WMD Flashcards
1
Q
What are the 4 main categories of weapons of mass distruction?
A
Chemical, Biological,Radiological/ Nuclear, Explosive
P. 4
2
Q
Terrorism is defined by what code?
A
28 Code of federal regulations (CFR)
P. 4
3
Q
Unlawful use of force and violence against a person or property to intimidate or coerce a government
A
Terrorism
P. 4
4
Q
Organophosphate poisoning causes what signs to a person that has been exposed?
A
Salivation, Lacrimation,Urination, Defication, Gastrointestinal, Emisis, Miosis
P. 6/ 29
5
Q
The “M” is SLUDGEM stands for?
A
Miosis
P. 6/ 29
6
Q
What are to 2 types of DECON?
A
Gross and Mass Decontamination
P. 8
7
Q
When responding to an explosive incident the first arriving suppression should consider staging ____ ft from the site or where debris is first seen.
A
500
P. 17
8
Q
Personnel should not use two way radios, radar, or television transmitting devices with in ____ ft of potentially explosive devices.
A
300
P. 16
9
Q
What are the 4 mechanisms of blast injuries?
A
Primary, Secondary, Tertiary, Quaternary
P. 19
10
Q
Of the 4 mechanisms of blast injuries which one would cause injuries to the lungs, GI tract, Sinus, Middle ear
A
Primary
P. 19
11
Q
What is the most important route of exposure for Biological substances?
A
Inhalation
P. 21
12
Q
What level of protection provides excellent protection for responders in a biological event?
A
Structural PPE, level B, or level C chemical PPE
P. 23
13
Q
All of the following EXCEPT one are biological agents:
A) anthrax
B) plague
C) ricin
D) explosives
E) botulism
F) smallpox
A
D) Explosives
P. 23
14
Q
Nerve agents primarily attack the
A
Central Nervous system
P. 29
15
Q
Primary route of entry for a blood agent is?
A
Inhalation
16
Q
Cyanogen Chloride, Hydrogen Cyanide are examples of
A
Blood agents
P. 30
17
Q
Tabun, Sarin, VX are examples of
A
Nerve agents
P. 29
18
Q
Nova area fire departments measure Radiation in Micro Roentgen, Milli roentgen and
A
Roentgen
P. 33
19
Q
Basic principles of ALARA are distance, Time and
A
Shielding
P. 34
20
Q
What is the most dangerous type of exposure to radiological exposure?
A
Inhalation
P. 35
21
Q
How far should vehicle radios and MDTs be shutdown from an explosion scene?
A
300ft
P. 16/17
22
Q
What distance should portable radios not make a transmission from a suspected IED?
A
50ft
P. 17
23
Q
When should you not use preplan staging area for an event?
A
If multiple threats have been received for the same location
P. 17
24
Q
What are 2 types of Decon?
A
Emergency gross decon and mass decon
P. 8
25
What is the most common gas produced with chemical suicide?
hydrogen sulfide
P. 45
26
What does L.Q.C. Stand for in clandestine lab field guide?
Location, Quantity, Combination
P. 43
27
What are the basic principles of ALARA?
Max distance, minimize exposure , Max shielding
P. 34
28
What is C in C.B.R.N.E.?
Chemical
P. 4
29
What is the standard unit of measure for radiological exposure?
Roentgen
P. 33
30
What is a mixture of chemicals confined to a bottle causing an exothermic reaction called?
Bottle bomb
P. 2
31
What are 2 things to consider for WMD event?
Unified command and multiple events
P. 4
32
Where should decontamination locations be setup?
Upwind and uphill
P. 7
33
What is something to look for and be aware of with victims of wmd?
Perpetrators
34
What is the hot zone in WMD?
Greatest degree of threat
P. 38
35
Where is command post and rehab located in WMD?
Cold zone
P. 38
36
Where must everyone decon when leaving at a WMD?
Hot zone
P. 38
37
What 2 groups are chemical agents divided into?
Toxic industrial chemicals and chemical warfare agents
P. 25
38
How do biological agents produce symptoms?
Not fast, takes several days to weeks
P. 24
39
What is primary harm in biological events?
Pathogen
40
Where is minimum staging distance from site or debris/damaged first encountered?
500ft
41
What is a roentgen?
A unit of measurement for the exposure of X-rays and gamma rays
42
What are the 4 main categories for weapons of mass destruction?
1. chemical 2. biological 3. radiological/nuclear 4. explosive
43
Dispatch information, time of day, weather, area involved, number of casualties, vapor cloud occupancy/location and significant or historic anniversaries are part of what initial actions?
Size up
44
The acronym SLUDGEM stands for what in helping describe a person/persons that has been exposed to chemical warefare agents and organophosphate?
Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Defication, Gastrointestinal upset, emesis, and miosis.
45
While in a hot zone, hazardous materials teams should monitor for:
ID types of agents present, Toxicity/concentrations levels, O2 levels, presence of flammable gases, and radiation levels
46
A small moving van with 4,000 LBS of explosives would create a ___________ feet need for evacuation outdoors
3,800 feet
47
Two way radios, radar, and TV transmitting devices are not to be used within what range of explosive devices
300 feet
48
How far away should the staging area be away from the site?
500 feet from where the debris/damage is first encountered
49
When does the epidemiological investigation begin?
Once a biological attack or outbreak of disease is suspected
50
How many groups are chemical agents divided into?
2 (toxic industrial and chemical warfare agents)
51
Three responsibilities of the first responders arriving on the scene of a wmd incident to ensure the safety of response personnel:
1. Establish isolation/control/work zones 2. Use proper PPE 3. Implement time, distance, shielding
52
What are ideal targets for secondary devices?
Decontamination corridors
53
A general rule for a clandestine lab that exists is?
The lab probably has a booby trap
54
The cold zone for dose rates in a radiological incident is?
2mR/hr
55
How often should the dosimeters be checked in the hot zone?
Every 15mins
56
Signs, rotten eggs smell, taped doors/windows/vents, cloudy or fogged car windows and abnormal presence of chemicals/pesticides may be sign of what?
Chemical suicide
57
Aluminum Phosphate in tablet form is approximately the size of an
Aspirin
58
Secondary injuries from an explosion can include
Penetrating ballistic or blunt injuries
59
What is the most dangerous type of radiological exposure to the body
Inhalation
60
Which radiological particle is the least hazardous?
Alpha
61
What is a Clandestine Lab?
A Place Where Controlled Substances used for illegal/illicit purposes are secretly manufactured
62
What is another term for Hot Zone as noted in the WMD Manual ?
Exclusion Zone
63
What unit of measurment is used for radiation?
Roentgen
64
Where should incoming units stage for WMD Incidents?
Out of the Line of sight, away from glass buildings, and in a place that utilizes barriers
65
What acronym is used for identifying chemical agents?
SLUDGEM
66
What is the most prevelant terrorist event?
Exlposive
67
DO NOT use radios or other transmitting devices within how many feet of unexploded devices?
300'
68
Where should first arriving units stage?
A minimum of 500' away from first encountered derbis
69
What do you do with Fatalities?
Leave them at the scene undisturbed
70
Don’t Key your MIC within how many feet of explosives?
50'
71
What is the best way to mitigate chemical attacks?
Decon
72
Acronym for the goal in mitigating radiological events?
ALARA
73
Radioactivity is dispersed in what shape?
Sphere
74
What is the most dangerous type of exposure to the human body?
Inhilation of radiological material
75
What is the only thing that takes precidence over decon?
Immediate life saving actions
76
Dosimeters shall be checked every how many minutes?
15
77
Acroynm for determing if a scene is supicious?
LQC
78
As a general rule if Clandestine Labs Exist so do?
Booby Traps
79
Exclusion zone is also referred to as the
Hot zone
80
Involves a living microorganism, or its toxins. May cause human disease.
Etiological
81
To survey external surfaces of people and objects using radiological meters and probes.
Radiological frisking
82
A unit of measure for the exposure of x-rays and objects using radiological meters and probes.
Roentgen
83
Do not use two-way radios, radar, or television transmitting devices within how many feet of potentially explosive devices. ?
300
84
Consider staging a minimum of how many feet from the site or where debris/damage is first encountered
500
85
The first-arriving suppression/EMS unit should approach the scene cautiously to evaluate the situation. This unit may be referred to as the
Reconnaissance group
86
If multiple threats have been received for the same location (either in close succession or over a period of time), avoid
Using a Preplanned staging area
87
Portable radios can be left on to monitor but should not make transmissions within how many feet of the suspected IED.
50
88
What type of explosive creates a supersonic explosion, however, it lacks the over-pressurization.
Low order
89
What type of explosive produces a deafening, supersonic, over-pressurization shock wave
High order
90
bacteria, viruses, and toxins
Biological agents
91
Two groups of chemical agents
Toxic industrial, chemical warfare
92
chlorine, sulfur dioxide, phosgene, anhydrous ammonia, and concentrated sulfuric acid.
Toxic industrial chemicals
93
Alpha and Beta particles, Gamma rays
Ionizing radiation
94
A mixture of chemicals confined in a bottle causing an exothermic reaction resulting in an over pressurization and rupture of the container.
bottle bomb
95
A place where controlled substances used for illegal or illicit purposes are secretly manufactured.
clandestine lab
96
Involves a living microorganism, or its toxins, which causes, or may cause, human disease.
Etiological
97
Chemical, biological, radiological/nuclear, and explosive
CBRNE
98
salivation, lacrimation, urination, defication, GI upset, emisis, miosis
SLUDGEM
99
Any exlosive detonation should be considered ___ until it can be ruled out by detection and monitorion equipment.
dirty
100
Do not use two way radios, radar, or TV transmitting devicaes within ___ ft of a potentially explosive device.
300
101
The first arriving suppression/EMS units should approach the scene cautiously to evaluate the situation. Consider staging a minimum of ___ feet from the site or where debris/damage is first encountered.
500
102
Portable radios can be left to monitor but should not make transmissions within ___ feet of the suspected IED.
50
103
Entry into a post-blast area should be limited to ___ .
life safety purposes only
104
Responders should enter the area for viable victims only and then ____.
exit the area for treatment
105
There are four basic mechanisms of blast injuries that a responder should anticipate with explosive injuries.
primary, secondary, tertiary, quandary
106
eye and throat problems associated with quantaties of airborne pulverized concrete throughout the blast area.
grey out
107
Leave ___ and their surroundings undisturbed.
fatalities
108
Normal background radiation in the DC area ranges between ____ microRoentgen/hr.
5_20
109
Each of us receives an average of ___ milliRem a year.
360
110
The principals of ____ shall be used to limit responders exposure to radiation.
ALARA
111
In clandestine labs LQC means?
location, quantity, combination
112
What acronym encompasses the four main categories of WMD threats?
CBRNE
113
Due to the multi-agency nature of these events, what should be established early in the incident?
Unified command
114
"The unlawful use of force and violence against persons or property to intimidate or coerce a government, the civilian population or any segment thereof, in futherance of polical or social objectives" is the definition of what?
terrorism
115
A common term used to describe signs of a person that has been exposed to organophosphates, is what?
SLUDGEM
116
Should a large scale organophosphate exposure occur, who should be contacted to acquire anti-dotes from established stockpiles?
RHCC
117
Where should decontamination locations be established relative to the incident?
upwind and uphill
118
What is a basic method of decontamination?
clothing removal
119
Initial responders should remain cognizant of what?
secondary devices
120
Any explosion should be considered?
dirty
121
Scenes as a result of explosions should be treated how?
as a crime scene
122
When dealing with any long term CBRNE event, what additional resource should be requested?
IMT
123
What is the most prevalent type of terrorist event?
explosive
124
What level of PPE should initially be worn on scene?
firefighter PPE/SCBA
125
While the first engine/medic may proceed into the scene cautiously, how far away should other units stage at a minimum?
500 feet
126
Vehicle radios and MDT's should be shut down within how many feet of an explosive incident?
300 feet
127
The most common route of exposure to a biological agent?
inhalation
128
The delay between exposure to a biological agent and onset of illness is known as what?
incubation period
129
Which type of radiation can penetrate both skin and clothing, making it an internal and external hazard?
Gamma
130
What acronym should be utilized to limit exposure to radiation, and encompasses the principles of time, distance, and shielding?
ALARA
131
What unit of measurement is used in the US to measure exposure to radiation?
roentgen
132
The process of transferring a hazardous material from its source to people, equipment or the environment called?
Contamination
133
Weapons of mass destruction (WMD) include how many main categories?
4
134
Particular attention about WMD's must be paid to what areas?
Highly populated areas
135
A common term used to describe signs of a person that has been exposed to these chemicals is what?
SLUDGEM
136
The 'L' in SLUDGEM stands for what?
Lacrimation
137
The 'E' in SLUDGEM stands for what?
Emisis
138
The antidotes that are carried on predesignated units throughout the region are referred to as what?
CHEMPACKS
139
If the antidote stockpiles are needed they should be requested through who?
RHCC
140
The two types of decontamination that are available to first responders are Emergency Gross Decontamination and what?
Mass Decontamination
141
The mass casualty decon corridor should be how wide?
15'-20'
142
Do not use two-way radios, radar, or television transmitting devices within what distance of potentially explosive devices?
300 feet
143
The first-arriving supression/EMS unit should approach the scene cautiously to evaluate the situation and consider staging a minimum of what distance from the site?
500 feet
144
Explosives can be categorized as what?
high-order & low-order explosives
145
How many basic mechanisms of blast injuries are there?
4
146
What should be left undisturbed?
Fatalities
147
The most important route of exposure to biological agents is through what?
Inhalation
148
During a biological event primary harm is what?
Etiological
149
Chemical agents are divided into how many categories?
2
150
The most complicated type of response that fire departments may be faced with are what?
Radiological emergencies
151
_____ are antidotes carried on predesignated units throughout the region to counteract chemical warfare agents and organophosphates.
CHEMPACKS
152
Responders should NOT use two-way radios, radar, or television transmitting devices when operating within how many feet of a potentially explosive device?
300 Feet
153
First arriving suppression/EMS unit should consider staging a minimum of ___ feet from the site or where debris/damage is first encountered.
500 feet
154
The most important route of exposure to biological agents is what?
Inhalation
155
What is the first step in providing adequate protection for people, property, and first responders during a
Establish response priorities.
156
During a biological event, harm can occur in two ways. What is the primary harm?
Etiological.
157
What is defined as "the delay between exposure and onset of illness"?
Incubation period
158
What is perhaps the most important factor in the effectiveness of chemical weapons?
The efficiency of dissemination
159
In a purely chemical event, what system of triage is not applicable?
START
160
Which form of radiation are highly energetic and highly penetrating photons?
Gamma and X-Ray
161
What is considered "background radiation" in the DC area?
5 - 20 uR/hr (microRoentgen/hr)
162
In regards to radiation, what does ALARA stand for?
As low as reasonably achievable.
163
Over 10 R/hr is considered what zone?
Hot Zone
164
What is the dose limit when performing lifesaving or protection of large populations;
>25 R/Hr
165
What is the absolute turn back zone for radiation incidents?
200 R/Hr
166
What is the most commonly produced gas in chemical suicides?
Hydrogen sulfide (H2S)
167
LQC (Location, Quantity, Combination) is an acronym used in determining what?
If a suspicious location could be a clandestine lab.
168
What is the IDLH of phosphene gas?
50 PPM
