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Boards sheet > JUST KEEP SWIMMING > Flashcards

JUST KEEP SWIMMING Flashcards

1
Q

Iontophoresis - agent for muscle or joint pain

A

Salicylates

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2
Q

Iontophoresis - scar tissue, keloids, mm spasm

A

Calcium chloride

Has a negative polarity so would be applied beneath the negative pole (cathode)

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3
Q

Iontophoresis - tx inflammation and for analgesic purposes

A

Lidocaine

Has a positive polarity so would be applied beneath the positive pole (anode)

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4
Q

Iontophoresis - dermal ulcers and wounds

A

ZInc oxide

Positive polarity so placed beneath positive pole (anode)

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5
Q

Iontophoresis - Dexamethasone

A

Anti inflammatory

Negative polarity

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6
Q

Iontophoresis - what to use with someone who has myositis ossificans

A

Acetate

- goal is that it will absorb the Ca deposits

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7
Q

Iontophoresis - what is often used for treating scars and adhesive capsulitis

A

Iodine

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8
Q

Convection

A

Whirlpool

Gain or loss of heat resulting from air or water moving in a constant motion across the body

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9
Q

Conversion

A

Heating that occurs when nonthermal energy (mechanical, electrical) is absorbed into tissue and transformed into heat

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10
Q

Conduction

A

Direct contact

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11
Q

Hot packs are stored in what temp

A

158-167 degrees

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12
Q

Heat vs cold with nerve conduction velocity

A 
Heat = increase nerve conduction velocity
Cold = decrease it

Both heat and cold will increase pain threshold

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13
Q

Mode of traction for acute condition

A

Static

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14
Q

How many degrees of cspine flex is appropriate when targeting lower cspine using traction in supine

A

25-30 degrees!

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15
Q

Type of traction that is the most specific and controlled

A

Manual!

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16
Q

Intermittent traction with split table - table should be split when?

A

When the traction force approaches its max force

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17
Q

How many degrees of cervical flexion are most appropriate for targeting the upper cervical spine for traction

A

upper cervical (OA and AA) - 0 to 5 degrees!

C3-C4 10 to 20 deg
C5-C7 25 to 35 deg

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18
Q

Treating an L4 disc herniation with traction - which position?

A

Prone - force of 25% (strong enough to stretch soft tissue and treat disc protrusion)
50% would cause actual separation of the vertebrae

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19
Q

1MHz freq US comapred to 3MHz

A

1MHz used for 5cm depth

3MHz used for 1-2cm depth

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20
Q

Length of tx when using US

A

5 minutes for every area that is 2-3 times the size of the transducer face

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21
Q

How many cycles after shock with AED

A

5 cycles

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22
Q

Kehrs sign

A

spleen

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23
Q

Min width of hallway for two wheelchairs to pass

A

60 in

36 in for one wc

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24
Q

Max ramp grade for wheelchair ramp

A

8.3%

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25
Q

How high should a sink be off the ground

A

32 in

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26
Q

PA to lumbar spine would be to improve

A

Extension

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27
Q

Pronation of the feet is associated with

A

Valgus stress at the knee and IR of the tibia

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28
Q

Cessation of walking in boys with MD

A

Typically by age 10-12

Age 14 at the latest

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29
Q

Collagen fibers reorient in response to stresses placed on connective tissue - which stage

A

Chronic

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30
Q

Collagen formation and granulation tissue development occurs at an increased rate

A

Sub acute

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31
Q

During ROM, the pt has pain synchronous with tissue resistance

A

Sub acute

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32
Q

During ROM testing the pt has pain with mvmnt before tissue resistance

A

Acute

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33
Q

L4 dermatome

A

Medial side of great toe

Anterior knee

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34
Q

S1 dermatome

A

Lateral side of foot
Pinky toe
Posterior/Lateral thigh

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35
Q

L5 dermatome

A

Majority of foot/toes (not the medial big toe or the pinky toe)
Sole of the foot

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36
Q

L4 reflex

A

Knee

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37
Q

S1 reflex

A

Achilles

38
Q

With hip flexion, the sartorius performs

A

Hip flexion
ER
Abduction

39
Q

TFL mm action

A

IR and flexor of hip

40
Q

Putting on a jacket requires what shoulder motions

A

Abduction

IR

41
Q

Posterior glide of the talus improves what ankle motion

A

DF

Convex on Concave = OPP

42
Q

ER of the shoulder

A

Infraspinatus
Teres minor
Post delt

43
Q

Supraspinatus primary action

A

Abduction

44
Q

Teres major action

A

IR and extension

Lat is same

45
Q

Rhomboid mm action

A

Downward rotation

Retraction

46
Q

Joint mob to improve shoulder IR

A

Convex on concave = OPP

Post glide will improve IR

47
Q

Joint mob to increase shoulder abduction

A

Inferior glide

48
Q

Joint mob to improve shoulder ER

A

Anterior glide

49
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis - known complication

A

OP

should be able to walk, no sx, and no peripheral nerve dysfunction

50
Q

Short L step length

Excessive L knee flex with midstance - what is likely problem

A

Left hamstring contracture

51
Q

L hip flexor contracture - gait changes

A

Dec step length on R limb due to tight hip flexor on L

52
Q

Anterior talofibular ligament injury - most likely mechanism

A

Inversion

Test with anterior drawer

53
Q

OA and AA cervical coupling

A

OPP LF and Rot

54
Q

C3-C7 spine coupling

A

SAME LF and Rot

55
Q

Forward head posture - due to

A

Dec DNF strength

56
Q

Action of SCM

A

Ipsilateral LF, Contralateral Rot

Often tight with forward head posture

57
Q

Listers tubercle

A

Located on the dorsal surface of the radial styloid process

Acts as a hook for the EPL

58
Q

Tight left hip abductors will do what to the iliac crest

A

Pull it downward
So when standing with feet together, if left hip abductors are tight, the right iliac crest will appear higer but with feet spread apart they will be even

59
Q

Duchenne MD - common posture

A

Hip flexors shortened - Ant pelvic tilt
Thoracic spine moves into relative ext to compensate
Scapular winging to keep COM behind hip joint
Can see hamstring contractures

60
Q

Adsons - which mm

A

Scalene

61
Q

Wrights test/Hyperabduction - which mm

A

Pec minor

62
Q

Wrist arthrokinematics

A

Convex on Concave - OPP

63
Q

To improve ulnar deviation do what glide

A

Radial glide

64
Q

To improve radial deviation do what glide

A

Ulnar glide

65
Q

To improve wrist extension do what glide

A

Volar glide

PA

66
Q

To improve wrist flexion - do what glide

A

Dorsal glide

AP

67
Q

Snuff box

A

DeQ = EPB, APL

Near index = EPL

68
Q

Ant rotated innominate - which mm can you do MET with

A

Glut max!

69
Q

Diastasis recti - head lifts should be performed exclusively until when

A

The diastasis is 2 cm or less

70
Q

To improve supination do what glide

A

Distal RU = ulnar head, Ulnar notch of the radius
Moving radius = Concave on convex = SAME
Dorsal glide of the radius on the head of the ulnar

71
Q

Tibialis post - action - commonly seen when weak

A

PF and inv

Pronation, loss of arch height, pain with palpation to post aspect of medial malleolus

72
Q

Pt walks in // bars - noted pelvis drops down on side opposite of the stance extremity - what is weak?

A

abductors of the stance extremity

73
Q

Anterior rotation of innominate causes

A

Ipsilateral shallow sulcus and low and posterior ASIS

74
Q

Posterior rotation of the L innominate would cause

A

L sulcus deep

Left ASIS higher than R

75
Q

Post tibial tendon dysfunction - from posterior view will see what

A

Hindfoot valgus

Forefoot abduction

76
Q

With shoulder abduction - if scapular is not stabilized what movement happens

A

Upward rotation and elevation of the scapula

77
Q

Supraspinatus mm inserts where

A

Greater tubercle of humerus

78
Q

Duchenne MD - what signs happen first

A

Proximal mm weakness

79
Q

Standing in water with arm at side and elbow in 90 flex - buoyancy would resist what motion?

A

Elbow extension!

Sagittal plane and motion is in opposite direction of buoyant force

80
Q

Weak DF - can lead to what gait

A

Steppage

81
Q

Limited DF - can lead to what gait

A

Vaulting and early toe off

82
Q

At the end of terminal stance - ROM at hip, knee, ankle, metatarsals

A

Hip is 10-20 ext
Knee is 0 (neutral)
Ankle is 0 (neutral)
Metatarsals are 30 ext

83
Q

Midstance requires what ankle motion

A

10 deg of DF which progresses to 15 degrees of DF at heel off
PF contracture would have MOST difficulty with this phase of gait

84
Q

Heel strike requires what ankle motion

A

0 DF and then 15 PF

85
Q

Foot flat requires what ankle motion

A

15 PF and then 10 DF

86
Q

Heel off requires what ankle motion

A

15 DF and then 20 PF at toe off

87
Q

Talipes Equinovarus consists of what

A 
Clubfoot
Forefoot adduction
Hindfoot varus
PF of the ankle
Overall limited DF
88
Q

Normal PROM and decreased AROM - can be due to

A

Dec mm strength

89
Q

Foot progression angle is what

A

Angle btw longitudinal axis of the foot and a stright line progression of the body in walking
Negative = in toeing
Positive = out toeing

90
Q

Child with -10 progression angle would have what hip motion

A

Exaggerated IR and diminished ER

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