Week__9_Fall 13_on_line__11_22_13_.pdf Flashcards
PART I – REGULATIONS CH. #28, 26, 25, 23 & 22: PART II – FFP – TAXPAYERS (con’t): PART III – BISP MANUAL {All Ranks - Company Officer & BC Material}
1) Please choose an incorrect Hydrant Inspection procedure? (Regulations chapter
28, section 28.2.2,
A) Inspection duty by members with apparatus shall be performed between the hours of 0930
and 1700 hours.
B) An officer, or an acting officer, and not less than three firefighters, exclusive of chauffeur,
shall perform inspectional duty with properly operating radio-equipped apparatus.
C) A relocated company shall not perform hydrant inspection duty while relocated.
D) In the event a unit does not perform hydrant inspection duty in accordance with the
schedule, the officer on duty is only required to notify the Battalion Chief on duty.
- Answer: D = In the event a unit does not perform hydrant inspection duty in accordance
with the schedule, the officer on duty shall promptly notify the Deputy Chief, Battalion Chief
and the dispatcher by telephone
2) Please choose the most correct answer(s) from the list below, in regards to hydrant/
auxiliary fire protection discs? (Regulations chapter 28, section 28.3.2)
A) White disc - available in two sizes, for placement on 4 1/2” or 2 1/2” outlets of
unserviceable hydrants and 3” siamese of out-of-service auxiliary fire protection systems.
B) Yellow disc - available in two sizes for placement on 4 1/2” or 2 1/2” outlets of frozen
hydrants.
C) Blue disc - for placement on hydrants or the 3” siamese of auxiliary fire protection systems.
Disc is used to indicate a system that is not functioning as a fully automatic system and/or a
portion of the system is such that it will operate effectively when supplied.
D) All of the above.
- Answer: A & B = C = Blue disc - for placement on the 3” siamese of auxiliary fire
protection system. Disc is used to indicate a system that is not functioning as a fully automatic
system and/or a portion of the system is such that it will operate effectively when supplied.
(NOT HYDRANTS)
3) Hydrants found unserviceable at fire operations shall immediately be the cause for the
proper placement of discs. The officer who orders the disc placed shall forward a report to the
___________ in whose administrative district the hydrant or system is located. Please fill in the
blank? (Regulations chapter 28, section 28.3.3)
A) Deputy Chief
B) Battalion Chief
C) Borough Commander
- Answer: A
4) Auxiliary fire protection equipment in tunnels and on bridges, also towers, shafts and
approaches thereto, shall be inspected semi-annually during the months of April and October as
directed by and in accordance with schedules established by Division Commanders. The
following general instructions shall be complied with: Please choose an incorrect instruction
from the list below? (Regulations chapter 28, section 28.5.1)
A) Inspections shall be carried out under the direct supervision of Deputy Chiefs.
B) Such supervisory Chief Officers shall utilize the apparatus and members of Engine
Companies and other units in carrying out necessary inspectional duties.
C) Supervisory Chief Officers shall notify the dispatcher of the identity of units participating,
their location, and the unit designated as radio contact.
D) During such inspectional activity, units shall not respond to any alarms.
- Answer: D = During such inspectional activity, units shall not, unless otherwise directed
by dispatcher, respond to alarms.
5) The preferring of charges is the initial step in the processing of formal disciplinary
action against FDNY members. Please choose an incorrect procedure from the list below?
(Regulations chapter 26, section 26.1.1 to 26.1.3)
A) Charges may originate because of a violation of any law, regulation, order, command or
instruction governing the uniformed force.
B) Charges may be preferred by one member against another, or by a civilian against a
member.
C) Charges may be also initiated by the Bureau of Investigations and Trials or Inspector
General.
D) The individual instituting the charges is known as the complainant. The member against
whom charges are being preferred is known as the respondent.
E) Charges must be prepared and forwarded with endorsements to the Bureau of
Investigations and Trials within 30 days after occurrence, unless delayed due to unusual
circumstances.
- Answer: E = Charges must be prepared and forwarded with endorsements to the Bureau
of Investigations and Trials within 10 days after occurrence, unless delayed due to unusual
circumstances.
6) “The officer preparing charges must forward them via the chain of command. If
the respondent is not under the regular command of the officer preparing the charges, a
copy of the charges must be sent to the respondent’s assigned unit. The officer preparing
charges must immediately notify the respondent’s assigned unit by telephone of the
alleged violation.” Please indicate if you agree or disagree with the above statements?
(Regulations chapter 26, section 26.1.6)
A) Agree or D) Disagree
- Answer: A = Note: Command Discipline is performed by the member’s Company
Commander.
7) Please choose the correct procedure(s) to follow when investigating charges?
(Regulations chapter 26, section 26.2)
A) Officers on duty must, when actions of members under their command are subject to
charges, promptly telephone the battalion chief on duty.
B) The battalion chief must immediately investigate and notify the deputy chief of the results.
If necessary, the deputy chief may investigate further.
C) A member who has been arrested, or who is under investigation for a criminal offense, may
not be questioned except at the direction of the Inspector General.
D) Charges and related reports must be examined and endorsed by the officer on duty and the
respondent’s administrative battalion and deputy chiefs.
- Answer: A, B, C = D - Charges and related reports must be examined and endorsed by
the officer on duty and the battalion and deputy chiefs under whose jurisdiction the respondent is
working at the time of the alleged infraction. Note: Member could be on a detail out of his
administrative command.
8) Please choose an incorrect procedure in regards to the service of charges?
(Regulations chapter 26, section 26.5)
A) Trial notice must be served on the respondent at least 10 days before time set for trial
unless the respondent waives such notice or applies, or has applied for, service retirement.
B) The officer on duty, upon receipt of charges or trial notice, is responsible for the service
of the document upon the respondent, and must make entries in the company journal regarding
service.
C) If charges or trial notice cannot be served upon the respondent personally within 72 hours
after receipt, or in cases of continued absence without leave, the officer must promptly notify the
Bureau of Investigations and Trials by written report.
- Answer: C = If charges or trial notice cannot be served upon the respondent personally
within 72 hours after receipt, or in cases of continued absence without leave, the officer must
promptly notify the Bureau of Investigations and Trials by telephone.
9) A member who is arrested or issued a desk appearance ticket shall immediately notify the
officer on duty of the member’s assigned unit. Such notification shall include: Please choose the
most correct answer? (Regulations chapter 25, section 25.4.2)
A) The nature of the charges
B) Date
C) Time
D) Location of the occurrence
E) All of the above.
- Answer: E
10) The following procedure shall be adhered to when unit citations are awarded by the Board
of Merit: Please choose an incorrect procedure from the list below? (Regulations
chapter 23, section 23.1.5)
A) Presentation of award shall be by the division commander responsible for administrative
efficiency of the battalion wherein unit is located.
B) The Battalion Commander shall be present at the presentation.
C) Citation shall be presented at a roll call.
D) The report, describing the duty performed by the unit, shall be read by the chief officer who
is presenting the award.
- Answer: B = Battalion chief on duty shall be present at the presentation.
11) Upon return to quarters, reports of meritorious acts, embracing all pertinent information,
shall be promptly prepared, signed and forwarded in accordance with the following: Please
choose the incorrect item from the list above? (Regulations chapter 23, section 23.2.1)
A) Meritorious acts performed by members below the rank of lieutenant; by the company
officer on duty.
B) Meritorious acts performed by company officers: by the administrative battalion chief. (If
no chief officer responded, report shall originate with officer in command).
C) Meritorious acts by battalion chiefs: by the deputy chief on duty at scene of operations. (If
no deputy chief present, report shall originate with officer in command.)
- Answer: B = Meritorious acts performed by company officers: by the battalion chief
responsible for report of operations. (If no chief officer responded, report shall originate with
officer in command).
12) All meritorious acts, voluntary duty and unit citation reports should be forwarded to the
Board of Merit not later than _______ days from the date of the act. Please fill in the blank?
(Regulations chapter 23, section 23.5.1)
A) 45
B) 60
C) 30
D) 90
- Answer: C
13) “A copy of the fire, emergency or operations report where meritorious act was
performed, shall be forwarded with each meritorious act or request for a unit citation to
facilitate the processing of such awards by the Board of Merit.” Please indicate if you agree
or disagree with the above statement? (Regulations 23, section 23.2.5)
A) Agree or D) Disagree
- Answer: A
14) A drill and instruction period of one (1) hour each tour must be conducted by the company
officer from Monday through Friday inclusive. Please choose the incorrect drill procedure from
the list below? (Regulations chapter 22, section 22.4.3)
A) Standard drill time is from 1400 to 1500 hours on the 9x6 tour, and 1900 to 2000 hours on
the 6x9 tour.
B) The subject and/or time of drill should be flexible. When company officers need to change
the subject and/or time of drill, they should notify their administrative division.
C) Company officers are encouraged to expand the subject matter of drill to include such
topics as post fire critiques and unique fire problems in their response area.
D) When a unit performs MUD, no other drill need be conducted. When MUD is canceled or
interrupted due to inclement weather, an indoor drill will be conducted.
E) When a unit performs P.M. - AFID, the 1400 to 1500 hour drill period will be dispensed
with.
- Answer: B = The subject and/or time of drill should be flexible. When company officers
need to change the subject and/or time of drill, they should notify their administrative battalion.
15) All engine and ladder companies shall take part in at least one multi-unit drill each week.
Squad, rescue, and marine companies, and special units shall participate in such drills as directed
by the Special Operations Command (SOC). Please choose an incorrect procedure(s) from the
list below at a Multi-Unit drill? (Regulations chapter 22, section 22.5.3)
A) Each drill shall include not more than two engine companies and one Ladder Company,
unless otherwise approved by battalion commanders.
B) Multi-unit drills shall be of at least one and one-half hours duration and conducted between
the hours of 0630 hours and 2000 hours.
C) When MUD is canceled or interrupted as a result of signal 10-51 transmission, an indoor
drill shall be conducted.
D) At each multi-unit drill, officers on duty with participating units shall be responsible for
proper supervision of an operating test and inspection of each mask carried. Such test shall be
conducted immediately after the scheduled start of the drill.
- Answer: A = Each drill shall include not more than two engine companies and one ladder
company, unless otherwise approved by division commanders. D - At each multi-unit drill,
officers on duty with participating units shall be responsible for proper supervision of an
operating test and inspection of each mask carried. Such test shall be conducted immediately
prior to the scheduled start of the drill.
- Which of the following general ladder co tactics at a taxpayer fire is stated incorrectly?
(8)
A) Prompt ventilation at the roof is very important for the safety of the occupants and to
enable search and rescue to be carried out
B) It’s the responsibility of the first ladder co to arrive to locate and indentify the fire.
C) Roof access should only be attempted via the interior in extreme circumstances
D) Engine co’s can be pressed into service to perform truck work such as forcing a door,
feeling partitions for heat and opening ceilings to get water into the cockloft ahead of a traveling
fire
- C = Never attempted
- Which of the following ladder co tactics at a cellar fire in a taxpayer is not correct?
(8.2)
A) Suspect a cellar fire if smoke shows in many stores and there is a high heat condition on the
1st floor with no visible flame in either case
B) In taxpayers don’t expect to find the cellar layout conforming to the 1st floor layout
C) Floors should not be cut until a hoseline is in position to protect personnel and prevent
extension
D) Ventilation Support Groups are of little value with regards to cellar ventilation
- D = Are of value, particularly where openings are limited
- Which of the following responsibilities of the 2nd ladder co to arrive at a cellar fire in a
taxpayer is not listed correctly? (8.2.2 A, B)
A) FE team shall shut down utilities
B) Roof FF brings a saw to the roof if not required elsewhere and roof requires further
opening
C) OV teams up with the 1st ladder OV to check the rear and sides of the building
D) LCC shall join the FE team, if not otherwise directed
- A = 1st ladder co responsibility
- If access in the rear is available, the 1st ladder OV shall attempt entry when teamed with the
2nd ladder OV (or another available member). They shall notify the company officer and conduct
searches with particular attention given to which area? (8.2.2 A3c)
A) 1st floor front
B) 1st floor rear
C) 2nd floor rear
D) Rear of cellar
- B
- Which of the following tactics should be corrected in regards to ladder co. operations at
store fires? (8.3.1 A)
A) Fires in these premises generally originate in the storage or utility area, which in most
occupancies are in the rearmost portion of the building
B) The probing of the ceiling area with a hook upon entering will give some indication of
conditions in the cockloft area
C) Ventilation of the store at the front by the removal of show window shall be done if ordered
by the ladder co officer in the area to be vented
D) Verify that the fire origin was actually in the store in which operations are in progress. This
can only be assured by checking adjacent stores, which may be to the side of rear
- C = Ordered by the IC
- A trench cut may be made to head off fire extension in the cockloft. The practicality of
trenching will depend on many factors. Which of the following is not one of those factors?
(8.3.2 D)
A) The size of the roof
B) The volume of fire
C) The speed and direction of the wind
D) Ceilings – height and type
- C
- At an “all hands” fire in a 1 story taxpayer where the IC has called for an additional Truck,
you would be most correct to know which company is responsible for shutting down the gas and
electric supply in the fire building? (FFP Txpyr 8.3.3 A 1)
A) 1st arriving Ladder Forcible Entry Team
B) 1st arriving Ladder OV and LCC
C) 2nd arriving Ladder Forcible Entry Team
D) 2nd arriving Ladder OV and LCC
- A
- What is the most correct position for the 1st arriving LCC of Aerial Ladder 155 at a
cockloft fire in a 1 story taxpayer, after she places her apparatus away from the immediate fire
building? (FFP Txpyr 8.3.3 4 a)
A. Join the 1st arriving forcible entry team
B. Proceed to the rear to team up with the 1st arriving OV
C. Proceed to the roof to assist the 1st arriving Roof FF
D. Contact the 1st arriving officer and be guided by his/her instructions
- C = (Join the forcible entry team if it is a store fire. For cockloft fires, proceed to the roof)
- What is the most correct position for the 2nd arriving LCC of Aerial Ladder 165 at a
cockloft fire in a 1 story taxpayer, after he places his apparatus away from the immediate fire
building? (FFP Txpyr 8.3.3 B 4 c)
A. Join the 2nd arriving forcible entry team
B. Proceed to the rear to team up with the 2nd arriving OV
C. Proceed to the roof to assist the 2nd arriving Roof FF
D. Contact the 2nd arriving officer and be guided by his/her instructions
- A = (You join the forcible entry team, “if not instructed otherwise,” regardless if it’s a
store or cockloft fire.)
- A knowledgeable Lieutenant would know that at a taxpayer fire, when the member initially
going to the roof is carrying the saw, the hook must also be taken. Members going to the roof
subsequently should bring what tool(s) with the saw, if available? (FFP Txpyr 8.4.3 C)
A. A halligan
B. A 6ft halligan hook
C. An ax or iron
D. An axe and iron
- C
- In a second floor occupancy of a taxpayer, with large unobstructed areas such as a
dance hall or meeting hall, the ceiling beams span greater distances, the cocklofts may be
deeper and the ceilings may be higher. This will require using proper size hooks, ten foot or
longer, more time and work and additional staffing to open these ceilings. Do you agree or
disagree with the above statement? (FFP Txpyr 9.2.3)
A) Agree or D) Disagree
- A
- When it comes to taxpayer type structures, according to the 1938 Building Code, when
wood purlins and cross braces are used for suspended ceilings, the space between the ceiling and
the floor or roof above is to be cut into areas of ______ square feet or less by firestops.
(FFP Txpyr Appx A 1.3)
A. 500
B. 1000
C. 2000
D. 3000
- C
- When it comes to taxpayer type structures, according to the 1968 Building Code, concealed
spaces in ceilings, unless sprinklered, should be firestopped into areas not exceeding ______
square feet. (FFP Txpyr Appx A 2.5)
A. 500
B. 1000
C. 2000
D. 3000
- D
- No space classified in Industrial Group “D” shall be located above the second story of any
building or building section in construction group II containing a space classified in occupancy
group J-1 or J-2. (Factory Pre-2008 Pg 2)
A. Agree or D. Disagree?
- AGREE
- No door leading into or out of any factory or any floor thereof shall be locked, bolted or
fastened during working hours. If found, this is an immediate summons.
(Factory Pre-2008 AND 2008 Pg 3)
A. Agree or D. Disagree?
- AGREE
- Regarding the exit doors in factories, it would be correct to state that?
(Factory Pre-2008 Pg 4)
A. The minimum corridor width shall be 44 inches
B. Exit doors shall swing in the direction of exit travel
C. If 5 or more persons are employed on any floor, all exit doors on such floor shall open
outwardly or double swing in factories prior to 10/1/1913.
D. All exit doors on the first floor shall open outwardly regardless of occupant load
- A, B, C, D
- Buildings erected after 1913 that are more than ___ stories shall have at least one stairway
that extends to the roof? (Factory Pre-2008 Pg 4)
A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7
- B
- Factory buildings that are two stories or more and employ 25 persons above the ground
floor always require an Interior Fire Alarm and Fire Drills that are conducted monthly?
(Factory Pre-2008 Pg 5-6)
A. Agree or D. Disagree?
- DISAGREE = Not required if maximum occupancy on any one floor does not exceed
50% of the exits and the building is fully sprinklered with two sources of water supply
- A Sprinkler is required in a factory in the Pre-2008 Guide if it is over 75 feet or if it is
Group D-1 (Moderate Hazard) and exceeds _____ square feet? (Factory Pre-2008 Pg 7)
A. 2500 B. 5000 C. 7500 D. 10000
- C
- A Factory built BEFORE 10/1/1913 requires an automatic fire extinguishing system on all
floors if the building is more than 1-story in height and contains any _____ hazard below its
uppermost floor? (Factory Pre-2008 Pg 7)
A. Low B. High C. Medium or High D. Medium
- C
- A Factory built AFTER 10/1/1913 requires an automatic fire extinguishing system if the
building is more than 1-story in height and contains any _____ hazard below its uppermost floor?
(Factory Pre-2008 AND 2008 Pg 7)
A. Low or Moderate B. High C. Medium or High D. Moderate
- B
- A Factory built AFTER 10/1/1913 that requires an automatic fire extinguishing system
because it contains a high hazard below its uppermost floor requires what floors covered by the
system? (Factory Pre-2008 AND 2008 Pg 7)
A. The entire building
B. The floor with the High Hazard and all floors above
- B
- Waste materials, cuttings and rubbish shall be removed from the floors of a factory at least
____ a day? (Factory Pre-2008 AND 2008 Pg 10)
A. Once
B. Twice
- B
- Waste materials, cuttings and rubbish shall be removed from the factory building at least
____ a day? (Factory Pre-2008 AND 2008 Pg 10)
A. Once
B. Twice
- A
- Baled waste may be stored in fireproof enclosures and removed from the building at least
_____ a month? (Factory Pre-2008 AND 2008 Pg 10)
A. Once
B. Twice
- A
- No Smoking signs are required in factories at every? (Factory Pre-2008 AND
2008 Pg 13)
A. Entrance Hall B. Elevator C. Room D. Stairway
- A, B, C, D
- Any person observed smoking in any part of a factory building shall be issued an
Immediate Summons. (Factory Pre-2008 AND 2008 Pg 13)
A. Agree or D. Disagree?
- AGREE
- An automatic sprinkler is to be provided throughout all buildings containing a group F
occupancy if? (Factory 2008 Pg 9)
A. The Group F-1 fire area exceeds 12000 square feet
B. The Group F-1 fire area is located more than 3 stories above grade
C. The combined area of all group F-1 areas on all floors, including mezzanines, exceeds
24000 square feet
D. If required by Section 280 of the State Labor Law
- A, B, C, D