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2023 Lieutenants Exam > WMD > Flashcards

WMD Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 main categories of weapons of mass distruction?

A

Chemical, Biological,Radiological/ Nuclear, Explosive

P. 4

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2
Q

Terrorism is defined by what code?

A

28 Code of federal regulations (CFR)

P. 4

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3
Q

Unlawful use of force and violence against a person or property to intimidate or coerce a government

A

Terrorism

P. 4

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4
Q

Organophosphate poisoning causes what signs to a person that has been exposed?

A

Salivation, Lacrimation,Urination, Defication, Gastrointestinal, Emisis, Miosis

P. 6/ 29

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5
Q

The “M” is SLUDGEM stands for?

A

Miosis

P. 6/ 29

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6
Q

What are to 2 types of DECON?

A

Gross and Mass Decontamination

P. 8

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7
Q

When responding to an explosive incident the first arriving suppression should consider staging ____ ft from the site or where debris is first seen.

A

500

P. 17

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8
Q

Personnel should not use two way radios, radar, or television transmitting devices with in ____ ft of potentially explosive devices.

A

300

P. 16

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9
Q

What are the 4 mechanisms of blast injuries?

A

Primary, Secondary, Tertiary, Quaternary

P. 19

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10
Q

Of the 4 mechanisms of blast injuries which one would cause injuries to the lungs, GI tract, Sinus, Middle ear

A

Primary

P. 19

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11
Q

What is the most important route of exposure for Biological substances?

A

Inhalation

P. 21

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12
Q

What level of protection provides excellent protection for responders in a biological event?

A

Structural PPE, level B, or level C chemical PPE

P. 23

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13
Q

All of the following EXCEPT one are biological agents:
A) anthrax
B) plague
C) ricin
D) explosives
E) botulism
F) smallpox

A

D) Explosives

P. 23

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14
Q

Nerve agents primarily attack the

A

Central Nervous system

P. 29

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15
Q

Primary route of entry for a blood agent is?

A

Inhalation

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16
Q

Cyanogen Chloride, Hydrogen Cyanide are examples of

A

Blood agents

P. 30

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17
Q

Tabun, Sarin, VX are examples of

A

Nerve agents

P. 29

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18
Q

Nova area fire departments measure Radiation in Micro Roentgen, Milli roentgen and

A

Roentgen

P. 33

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19
Q

Basic principles of ALARA are distance, Time and

A

Shielding

P. 34

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20
Q

What is the most dangerous type of exposure to radiological exposure?

A

Inhalation

P. 35

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21
Q

How far should vehicle radios and MDTs be shutdown from an explosion scene?

A

300ft

P. 16/17

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22
Q

What distance should portable radios not make a transmission from a suspected IED?

A

50ft

P. 17

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23
Q

When should you not use preplan staging area for an event?

A

If multiple threats have been received for the same location

P. 17

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24
Q

What are 2 types of Decon?

A

Emergency gross decon and mass decon

P. 8

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25
Q

What is the most common gas produced with chemical suicide?

A

hydrogen sulfide

P. 45

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26
Q

What does L.Q.C. Stand for in clandestine lab field guide?

A

Location, Quantity, Combination

P. 43

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27
Q

What are the basic principles of ALARA?

A

Max distance, minimize exposure , Max shielding

P. 34

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28
Q

What is C in C.B.R.N.E.?

A

Chemical

P. 4

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29
Q

What is the standard unit of measure for radiological exposure?

A

Roentgen

P. 33

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30
Q

What is a mixture of chemicals confined to a bottle causing an exothermic reaction called?

A

Bottle bomb

P. 2

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31
Q

What are 2 things to consider for WMD event?

A

Unified command and multiple events

P. 4

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32
Q

Where should decontamination locations be setup?

A

Upwind and uphill

P. 7

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33
Q

What is something to look for and be aware of with victims of wmd?

A

Perpetrators

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34
Q

What is the hot zone in WMD?

A

Greatest degree of threat

P. 38

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35
Q

Where is command post and rehab located in WMD?

A

Cold zone

P. 38

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36
Q

Where must everyone decon when leaving at a WMD?

A

Hot zone

P. 38

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37
Q

What 2 groups are chemical agents divided into?

A

Toxic industrial chemicals and chemical warfare agents

P. 25

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38
Q

How do biological agents produce symptoms?

A

Not fast, takes several days to weeks

P. 24

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39
Q

What is primary harm in biological events?

A

Pathogen

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40
Q

Where is minimum staging distance from site or debris/damaged first encountered?

A

500ft

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41
Q

What is a roentgen?

A

A unit of measurement for the exposure of X-rays and gamma rays

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42
Q

What are the 4 main categories for weapons of mass destruction?

A
  1. chemical 2. biological 3. radiological/nuclear 4. explosive
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43
Q

Dispatch information, time of day, weather, area involved, number of casualties, vapor cloud occupancy/location and significant or historic anniversaries are part of what initial actions?

A

Size up

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44
Q

The acronym SLUDGEM stands for what in helping describe a person/persons that has been exposed to chemical warefare agents and organophosphate?

A

Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Defication, Gastrointestinal upset, emesis, and miosis.

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45
Q

While in a hot zone, hazardous materials teams should monitor for:

A

ID types of agents present, Toxicity/concentrations levels, O2 levels, presence of flammable gases, and radiation levels

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46
Q

A small moving van with 4,000 LBS of explosives would create a ___________ feet need for evacuation outdoors

A

3,800 feet

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47
Q

Two way radios, radar, and TV transmitting devices are not to be used within what range of explosive devices

A

300 feet

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48
Q

How far away should the staging area be away from the site?

A

500 feet from where the debris/damage is first encountered

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49
Q

When does the epidemiological investigation begin?

A

Once a biological attack or outbreak of disease is suspected

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50
Q

How many groups are chemical agents divided into?

A

2 (toxic industrial and chemical warfare agents)

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51
Q

Three responsibilities of the first responders arriving on the scene of a wmd incident to ensure the safety of response personnel:

A
  1. Establish isolation/control/work zones 2. Use proper PPE 3. Implement time, distance, shielding
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52
Q

What are ideal targets for secondary devices?

A

Decontamination corridors

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53
Q

A general rule for a clandestine lab that exists is?

A

The lab probably has a booby trap

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54
Q

The cold zone for dose rates in a radiological incident is?

A

2mR/hr

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55
Q

How often should the dosimeters be checked in the hot zone?

A

Every 15mins

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56
Q

Signs, rotten eggs smell, taped doors/windows/vents, cloudy or fogged car windows and abnormal presence of chemicals/pesticides may be sign of what?

A

Chemical suicide

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57
Q

Aluminum Phosphate in tablet form is approximately the size of an

A

Aspirin

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58
Q

Secondary injuries from an explosion can include

A

Penetrating ballistic or blunt injuries

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59
Q

What is the most dangerous type of radiological exposure to the body

A

Inhalation

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60
Q

Which radiological particle is the least hazardous?

A

Alpha

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61
Q

What is a Clandestine Lab?

A

A Place Where Controlled Substances used for illegal/illicit purposes are secretly manufactured

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62
Q

What is another term for Hot Zone as noted in the WMD Manual ?

A

Exclusion Zone

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63
Q

What unit of measurment is used for radiation?

A

Roentgen

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64
Q

Where should incoming units stage for WMD Incidents?

A

Out of the Line of sight, away from glass buildings, and in a place that utilizes barriers

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65
Q

What acronym is used for identifying chemical agents?

A

SLUDGEM

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66
Q

What is the most prevelant terrorist event?

A

Exlposive

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67
Q

DO NOT use radios or other transmitting devices within how many feet of unexploded devices?

A

300’

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68
Q

Where should first arriving units stage?

A

A minimum of 500’ away from first encountered derbis

69
Q

What do you do with Fatalities?

A

Leave them at the scene undisturbed

70
Q

Don’t Key your MIC within how many feet of explosives?

A

50’

71
Q

What is the best way to mitigate chemical attacks?

A

Decon

72
Q

Acronym for the goal in mitigating radiological events?

A

ALARA

73
Q

Radioactivity is dispersed in what shape?

A

Sphere

74
Q

What is the most dangerous type of exposure to the human body?

A

Inhilation of radiological material

75
Q

What is the only thing that takes precidence over decon?

A

Immediate life saving actions

76
Q

Dosimeters shall be checked every how many minutes?

A

15

77
Q

Acroynm for determing if a scene is supicious?

A

LQC

78
Q

As a general rule if Clandestine Labs Exist so do?

A

Booby Traps

79
Q

Exclusion zone is also referred to as the

A

Hot zone

80
Q

Involves a living microorganism, or its toxins. May cause human disease.

A

Etiological

81
Q

To survey external surfaces of people and objects using radiological meters and probes.

A

Radiological frisking

82
Q

A unit of measure for the exposure of x-rays and objects using radiological meters and probes.

A

Roentgen

83
Q

Do not use two-way radios, radar, or television transmitting devices within how many feet of potentially explosive devices. ?

A

300

84
Q

Consider staging a minimum of how many feet from the site or where debris/damage is first encountered

A

500

85
Q

The first-arriving suppression/EMS unit should approach the scene cautiously to evaluate the situation. This unit may be referred to as the

A

Reconnaissance group

86
Q

If multiple threats have been received for the same location (either in close succession or over a period of time), avoid

A

Using a Preplanned staging area

87
Q

Portable radios can be left on to monitor but should not make transmissions within how many feet of the suspected IED.

A

50

88
Q

What type of explosive creates a supersonic explosion, however, it lacks the over-pressurization.

A

Low order

89
Q

What type of explosive produces a deafening, supersonic, over-pressurization shock wave

A

High order

90
Q

bacteria, viruses, and toxins

A

Biological agents

91
Q

Two groups of chemical agents

A

Toxic industrial, chemical warfare

92
Q

chlorine, sulfur dioxide, phosgene, anhydrous ammonia, and concentrated sulfuric acid.

A

Toxic industrial chemicals

93
Q

Alpha and Beta particles, Gamma rays

A

Ionizing radiation

94
Q

A mixture of chemicals confined in a bottle causing an exothermic reaction resulting in an over pressurization and rupture of the container.

A

bottle bomb

95
Q

A place where controlled substances used for illegal or illicit purposes are secretly manufactured.

A

clandestine lab

96
Q

Involves a living microorganism, or its toxins, which causes, or may cause, human disease.

A

Etiological

97
Q

Chemical, biological, radiological/nuclear, and explosive

A

CBRNE

98
Q

salivation, lacrimation, urination, defication, GI upset, emisis, miosis

A

SLUDGEM

99
Q

Any exlosive detonation should be considered ___ until it can be ruled out by detection and monitorion equipment.

A

dirty

100
Q

Do not use two way radios, radar, or TV transmitting devicaes within ___ ft of a potentially explosive device.

A

300

101
Q

The first arriving suppression/EMS units should approach the scene cautiously to evaluate the situation. Consider staging a minimum of ___ feet from the site or where debris/damage is first encountered.

A

500

102
Q

Portable radios can be left to monitor but should not make transmissions within ___ feet of the suspected IED.

A

50

103
Q

Entry into a post-blast area should be limited to ___ .

A

life safety purposes only

104
Q

Responders should enter the area for viable victims only and then ____.

A

exit the area for treatment

105
Q

There are four basic mechanisms of blast injuries that a responder should anticipate with explosive injuries.

A

primary, secondary, tertiary, quandary

106
Q

eye and throat problems associated with quantaties of airborne pulverized concrete throughout the blast area.

A

grey out

107
Q

Leave ___ and their surroundings undisturbed.

A

fatalities

108
Q

Normal background radiation in the DC area ranges between ____ microRoentgen/hr.

A

5_20

109
Q

Each of us receives an average of ___ milliRem a year.

A

360

110
Q

The principals of ____ shall be used to limit responders exposure to radiation.

A

ALARA

111
Q

In clandestine labs LQC means?

A

location, quantity, combination

112
Q

What acronym encompasses the four main categories of WMD threats?

A

CBRNE

113
Q

Due to the multi-agency nature of these events, what should be established early in the incident?

A

Unified command

114
Q

“The unlawful use of force and violence against persons or property to intimidate or coerce a government, the civilian population or any segment thereof, in futherance of polical or social objectives” is the definition of what?

A

terrorism

115
Q

A common term used to describe signs of a person that has been exposed to organophosphates, is what?

A

SLUDGEM

116
Q

Should a large scale organophosphate exposure occur, who should be contacted to acquire anti-dotes from established stockpiles?

A

RHCC

117
Q

Where should decontamination locations be established relative to the incident?

A

upwind and uphill

118
Q

What is a basic method of decontamination?

A

clothing removal

119
Q

Initial responders should remain cognizant of what?

A

secondary devices

120
Q

Any explosion should be considered?

A

dirty

121
Q

Scenes as a result of explosions should be treated how?

A

as a crime scene

122
Q

When dealing with any long term CBRNE event, what additional resource should be requested?

A

IMT

123
Q

What is the most prevalent type of terrorist event?

A

explosive

124
Q

What level of PPE should initially be worn on scene?

A

firefighter PPE/SCBA

125
Q

While the first engine/medic may proceed into the scene cautiously, how far away should other units stage at a minimum?

A

500 feet

126
Q

Vehicle radios and MDT’s should be shut down within how many feet of an explosive incident?

A

300 feet

127
Q

The most common route of exposure to a biological agent?

A

inhalation

128
Q

The delay between exposure to a biological agent and onset of illness is known as what?

A

incubation period

129
Q

Which type of radiation can penetrate both skin and clothing, making it an internal and external hazard?

A

Gamma

130
Q

What acronym should be utilized to limit exposure to radiation, and encompasses the principles of time, distance, and shielding?

A

ALARA

131
Q

What unit of measurement is used in the US to measure exposure to radiation?

A

roentgen

132
Q

The process of transferring a hazardous material from its source to people, equipment or the environment called?

A

Contamination

133
Q

Weapons of mass destruction (WMD) include how many main categories?

A

4

134
Q

Particular attention about WMD’s must be paid to what areas?

A

Highly populated areas

135
Q

A common term used to describe signs of a person that has been exposed to these chemicals is what?

A

SLUDGEM

136
Q

The ‘L’ in SLUDGEM stands for what?

A

Lacrimation

137
Q

The ‘E’ in SLUDGEM stands for what?

A

Emisis

138
Q

The antidotes that are carried on predesignated units throughout the region are referred to as what?

A

CHEMPACKS

139
Q

If the antidote stockpiles are needed they should be requested through who?

A

RHCC

140
Q

The two types of decontamination that are available to first responders are Emergency Gross Decontamination and what?

A

Mass Decontamination

141
Q

The mass casualty decon corridor should be how wide?

A

15’-20’

142
Q

Do not use two-way radios, radar, or television transmitting devices within what distance of potentially explosive devices?

A

300 feet

143
Q

The first-arriving supression/EMS unit should approach the scene cautiously to evaluate the situation and consider staging a minimum of what distance from the site?

A

500 feet

144
Q

Explosives can be categorized as what?

A

high-order & low-order explosives

145
Q

How many basic mechanisms of blast injuries are there?

A

4

146
Q

What should be left undisturbed?

A

Fatalities

147
Q

The most important route of exposure to biological agents is through what?

A

Inhalation

148
Q

During a biological event primary harm is what?

A

Etiological

149
Q

Chemical agents are divided into how many categories?

A

2

150
Q

The most complicated type of response that fire departments may be faced with are what?

A

Radiological emergencies

151
Q

_____ are antidotes carried on predesignated units throughout the region to counteract chemical warfare agents and organophosphates.

A

CHEMPACKS

152
Q

Responders should NOT use two-way radios, radar, or television transmitting devices when operating within how many feet of a potentially explosive device?

A

300 Feet

153
Q

First arriving suppression/EMS unit should consider staging a minimum of ___ feet from the site or where debris/damage is first encountered.

A

500 feet

154
Q

The most important route of exposure to biological agents is what?

A

Inhalation

155
Q

What is the first step in providing adequate protection for people, property, and first responders during a

A

Establish response priorities.

156
Q

During a biological event, harm can occur in two ways. What is the primary harm?

A

Etiological.

157
Q

What is defined as “the delay between exposure and onset of illness”?

A

Incubation period

158
Q

What is perhaps the most important factor in the effectiveness of chemical weapons?

A

The efficiency of dissemination

159
Q

In a purely chemical event, what system of triage is not applicable?

A

START

160
Q

Which form of radiation are highly energetic and highly penetrating photons?

A

Gamma and X-Ray

161
Q

What is considered “background radiation” in the DC area?

A

5 - 20 uR/hr (microRoentgen/hr)

162
Q

In regards to radiation, what does ALARA stand for?

A

As low as reasonably achievable.

163
Q

Over 10 R/hr is considered what zone?

A

Hot Zone

164
Q

What is the dose limit when performing lifesaving or protection of large populations;

A

> 25 R/Hr

165
Q

What is the absolute turn back zone for radiation incidents?

A

200 R/Hr

166
Q

What is the most commonly produced gas in chemical suicides?

A

Hydrogen sulfide (H2S)

167
Q

LQC (Location, Quantity, Combination) is an acronym used in determining what?

A

If a suspicious location could be a clandestine lab.

168
Q

What is the IDLH of phosphene gas?

A

50 PPM

2023 Lieutenants Exam (32 decks)

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