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2023 Lieutenants Exam > 2019 Emergency Medical Services > Flashcards

2019 Emergency Medical Services Flashcards

1
Q

When does a person become a patient?

A

When an assessment is necessary to ensure no illness or injury is overlooked

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2
Q

If a psychiatric patient is deemed a threat to themselves or others __

A

Police officers may take the patient into custody on their own authority for up to 8 hrs

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3
Q

Your patient with a Richmond Agitation Sedation Scale score of -2 is described as…

A

Briefly (<10 seconds) awakens with eye contact to voice

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4
Q

A medical ECO is valid for up to how long

A

4 hrs

P. 33

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5
Q

In regards to pre-hospital patient care if an intervening physician not on scene is attempting to assume patient care responsibility, they must first

A

They may not assume patient care responsibility or provide POLMD without physical presence on scene

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6
Q

Persons identified as “super utilizers” are perfect candidates for the Community Response Team referal. What are the requirements to be eligiable for a referal?

A

Greater than 6 calls of service within 60 days

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7
Q

Are we allowed to transport motorized wheelchairs in the back of county ambulances?

A

No. We are unable to properly secure the equipment in the back of the transport unit.

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8
Q

Per the BLS treatment protocol for acute coranary syndrome, your 17- year old female patient is complaining of crushing chest pain. What is the dose of Aspirin you would give her?

A

None. She is under 18 years old.

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9
Q

What is a true statement regarding patients with artificial hearts (TAH)?

A

TAH patients should not have CPR performed and should not have the LUCAS device applied.

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10
Q

in regards to hyperglycemia, what is not part of the five “I’s” that cause diabetic ketoacidosis and hyperosmolar hyperglycemic states:

A

immunizations

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11
Q

Pregnant patients greater than __ should be transported to an OB capable facility.

A

20 weeks

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12
Q

Transport the supine patient in the__ position if delivery is not imminent

A

Left lateral recumbent

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13
Q

In preparation for childbirth, what temperature should the back of the medic be?

A

90-100F

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14
Q

Upon a successful, uncomplicated delivery of a newborm how long should the cord be delayed in clamping?

A

30-60 seconds

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15
Q

How far should cord clamps be placed following an uncomplicated delivery of a newborn

A

Two places. 8-10 inches from the infant

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16
Q

Hemoglobin’s binding affinity for CO is how many times greater than its affinity for oxygen.

A

250 times

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17
Q

In regards to envenomation, recommendations from poison control…

A

Are not considered POLMD

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18
Q

For patients less than what age should pediatric orders always apply?

A

14 years old

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19
Q

What is not a contraindication for air medical transport from emergency scenes

A

Patients who have a fear of flying

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20
Q

The Pedi-mate can accomidate children up to __

A

40 lbs

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21
Q

What does the “C” in the CURVES mnemonic stand for?

A

Communicate

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22
Q

________ is the absence of mechanical or electrical cardiac activity.

A

Asystole

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23
Q

___________ is three or more ventricular complexes in succession.

A

Ventricular Tachycardia

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24
Q

Hypothermic Arrest is for patients whose arrest is believed to be due to hypothermia (core temperature below _____°F).

A

95

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25
Q

The hallmark of A-Fib is a narrow complex tachycardia that is ________ irregular.

A

Irregularly

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26
Q

When loading, or unloading a loaded cot from the unit, a minimum of __________ must be standing outside at the rear of the vehicle.

A

Two personnel

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27
Q

QI Committee conclusion findings may include: No variance, Variance and _________

A

Not a patient care issue

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28
Q

What can be used to frighten an animal out of a work area or into an area that can be secured?

A

CO2 extinguisher

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29
Q

A less desirable way to secure a weapon that a patient has on their person would be ?

A

Place it in the locked medication compartment on the transport unit

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30
Q

What is the safest place for an adult accompanying a patient in a transport unit?

A

Front passenger seat

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31
Q

Resuscitative efforts may not be terminated if the patient is under the age of what ?

A

18

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32
Q

What mnemonic should be used when calling in a medical radio and face to face report

A

DeNEST

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33
Q

For cases considered for field termination,contact POLMD after _____minutesof resuscitation for discussion and if approved,may terminate after ______minutesof resuscitation?

A

20min/30min

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34
Q

Minors with intact decisio-making capacity,who are _____ years old or older and whose parent or legal guardian are unable to be contacted,may refuse all services

A

14

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35
Q

How many complete sets of vital signs are needed with a refusal?

A

2

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36
Q

A mnemonic that may aid the assessment of decision-making capacity

A

CURVES

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37
Q

What does the abbreviation ECO stand for?

A

Emergency Custody Order

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38
Q

Never restrain a patient in the _______,________or_________position

A

Prone,Hogtied,hobbled

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39
Q

Restrain patient in a position of comfort and safety where the patients _________,_________and_________are protected and can be continuously monitored .

A

Airway,Breathing and Circulation

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40
Q

What group does triage in the Hot and Warm zone

A

Rescue Task Force

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41
Q

Who removes patients from the warm zone ?

A

Extraction Task Force

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42
Q

Who gets notified of a workplace fatality/injury and how soon do they need to be notified

A

VOSH/ASAP

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43
Q

If a patients preference of hospital involves a transport greater then 60 minutes one way , who must be contacted for approval?

A

EMS Supervisor/UFO

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44
Q

How many grams of Glucose does one tube hold?

A

15 grams

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45
Q

How much baby aspirin can a BLS provider administer to a patient over 18 years old experiencing chest pain ?

A

162 mg

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46
Q

If a patient is prescribed nitroglycerin and has been instructed to take it for observed symptoms ,how many total nitroglycerin can the BLS provider assist the patient with taking

A

3

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47
Q

How much Epi can be given with a pre marked syringe

A

0.3mg

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48
Q

In a hypoglycemic emergency of an adolescent male with a glucose level less than ____, you can administer one instant glucose tube, as long as they meet all criteria.

A

70

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49
Q

In a moderate to severe adult allergic reaction emergency, the proper drug administered for a BLS provider is _____.

A

0.3mg epinepherine

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50
Q

When performing chest compressions of an adult patient, what is the depth desired with how many beats per minute?

A

2 inches/120

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51
Q

If available during a narcotic overdose, what size narcan nasal spray can be administered is ___.

A

2-4mg

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52
Q

In a hypoglycemic emergency of an pediatric male with a glucose level less than ____, you can administer one instant glucose tube, as long as they meet all criteria.

A

60

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53
Q

Hemoglobin binging affinity for CO is hwo many times greater than that of air?

A

250

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54
Q

During a CO emergency you are tasked to check people’s SpCO readings with the RAD-57. What is a normal reading range?

A

0-4%

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55
Q

In a moderate to severe pediatric 15-30 kg allergic reaction emergency, the proper drug administered for a BLS provider is _____.

A

0.15 mg epinepherine

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56
Q

For acute coronary syndrome how many baby aspirin can be administered?

A

2

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57
Q

If a patient is prescribed nitroglycerin and the paitent took 1 tablet prior to calling 911 how many more can you assit with giving?

A

2

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58
Q

How many prpescribed nitroglycerin can you assist giving?

A

3

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59
Q

To assist giving nitroglycerin what must the sbp be over?

A

100

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60
Q

If your patient has a heart rate____ or less than can you not assist giving nitroglycerin?

A

50

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61
Q

Suction no longer than how many seconds?

A

15

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62
Q

Do not deploy the LUCAS until after what cycle of CPR?

A

5th

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63
Q

For a adult/teen what is the approiate depth for compressions during CPR?

A

2”

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64
Q

What pulse oximeter range indicates COPD?

A

88% - 92%

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65
Q

What pulse oximeter range indicates nomal?

A

94% or greater

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66
Q

What may a reading “KETONES” mean on a Gulcometer indicate?

A

300mg/dL or higher

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67
Q

When is a patient provider relationship established?

A

The moment the EMS provider has determined an assessment is necessary to ensure that no illness/injury is overlooked and to ensure the individual’s capacity to decline an assessment is not impaired by illness, injury or intoxication

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68
Q

For field EMS operations, minors are patients under the age of what?

A

18

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69
Q

What age can a patient refuse care if attempts at notifying a parent or legal guardian were unsuccessful?

A

14

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70
Q

In the mnemonic CURVES used to aid in assessing decision-making capacity, what does the R stand for?

A

Reason: must be able to explain the reasons behind their decision

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71
Q

What color is POST form?

A

Bright lime colored

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72
Q

In the time goal for ACS of 5-5-10-2, what does the 10 stand for?

A

STEMI identification to enroute to facility less than 10 minutes

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73
Q

BLS providers should withhold given the patient’s prescribed nitroglycerin if the patient’s systolic blood pressure is below what?

A

100

74
Q

If patient is having a moderate to severe allergic reaction, after contacting POLMD, BLS providers can administered how much Epinephrine?

A

Epi (1mg/ml) .3mg IM

75
Q

Liver Mortis onset time postmortem is what?

A

20 minutes to three hours

76
Q

The placement of the LUCAS should be deferred until after what cycle of CPR?

A

5th cycle

77
Q

What is the temperature of a patient with mild hyperthermia?

A

90 to 95 degree F

78
Q

What is a patient’s condition if they have the following signs and symptoms of hyperthermia: Normal mental status; Cool, moist skin; Weak and rapid pulse; Rapid and shallow respirations; Headache, dizziness, nausea/vomiting, and cramping?

A

Heat Exhaustion

79
Q

Where do you clamp the cord on newborn umbilical cord?

A

Two places about 8 – 10 inches from the newborn

80
Q

What is hemoglobin binding affinity for CO verses O2?

A

250 times greater affinity for CO than O2

81
Q

What is the acronym used to remember the symptoms of an organophosphate poisoning?

A

SLUDGE

82
Q

What is the minimum MAP necessary for proper blood flow to the organs, like the kidneys and brain?

A

60 mmHg

83
Q

What is the most capable type of Stroke Center/Hospital that can handle any type of stroke?

A

Comprehensive Sroke Center

84
Q

Death from atrial bleeding an occur in how many minutes?

A

2-4 minutes

85
Q

What is the BLS treatment for simple burns less than 10% BSA?

A

Apply a sterile gauze soaked with cool/tepid water or normal saline to burned area; wrap the patient in a dry sheet

86
Q

What is the term that describes eye movement together?

A

Conjugate

87
Q

What age group(s) are reported to Adult Protected Services (APS) if abuse, neglect or exploitation is suspected?

A

Mentally or physically disabled between 18 year and 59 years old and elderly greater than 60 years old

88
Q

What color is the Physician Orders for Scope of Treatment (POST) form?

A

bright lime

89
Q

When on scene with a Fairfax County working dog such as, Police drug detection canine or FRD accelerant detection dog, that has had a toxic exposure to a narcotic, what should FD personnel do?

A

FD personnel can supply the handler the Narcan for them to administer

90
Q

What hospital(s) have a dedicated bariatric in-patient care unit?

A

INOVA Fair Oaks Hospital, Reston Hospital Center

91
Q

What is the recommended maximum on scene time for a trauma once providers have full access to the patient?

A

10 minutes

92
Q

When a transport is going to be greater than ________, contact the UFO and EMS supervisor for approval.

A

60 minutes

93
Q

When glucometer reads “KETONES?”, the reading would be ______ or higher?

A

300mg/dL

94
Q

How long should pressure be held during wound packing?

A

3 minutes

95
Q

When loading or unloading a loaded cot from the unit, what is the minimum of personnel must be standing outside at the rear of the vehicle?

A

2 personnel

96
Q

When should oxygen be administered to a patient?

A

When oxygen saturation levels are below 94%

97
Q

Suctioning for an adult should be no more than ______ and for infants/children should be no more than _______.

A

15 seconds, 5 seconds

98
Q

Assessments are repeated every ________ for unstable patients and every _______ for stable patients.

A

5 minutes, 15 minutes

99
Q

What is the “E” in the CURVES mnemonic for assessment of Decision-making capacity?

A

emergent condition

100
Q

Epinephrine, Glucagon, Diastat and what other medication require a child to leave school?

A

Solu-cortef

101
Q

How long is a medical ECO good for?

A

4 hours

102
Q

According to START Triage a pediatric patient that is not breathing after opening of their airway should have what performed?

A

Check for a pulse

103
Q

When should the FACT*R protocol be considered for any patient?

A

Entrapment of greater than 30 mins with sustained heart rate of 110 BPM and SBP of 90.

104
Q

How many attempts are allowed for I-gel placement in patients greater than 12 years old?

A

2

105
Q

First degree burns involving more than _____% BSA are transported to a burn center.

A

50%

106
Q

What does the “T” in TICLS for the pediatric assessment stands for?

A

tone

107
Q

What does the Mnemonic may aid the assessment of Decision-Making Capacity called?

A

CURVES

108
Q

What does the “C” in curves mean?

A

Communicate

109
Q

In the field of EMS operations, what is considered a minor?

A

Under the age of 18

110
Q

What age can minors refuse service with intact decision making capability?

A

14

111
Q

What is the Willful infliction of physical pain, injury, mental anguish, or unreasonable confinement called?

A

Abuse

112
Q

When should CRT be called on a patient?

A

Six 911 calls within 60 days

113
Q

What color is the physicians Order for Scope of Treatment form?

A

Bright Lime green

114
Q

What does the acronym START stand for?

A

Simple triage rapid transport

115
Q

How many rescue breathes can you give a peds in triage if the have a pulse?

A

5

116
Q

What the recommended on scene time for a trauma patient?

A

10 minutes

117
Q

What is the recommended on scene time for ACS and stroke?

A

10 minutes

118
Q

What does a Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke test include?

A

Asset speech, facial droop and test arm drift

119
Q

What alert is 5-5-10-2 used for?

A

Stemi

120
Q

What is the goal in time of a medic unit enroute to a hospital with a stemi alert?

A

10 minutes

121
Q

Where is position 3 in pit crew cpr?

A

Head

122
Q

What temperature should the back of the transport unit be if delivery is imminent?

A

90-100

123
Q

Who do you contact if patient request transport to go out of state?

A

UFO and EMS supervisor

124
Q

What does CPAP stand for?

A

CONTINUOUS POSITIVE AIRWAY PRESSURE

125
Q

What is a general contraindiction for I-gel?

A

Patients who have ingested caustic substances

126
Q

What is the absence of mechanical or electrical cardiac activity?

A

Asystole

127
Q

When does a person become a patient?

A

When a provider has determined an assemssment is needed

128
Q

What is the mnemonic for assessing decision making capacity?

A

CURVES

129
Q

If a provider believes that a patient may be affected by psych illnesses who must be notified?

A

EMS Capt

130
Q

The Police can take a patient into custody for how long?

A

8 hours

131
Q

Who must be present in the transport unit while transporting an ECO?

A

The Police

132
Q

Durable power of attorney only comes into play when?

A

The patient is impaired

133
Q

When is consent not required?

A

In life threatinf illness or injury or if impaired

134
Q

If a minor claims to be emancipated but can not prove it what should be done?

A

Add an EMS Capt

135
Q

Patients over what age can refuse care if guardians are unavalibale?

A

14

136
Q

If taking a student from a school clinic what must be done?

A

Have FCPS representative come with

137
Q

Who are the only people who can recommend TDO?

A

Community Service Board Member

138
Q

How many key items are on a DNR?

A

5

139
Q

Virgina Board of Health allows what two items to be used in place of a DNR?

A

Necklace and Bracelet

140
Q

What color is a POST form

A

Lime Green

141
Q

What populations are we mandatory reporters for?

A

Children, the elderly, and the mentally disabled

142
Q

What color is a DNR?

A

Yellow

143
Q

How many steps can you carry a patient with only 2 providers?

A

4

144
Q

What scale is used for determining decision making capability?

A

RASS

145
Q

What acronym is used for LOC?

A

APVU

146
Q

Capacity of Bariatric Cot

A

850lbs

147
Q

Minors with intact decision making capacity who are how many years of anger or older, whose parent or legal guardian are unable to be contacted, may refuse assessment, treatment or transport?

A

14

148
Q

Can a refusal for minors be performed without parent or guardian on scene?

A

Yes

149
Q

A pregnant minor, regardless of age, can give medical consent for herself and her baby

A

Solely relating to the Delivery of the child

150
Q

Documentation of a call where a DNR is followed must include

A

The name of the issuing MD or NP

151
Q

With a hospice patient who has documentation not recognized by EMS contact

A

EMS Supervisor and Hospice Representative

152
Q

An intervening physician who is not directly on scene may not

A

assume patient responsibility or POLMD

153
Q

FRD protocols authorize administration of ALS medications to

A

Human patients only

154
Q

In scenarios where a Fairfax county working dog has a toxic exposure to a narcotic who can administer narcan?

A

The police handler

155
Q

Citizen contact log for standby at special gatherings

A

FRD-204

156
Q

Frequently older than 60 yrs, may have sudden onset of abdominal pain and/or back pain with syncope and hypotension

A

Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm

157
Q

Abdominal Pain preceding vomiting is suggestive of a cause that may require

A

Surgical intervention

158
Q

In the presence of ACS, blood thinner use is not a contraindication for

A

Aspirin

159
Q

Acute onset chest pain and/or back pain accompanied by unexplained extremity pain or neurological symptoms (acute paralysis) is concerning for

A

thoracic aortic dissection

160
Q

Silent/painless abdominal or right arm pain, no traumatic jaw, arm or thoracic back pain especially related to exertion, nausea and/or vomiting, shortness of breath, syncope, lightheadedness and weakness, palpitations, GI abdominal upset, pain and cramps.

A

Atypical presentation of ACS

161
Q

With chest pain do not give anyone under 18 yrs

A

Aspirin

162
Q

In ACS avoid doing what to the right forearm, wrist or hand?

A

IV access

163
Q

Decomposition, Decapitation, Incineration, Mortal Wounds

A

withhold CPR

164
Q

Withhold CPR with traumatic injuries incompatible with life or valid DNRs. These patients shall not be resuscitated but should be transported to what center?

A

VAD

165
Q

When does a person become a patient?

A

When the EMS provider has determined an assessment is necessary to ensure that no illness or injury is overlooked and to ensure the individual’s capacity to decline an assessment

166
Q

Who may patient information be shared with?

A

Parties involved in patient care

167
Q

The mnemonic CURVES may aid in the assessment of what?

A

Decision-making capacity

168
Q

At what age may a minor patient refuse assessment, treatment and/or transport if a parent or guardian cannot be contacted?

A

14

169
Q

What defines abuse?

A

Willful infliction of physical pain, injury, mental anguish, or unreasonable confinement

170
Q

What are the parameters that define a “Super Utilizer”?

A

More than 6 calls within 60 days

171
Q

Which of Fairfax County’s hospitals have dedicated bariatric in-patient care units?

A

INOVA Fair Oaks and Reston Hospital Center

172
Q

What is the recommended on scene time for a trauma patient once providers have full access?

A

10 minutes

173
Q

The mnemonic SLUDGE is is used to identify symptoms of what?

A

Organophospahte exposure

174
Q

In tactical emergency casualty care, what does the first H in MARCHE stand for?

A

Head Injury

175
Q

The phrase “sick, stuck, and survivable” is used to identify the need for what?

A

FACT*R

176
Q

Which of the following is not an OB/Maternity capable hospital?

A

INOVA Mt Vernon

177
Q

What cycle of CPR should the LUCAS device be placed?

A

Fifth

178
Q

If a glucometer reads 300mg/dL or higher, it may show what that we disregard, since we currently do not use this function?

A

KETONES?

179
Q

Using the EpiRite Syringe, what dose should be administered to a pediatric patient?

A

0.15ml

180
Q

How many miligrams of Narcan is in the Adapta Pharma pre-filled intranasal delivery device?

A

4mg

181
Q

How many liters per minutes should be used for proper mist generation when administering a nebulizer?

A

6-8 liters per minutes

2023 Lieutenants Exam (32 decks)

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