape and attaches to what

A

O shaped, attaches to popliteus and PCL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Maniscal tears happen with

A

rot/cutting moveemnt

Deep flexion or degeneration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Arthro of knee

A

Open chain = Concave on convex = SAME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Initial contact - Foot ___ and Calc ___

A

Foot pronates

Calc ev

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Push off - Foot ___ and Calc ____

A

Foot supinates

Calc inv

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

In nonweigthbearing the forefoot ____ Calc __

A

Forefoot Varus

Calc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Sustentaculum tali is where and what

A

Medial
Tom, DIck, Harry
TA, FDL, FHL and tibial nerve and artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

ROM needed for gait

hip and lower

A 
Hip flex 30
Hip ext 10
Knee flex 60
knee ext 0
DF 10
PF 20
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Avg gait cadence and velocity

A 
Cadence = 80-110 steps/min
Velocity = 1.3 m/s (3mph)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

wrist norm ROM

A

F 80
E 70
R 20
U 30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Most common lever in body

A

Third

FER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Arthro of radiocarpal

A

Carpals = convex
Radius = concave
Flex/Ext = Vex on Cave = OPP
Inc Flex = Dorsal glide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Arthro of talocrural

A

Talus = Convex
Tib/Fib = Concave
Vex on Cave = OPP

44
Q

MMT - but with good, fair…

A 
0 = Zero
1 = Trace
2- = Poor minus
2 = Poor
2+ =  Poor plus 
3-  = Fair minus
3 = Fair
3+ = Fair plus
4- = Good minus
4 = Good
4+ = Good plus
5 = Normal
45
Q

Person with new orthosis - wear it how often at first? For the first day

A

Wear it 1-2 hours

46
Q

Most important stretching for transfemoral - stretch what

A

Hip ext and add

Contracture would be flex and abd and ER

47
Q

Cruciate and collateral ligaments with IR of the tibia

A

Cruciate become tighter

Collateral become more relaxed

48
Q

Initial swing phase - need what knee flexion

A

60

49
Q

Midswing phase - need what knee flexion

A

30

50
Q

Termnal stance - need what knee flex

A

0 to 5

51
Q

Firm end feel =

A

Ligament
Tendon
Capsule

52
Q

First to occur with PROM

A

Stabilize proximal joint segment

53
Q

Talipes equinovarus =

A

PF
Hindfoot varus
Forefoot adduction

54
Q

Tarsal tunnel syndrome is associated with

A

Pes planus

55
Q

Strong and painful =

A

Minor lesion of musculotendinous unit

56
Q

Weak and pain free =

A

Complete rupture of the musculotendinous unit

57
Q

Weak and painful =

A

Inhibition by pain

58
Q

Weak and variable pain =

A

Neurological lesion

59
Q

Elevated BUN think

A

Renal problem

60
Q

Reduced BUN think

A

Liver/malnutrition

61
Q

P wave =

A

atrial depolarization

0.08 to 0.10

62
Q

PR itnerval =

A

Time to pass through AV junction

0.12 to 0.20

63
Q

QRS =

A

Depolarization of ventricles (and buries atrial repolarization)
0.04 to 0.1

64
Q

T wave =

A

Repolarization of ventricles

65
Q

QT interval

A

Less than or equal to 0.44

Total time for dep and rep of the ventricles

66
Q

Second degree - compare type 1 and 2

A

Type 1 = prog lengthens, drops every 4th

Type 2 = fixed long, drops every 2, 3, or 4

67
Q

Preload =

A

the amount of stretch in the LV at the end of diastole

68
Q

Afterload =

A

Systemic vascular resistance, amount of resistance the heart has to overcome to open the aortic valve and push blood volume into systemic circulation

69
Q

ACE inhibitors - end in what

A

“ril”

70
Q

Nitrglycerin - does what

A

Dec preload and afterload by VD

71
Q

Nitroglycerin is used for what

A

VD used for chest pain/angina

72
Q

Ca channel blockers - do what

A

Dec contractility
Dec HR, BP
VD

73
Q

ACE inhibitors do what

A

Dec afterload

Dec BP

74
Q

Beta blockers dp wjat

A 
Dec HR
Dec contractility
Dec O2 demand of heart 
Dec CO 
Dec BP
75
Q

Type of meds for CHF

A 
ACE inhib (VDs) 
Pos ionotropes (inc contractility) 
Diuretics (to dec preload) 
Ca channel blcokers 
Beta blockers (dec HR and cx and afterload)
76
Q

Types of meds for bradycardia

A

Atropine
Isoproterenol
Pacemaker

77
Q

Types of meds for tachycardia

A

BEAR DOWN!

Vagal stimulation

78
Q

Antiarrhthmia agents

A

Na channel
Beta blockers
K channel blockers
Ca channel blockers

79
Q

Digoxin does what

A

Helps AV node slow down impulses so more time for blood to go through efficiently
Enhanced mobidity when combined with diuretics!!!
Inc contractility by dec hR

80
Q

Meds for high BP - to help lower it

A 
DIuretics (dec preload)
Beta blockers (dec HR, cx, afterload, BP)
ACE inhib (VD, dec BP)
81
Q

Emphysema - think what

A

Pink puffer
SOB, thin.underweight
Inc AP chest diameter

82
Q

Chronic bronchitis - think what

A

Blue bloater

Chronic cough with sputum, Cyanosis, overweight, wheezing, R HF

83
Q

COPD - what percent emphysems vs. chronic bronchitis

A

80% CB

20% emphysema

84
Q

One of main treatments for COPD

A

BDs

Like albuterol

85
Q

Acute resp failure =

PaO2 of what and PaCO2 of what

A

PaO2 less than 60

PaCO2 greater than 50

86
Q

Aspiration is more common in which lobe

A

R because more vertical and larger diameter

87
Q

Normal ins:exp ratio

COPD ratio

A

1:2

COPD is 1:4

88
Q

Resonant sound associated with

A

Loud, low pitched - heard over lungs

89
Q

Dull sound associated with

A

High pitched, heard over liver and diaphragm

90
Q

Flat sound associated with

A

High pitched, heard over mm mass

91
Q

Tympanic sound associated with

A

High pitched, heard over hollow organs like stomach

92
Q

Pulmonary hypertension - normal values

A

Norm = 12-18 mm Hg
HTN is more than 20
No ex if more than 25

93
Q

Jugular distention is indicative of what

A

R heart failure

94
Q

Definition of MET

A

The amount of oxygen required to sustain an individual in a seated, upright posiiton

95
Q

Work hardening vs. conditioning

A 
Hardening = focus on job bx and tasks - Specific
Conditioning = physically return to work - non specific
96
Q

HMO =

A

In network only

PCP is gatekeeper

97
Q

PPO =

A

In and out of network

more expensive to go out of network

98
Q

POS

A

Requires PCP but can go out of network

Need referral to go out of network

99
Q

Medicare A

A 
IPT hospital
SNF
HH
Hospice
Inpt rehab
100
Q

Medicare B

A 
OPT
physician visits 
DME
ambulance
Mntal health
101
Q

Progress note = when

A

Every 10th visit or 30 calendar days

102
Q

Recert - when

A

At least 90 days

Or end of intiial cert and wanting to continue therapy

103
Q

8 min CMS

A

8-22 = 1
23-37 = 2
38 - 52 = 3
53-67 = 4

104
Q

Pneumonia x-ray will show what

A

Radiopaque (white) infiltrate involving the vast majority of the lobe

105
Q

Radiolucent = what color

A

Black

106
Q

Radiopaque = what color

A

White

107
Q

Women vs. Men Hematocrit and Hemoglobin

A

Women have lower hematocrit and hemoglobin
12-16 (F), 14-18 (M)
37-47 (F) 40-54 (F)

Boards sheet (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions