Week_12_Spring 14_on_line__4_25_14_ Flashcards

PART I – ERP - EXPLOSIVES, INCENDIARY, ACTIVE SHOOTER (ADD #3): PART II - FFP – UNDER RIVER TUBE:

1
Q
  1. ERP add # 3 outlines operational procedures for FDNY members at bomb threats,
    explosions, and active shooter incidents with an emphasis on additional prevention measures and
    response tactics. Please choose an incorrect item from the list below in regards to these
    incidents? (Section, 2)
    A) While chemical, biological or radiological terrorist attacks remain a threat, the most
    frequently used weapon by terrorists is the conventional bomb, or Improvised Explosive Device
    (IED).
    B) The inclusion of Chemical, Biological or Radiological material with an IED, presents the
    greatest harm, not the explosive itself.
    C) Terrorists have targeted high-profile federal or government facilities.
    D) Locations that may also be targeted include those that are either symbolic, high profile or
    vulnerable to extensive damage and multiple casualties.
A
  1. Answer: B = Although it is possible to include Chemical, Biological or Radiological
    material with an IED, the greatest harm remains the explosive itself.
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2
Q
  1. Please choose the correct definition(s) from the list below? (Section, 2.3)
    A) Hard Targets - Hard targets may be areas that are secured and are usually staffed by
    trained personnel or officials, and include government, military sites, and some critical
    infrastructure.
    B) Soft Targets - Soft targets are buildings, locations or areas with little or no security and
    have the possibility of resulting in extensive casualties (e.g., shopping malls, hospitals, schools,
    houses of worship).
A
  1. Answer: A & B
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3
Q
  1. Please choose the most correct definition(s) in regards to explosives? (Section, 3)
    A) Pyrotechnics - Creates smoke, heat, light and sound (e.g., fireworks).
    B) Low Explosives - Controlled release of gas that creates a propellant, causing a pushing
    effect, designed to burn, easier to ignite; initiated by flame or impact, detonate at speeds less than
    3000 ft/sec. (e.g., black powder, smokeless powder, rocket fuel), the weapon of choice for
    suicide terrorists.
    C) High Explosives - Initiated by shock from a detonator or blasting cap (not spark or flame),
    creates shattering effect in an instantaneous release of energy for maximum dispersion and
    damage, detonates at speeds greater than 3000 ft/sec (average bullet from a rifle travels at
    approximately 2700 ft/sec), the weapon of choice for suicide terrorists.
    D) All of the above.
A
  1. Answer: A & C = B = Not the weapon of choice by suicide terrorists, just delete that last
    point, the rest of B is correct.
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4
Q
  1. Please choose an incorrect dynamic associated with explosive devices from the list below?
    (Section, 3.4)
    A) Blast Pressure is excess pressure caused by a detonated explosive device.
    B) Positive blast pressure moves quickly away from the center of the explosion, followed by a
    vacuum effect.
    C) Negative blast pressure follows positive blast pressure, as the pressure moves back toward
    the center of the explosion at a high rate of speed.
    D) Depending on the power of the explosive device, a fragment can travel five times faster
    than a bullet.
A
  1. Answer: D = Depending on the power of the explosive device, a fragment can travel three
    times faster than a bullet.
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5
Q
  1. Research indicates there is no reliable method to determine the difference between an
    Improvised Incendiary Device and an Improvised Explosive Device. Therefore, members shall
    not follow which procedure listed below? (Section, 4.1)
    A) Members shall not handle any type of device thought to be explosive or incendiary, unless
    life is in jeopardy.
    B) The NYPD Bomb Squad shall be requested if a device is discovered.
    C) Care shall be exercised in extinguishing activated incendiary devices. Precautionary hoselines
    shall be stretched and positioned to safeguard an area.
    D) Members shall be staged in a safe area, out of line-of- sight of the device.
    E) Members shall always be aware of the danger of a possible secondary threat and operate
    accordingly.
A
  1. Answer: A = Members shall not handle any type of device thought to be explosive or
    incendiary.
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6
Q
  1. A vehicle borne improvised explosive device (VBEID) is a car, limousine, van or truck
    loaded with explosives and driven to a target where it is detonated. Other vehicles that may be
    used include boats, airplanes, bicycles or motorcycles. Some characteristics of a VBEID are:
    Please choose the correct item(s) from the list below? (Section, 4.3.1)
    A) VBIEDs can be driven to a location and the device may be detonated remotely or a suicide
    bomber can also drive the vehicle into the intended target.
    B) Commercial company vehicles acquired by terrorists may include package delivery
    operators, food delivery, lawn care/maintenance, laundry.
    C) Cloned official vehicles such as fire apparatus, ambulances, police cars and others may be
    used as a VBIED.
    D) Current VBIED terrorist tactics include attacking multiple targets simultaneously with
    multiple vehicles per target and possibly including a shooting team.
A
  1. Answer: All are correct
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7
Q
  1. Letter IEDs may be envelopes or packages delivered by post and may be explosive or
    incendiary. They are usually victim-activated during the opening process and include items such
    as letters, books, musical greeting cards or boxes of candy. Some suspicious characteristics of a
    letter/package are: Please choose the incorrect item from the list below? (Section, 4.3.2)
    A) Oversized, padded packages.
    B) Stained.
    C) No return address.
    D) Marked “Personal/Confidential”.
    E) Excessive postage.
    F) Unusual odor.
    G) Oddly shaped or lopsided.
    H) Mailed from other States in the U.S.
A
  1. Answer: H = Mailed from foreign country.
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8
Q
  1. Please indicate if you agree or disagree with the below statement? (Section, 4.3.4)
    “The profile of the contemporary suicide bomber is that there is no profile.”
    A) Agree or D) Disagree
A
  1. Answer: A
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9
Q
  1. Please choose an incorrect item from the list below as it relates to explosive, incendiary,
    and active shooter incidents? (Section 4.4)
    A) Members should anticipate the presence of a secondary threat, possibly an explosive device
    or a shooter, or any combination of the two.
    B) Terrorist may use more than one device in a targeted area.
    C) Terrorist may also use fire to draw in firefighters and then set off an IED.
    D) The use of multiple devices is not an increasing trend used in attacks worldwide.
A
  1. Answer: D = The use of multiple devices is an increasing trend used in attacks worldwide.
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10
Q
  1. If terrorist activity is suspected, members are not to confront individuals; notify the
    ___________________ of their suspicions. Please fill in the blank? (Section, 5.3)
    A) NYPD
    B) FBI
    C) ATF
    D) Bureau of Fire Investigation
A
  1. Answer: D
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11
Q
  1. When members suspect or discover any type of clandestine lab, they shall immediately
    stop, DO NOT TOUCH ANYTHING, retrace their steps and back out of the area. Upon the
    discovery of any type of lab the following notifications shall be made: Please choose the correct
    notifications? (Section, 5.7.5)
    A) Battalion Chief
    B) Deputy Chief
    C) Request Haz-Mat to respond
    D) NYPD
    E) BFI
A
  1. Answer: All are correct = Clandestine = Secret
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12
Q
  1. In the performance of duties, members of the Department may find firearms, ammunition,
    and/or possible incendiary devices. FDNY members are not sufficiently trained to accurately
    determine the risk. General actions to be taken include: Please choose the incorrect action from
    the list below? (Section, 6.1)
    A) The item shall not be disturbed.
    B) Prompt notification shall be given to the IC upon discovery of firearms, ammunition, or
    possible incendiary devices at any operation.
    C) Members shall establish an isolation area and evacuate civilians as necessary. Firearms
    shall be considered loaded, dangerous and possibly “booby trapped”.
    D) Do not permit anyone to stand in line with the muzzle or breech of any firearm.
    Notifications shall be made to the NYPD and BFI.
    E) When consistent with safety, the IC shall assign members to safeguard evidence from a
    safe distance until the arrival of NYPD or BFI.
    F) Evidence should only be handled by NYPD or BFI and the disposal of dangerous articles
    shall only be performed by law enforcement, unless life is in human jeopardy.
A
  1. Answer: F = Evidence should only be handled by NYPD or BFI and the disposal of
    dangerous articles shall only be performed by law enforcement. Note: Members shall not
    attempt to handle or move ANY firearm, ammunition or incendiary device.
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13
Q
  1. At both pre and post-detonation responses, it is critical that there is a coordinated effort
    between agencies (FDNY, NYPD and Federal Law Enforcement). Each agency must understand
    the other’s objectives to effectively and safely mitigate the incident. Cooperation with police
    personnel shall be considered as, but not necessarily limited, to the following: Please choose the
    most correct answer? (Section, 7.2.6)
    A) Evacuation of persons from danger areas.
    B) Stretching of necessary precautionary lines, and assuming standby positions.
    C) Use of ladders and forcible entry to involved occupancies.
    D) All of the above.
A
  1. Answer: A & B = C = Use of ladders and forcible entry to non-involved occupancies
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14
Q
  1. When units are on the scene of a suspected explosive device prior to police department
    personnel, the procedure shall be as follows: Please choose the incorrect procedure from the list
    above? (Section, 7.3.1)
    A) Apparatus should be located to avoid heavy window glass fallout.
    B) HT and cell phones shall not be used within 150 feet of a suspected device, and Apparatus,
    Post and Marine radios should not be operated within 600 feet of a suspected device.
    C) Establish the Incident Command Post, and if required, Staging Area, out of the line of sight
    of the device and away from any secondary threats.
    D) Members shall refrain from entering a structure or building to search for explosive devices.
A
  1. Answer: B = HT and cell phones shall not be used within 150 feet of a suspected device,
    and Apparatus, Post and Marine radios should not be operated within 300 feet of a suspected
    device
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15
Q
  1. If the NYPD Bomb Squad confirms the presence of an explosive device, the FDNY IC
    shall notify the Fire Marshals and request the resources necessary to address required
    evacuations and the aftermath of the potential detonation/destruction. In addition to other
    procedures, members shall operate in accordance with the following guidelines and precautions:
    Please choose the incorrect procedure from the list above? (Section, 7.3.3)
    A) Always assume if you can see the device, you are operating in a kill zone.
    B) The IC, in consultation with Haz-Mat and law enforcement, will determine what equipment
    may be used on-scene.
    C) If an explosion occurs, stay down to minimize the affects of the negative shock wave.
    D) Since the water mains in proximity to the device could be rendered inoperable should there
    be a detonation, Engine Companies shall identify hydrants on water mains other than those near
    the device.
    E) Regardless of safety, FDNY personnel should make contact with personnel from the
    affected buildings.
A
  1. Answer: E = Within the limits of safety, FDNY personnel should make contact with
    personnel from the affected buildings.
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16
Q
  1. After an explosion has occurred, strategies may include rescue, defensive operations,
    offensive operations or a combination of such. When further explosions are expected, or deemed
    possible, the following shall apply, please choose the most correct? (Section 7.5.2)
    A) Incipient fire may be extinguished and personnel withdrawn until the area is surveyed by
    bomb squad personnel.
    B) Where large area or room fires are involved, heavy streams may be used from points of
    safety using the distance/safety factor.
    C) All of the above.
A
  1. Answer: C
17
Q
  1. If you are on scene as the Incident Commander in charge of a car fire and a subsequent
    explosion occurs from a car bomb what information from the list below should be transmitted to
    the dispatcher post detonation? (Section, 7.4.1)
    A) What has exploded.
    B) If a building is involved, give height, dimensions and construction.
    C) Approximate number of injured.
    D) Request additional units and/or transmit signals as needed.
A
  1. Answer: All are correct = Note: Using plain language on Department radio, notify the
    dispatcher and advise incoming units that an explosion has occurred. It is imperative that this
    information is transmitted to the dispatcher with the “mixer on” so all units are aware of the
    situation.
18
Q
  1. If members encounter an active shooter they shall follow which procedure(s) below?
    (Section, 7.6)
    A) Immediately withdraw or, if not possible, seek cover and request a forthwith police
    response.
    B) If possible, provide a physical description of the shooter(s) including clothing, type of
    weapon (if known), and number of shooters.
    C) Use distance and shielding to ensure safety of members. All members shall remain away
    from areas where weapons are being discharged.
    D) Members shall remain out of the line-of-sight of any building that contains a shooter.
A
  1. Answer: All are correct
19
Q
  1. FDNY members shall not operate at an active shooter incident unless an extreme threat to
    life safety exists and our assistance is specifically requested by law enforcement. Prior to
    operating, the following conditions must be addressed: Please choose the incorrect item from
    the list below? (Section 7.6.4)
    A) Deputy Chief approval must be given prior to commencing such an operation.
    B) The location and number of shooters is known.
    C) The path to and from and the area where the FDNY members will operate has been secured
    and is protected by law enforcement personnel.
    D) Personnel and duration of operation shall be kept to a minimum.
    E) Operating personnel shall participate in a briefing where the plan will be vetted and
    expected actions specifically stated.
    F) FDNY and NYPD operating personnel shall all be on the same designated HT frequency
    (ex. TAC “U”).
A
  1. Answer: A = Staff Chief approval must be given prior to commencing such an operation.
20
Q
  1. Please choose an incorrect safety procedure from the list below after an explosion?
    (Section, 7.5.4)
    A) Approach all explosions as if it was a deliberate act.
    B) Don appropriate PPE, including SCBA face-piece.
    C) Do not approach a suspect’s remains or explosives still on scene; there may be undetonated
    or partially detonated explosives or secondary device present.
    D) Be aware that one of the victims may be the suspect.
A
  1. Answer: B = Don appropriate PPE. Do not don SCBA face-piece unless there are
    indications of respiratory danger. The reduced vision while wearing a face-piece could become a
    safety issue.
21
Q
  1. Which of the following is a correct description of an “Under River Tube?” (2.2.2)
    A) Open area containing two or more tracks
    B) Numerous crossovers between tracks
    C) Make up air can be pulled from many open areas
    D) Limited room to operate on the sides of a train
A
  1. D - A, B, C are all descriptions of Underground Tunnels
22
Q
2. Crossovers associated with emergency exits are usually where? (2.6.2)
A) At track level
B) One level above the track
C) Two levels above the track
D) Three levels above the track
A
  1. A - usually at track level but may be one or more levels above the track
23
Q
  1. All under river standpipes in the NYCT system are ______. Standpipes are fed how?
    Siamese’s are usually located at the emergency exit ______ to the river. (2.7.1)
    A) Wet; via fire pumps; closest
    B) Wet; via city main; closest
    C) Dry; via fire pumps; farthest
    D) Dry; via city main; farthest
A
  1. B - there are no pumps to augment pressure
24
Q
4. 2 ½” outlets are located every \_\_\_\_\_ ft throughout under river tubes. (2.7.1)
A) 300 ft
B) 400 ft
C) 200 ft
D) 600 ft
A
  1. C
25
Q
5. Section valves are located approximately \_\_\_\_\_ ft apart. (2.7.1)
A) 300 ft
B) 400 ft
C) 600 ft
D) 200 ft
A
  1. C
26
Q
  1. Where are Emergency Evacuation Devices (EED) found in under river tubes?
    (2.7.2)
    A) Area of the full time token
    B) EED’s are not found in under river rubes
    C) Only the north end of each under river tube at the base of the emergency exit
    D) At both ends of the under river tube at the base of the emergency exits
A
  1. D - A-this is for above ground stations
27
Q
  1. At the present time, there are no repeater antennas at most emergency exits, and no repeater
    coverage inside most emergency exit stairways. A HT relay on the tactical channel shall be used.
    (2.9.2)
    True or False?
A
  1. True
28
Q
  1. In the immediate vicinity of which of the following shall you not use the Post Radio?
    (2.9.6)
    A) Signals
    B) Communication Equipment
    C) Train operator cabs
    D) All of the above
A
  1. D - This is due to the possibility of electrical interference. However, Post Radios may be
    useful to communicate above ground from one side of the river to the other
29
Q
  1. Which side of the “Operational Guide” contains a diagram of the tube and information
    about emergency exits, distances, and crossovers? (2.11)
    A) Side A
    B) Side B
A
  1. B - Side A contains maps, pictures, and information to locate a particular set of tubes, the
    associated emergency exits, and stations
30
Q
  1. What does the acronym “LIVES” stand for? (3.2)
    A) Location, Incident Info, Ventilation, Evacuation, Safety
    B) Location, Incident Info, Ventilation, Emergency Exits, Safety
    C) Life, Incident Info, Ventilation, Evacuation, Safety
    D) Location, IDLH, Ventilation, Evacuation, Safety
A
  1. A
31
Q
  1. If an IED is suspected, do not allow HT or cell phone use within ______ of the incident.
    (5.3)
    A) 100 ft
    B) 150 ft
    C) 200 ft
    D) 300 ft
A
  1. B
32
Q
  1. Victims inside an under river tube shall be removed in which order? (7.1)
    A) Ambulatory, Non Ambulatory-Red, Non Ambulatory-Yellow, Victims Requiring
    Disentanglement-Red, Victims Requiring Disentanglement- Yellow, Black Tag
    B) Ambulatory, Non Ambulatory-Yellow, Non Ambulatory-Red, Victims Requiring
    Disentanglement-Red, Victims Requiring Disentanglement- Yellow, Black Tag
    C) Black Tag, Ambulatory, Non Ambulatory-Red, Non Ambulatory-Yellow, Victims
    Requiring Disentanglement-Red, Victims Requiring Disentanglement- Yellow
    D) Ambulatory, Victims Requiring Disentanglement-Red, Victims Requiring
    Disentanglement- Yellow, Non Ambulatory-Red, Non Ambulatory-Yellow, Black Tag
A
  1. A
33
Q
  1. What is the primary way to move patients and equipment inside an under river tube?
    (7.3.3)
    A) Rescue Trains
    B) SKEDS
    C) Rail carts
    D) Victim Removal Relay Teams
A
  1. C
34
Q
  1. Third rails in the affected tube and in adjacent tubes may be live. In addition, _____ volt
    lines may run throughout the tubes at ceiling level. (9)
    A) 600
    B) 650
    C) 1000
    D) 1500
A
  1. C