Week__3_Fall 13_on_line__10_11_13_ Flashcards

PART I – REGULATIONS CHAP. #10 & 11: PART II – FFP – ENGINE OPS (con’t): PART III – BISP MANUAL {All Ranks - Company Officer & BC Material}

1
Q
  1. The first officer to arrive at a location indicated by an alarm and finding no fire shall cause
    a thorough investigation and report the results to the chief officer first to arrive. If the
    investigation is completed prior to the arrival of a chief officer, the ____________ shall transmit
    the appropriate radio signal. Please fill in the blank? (Regulations 11, section 11.2.3)
    A) company officer directing the search
    B) senior company officer on scene
    C) the superior company officer on scene
A

Answer: A

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2
Q
  1. Please choose from the list below an incorrect procedure from Regulations 11?
    (Regulations 11, 11.2.12 to 11.2.16)
    A) Officers shall, when arriving at the scene of a fire, order hydrants tested before any
    connections are made.
    B) Officers with engine companies shall, when required to supply hose lines into the siamese
    connection of any auxiliary fire protection system, verify personally that such lines are connected
    to the proper siamese before starting water.
    C) Officers shall have soundings taken before pumpers draft water. The rise and fall of the
    tides during the period of drafting operations shall be observed to prevent foreign matter from
    being drawn into the pumps.
    D) During fire fighting operations on or near the waterfront, the dispatcher shall be advised as
    soon as practical of the use of non-potable river or bay water in conjunction with potable water
    from the City water system.
A
  1. Answer: B = Chauffeurs with engine companies shall, when required to supply hose lines
    into the siamese connection of any auxiliary fire protection system, verify personally that such
    lines are connected to the proper siamese before starting water.
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3
Q
  1. Members below the rank of lieutenant shall, when on duty, carry: Please choose the most
    correct answer? (Regulations 11, section 11.3.3)
    A) a hose spanner
    B) door chock
    C) hose strap
    D) All of the Above
A
  1. Answer: D
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4
Q
  1. In order to safeguard private property while operating at fires, the following procedures
    shall be complied with: Please choose the correct procedure(s) from the list above?
    (Regulations 11, section 11.3.15)
    A) When members find articles of value, such articles shall be turned over to their immediate
    supervisory Officer, who in turn shall deliver them to the Officer in Command.
    B) Such articles shall be restored to the owner upon proper identification, delivered to the
    Police Department if owner is not available, or upon proper identification to an authorized
    representative of the owner.
    C) In some cases a receipt shall be obtained.
    D) All of the above.
A
  1. Answer: A & B = C = In all cases a receipt shall be obtained.
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5
Q
  1. Officers of units reporting to the Command Post shall report in alone, after instructing their
    members to stand by at least ______ feet from the Command Post. Please fill in the blank?
    (Regulations 11, section 11.3.25)
    A) 10
    B) 15
    C) 20
    D) 25
A
  1. Answer: D
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6
Q
  1. The Department of Buildings shall be notified via the borough dispatcher in the following
    instances: Please choose the incorrect notification from the list BELOW? (ABC 3-88,
    section 2)
    A) Structural collapse
    B) Only confirmed serious structural condition or problem
    C) Elevator incident with injuries
    D) Elevator incident - Serious (e.g., elevator car free falls)
    E) Escalator incident with injuries
    F) Defective boiler or water heater with injuries (e.g., CO Poisoning)
    G) Defective boiler or water heater - Serious (e.g., boiler explosion)
    H) Amusement ride incident with injuries
    I) Sidewalk shed incidents (damage to sidewalk shed)
    J) Scaffolding related incidents (hanging or fixed)
    K) Construction site related accidents (e.g., crane accident, worker fall)
A
  1. Answer: B = Suspected serious structural condition or problem
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7
Q
  1. Please indicate if you agree or disagree with the below statement? (ABC 3-88,
    section 2.4)
    “The NYCHA shall be notified for incidents occurring in NYCHA buildings and facilities.
    The Department of Buildings also requires notification for incidents occurring in NYCHA
    buildings and facilities.”
    A) Agree or D) Disagree
A
  1. Answer: D = The NYCHA shall be notified for incidents occurring in NYCHA buildings
    and facilities. The Department of Buildings does not require notification for incidents occurring
    in NYCHA buildings and facilities. Note: This question was asked on a previous DC test.
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8
Q

Chief Officer Question:
8. Firefighters assigned as Battalion Aides are not required to work RSOT as per the RSOT
schedule. Battalion Commanders will authorize RSOT for aides as openings occur. Please
choose an incorrect procedure from the list below? (ABC 3-91, section 2)
A) No Battalion Aide is to work more than 24 hours of continuous duty.
B) No more than 48 hours of RSOT will be allocated to a Battalion Aide from January 1st
through June 30th or from July 1st through December 31st.
C) Battalion Commanders must limit RSOT for any Battalion Aide to 24 hours per quarter

A
  1. Answer: C = Battalion Commanders will attempt to limit RSOT for any Battalion Aide to
    24 hours per quarter
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9
Q
  1. Please choose from the list below an incorrect procedure and guide for the Officer In
    Charge at a suspect Asbestos Incident? (ABC 3-93, section 3)
    A) Isolate suspected area and protect civilians and members from possible exposure.
    B) Call Haz-Mat Unit. The Haz-Mat Unit bulk sampling technician is to take samples.
    C) Contact D.E.P. and arrange for lab activation. DEP will arrange for transport of sample
    material to D.E.P. lab.
    D) Results of test will indicate future actions. It is expected that test results will be available in
    a little more than an hour.
A
  1. Answer: C = Contact D.E.P. and arrange for lab activation. Arrange for transport of
    sample material to D.E.P. lab. Note: ERP states we do not transport Haz-Mat, this bulletin just
    states we need to arrange transport, but it does not say by who.
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10
Q
  1. The Class “E” and Class “J” response program has been in effect over twenty years in the
    response area of Division 3 and selected areas in Division 1. This program has now been
    expanded citywide. This program has been effective in reducing many of the unnecessary
    responses to Class “E” and “J” type alarms for Engine Companies, Ladder Companies and
    Battalion Chiefs. Please choose an incorrect procedure from the list below? (ABC 5-94,
    section 2)
    A) If a Class “E” Alarm is the only alarm received from a given address, one Engine or one
    Ladder Company shall be dispatched. This same procedure shall apply to all Class “J” Alarms
    received.
    B) Engine Companies are assigned to respond to Class “E” alarms during the months of
    January, March, May, July, September and November. Ladder Companies are assigned during
    the months of February, April, June, August, October and December.
    C) During the months Engines are assigned to respond, the following priority shall be used for
    assignment; 1st, 2nd, 3rd, due Engine; 1st, 2nd, due Ladder assigned to box.
    D) During the months Ladders are assigned to respond, the following priority shall be used for
    assignment; 1st, 2nd, due Ladder, 1st, 2nd, 3rd, due Engine; assigned to box.
A
  1. Answer: A = If a Class “E” Alarm is the only alarm received from a given address, one
    Engine or one Ladder Company shall be dispatched. This same procedure shall apply to Class
    “J” Alarms received between the hours of 0700 through 1900 hours.
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11
Q
  1. Please choose an incorrect procedure for a company officer to follow when responding to a
    Class “E” or “J” alarm - single unit response? (ABC 5-94, add # 1)
    A) On arrival at a Class “E” or “J” alarm, the officer shall enter building with all firefighters
    except the chauffeur, who shall remain in the apparatus to monitor both the Department radio
    and handie-talkie for additional information.
    B) If a Ladder company responds they shall bring their usual compliment of tools. If an
    Engine company responds they shall bring forcible entry tools into the lobby in addition to rolled
    up lengths of hose.
    C) Officer shall make contact with building personnel; inquire as to the alarm source and
    direct building personnel to reset the alarm system.
    D) If the alarm panel does reset, the officer shall remain approximately two to three minutes to
    assure that the reset holds.
A
  1. Answer: B = Ladder companies shall bring their usual compliment of tools. Engine
    companies shall bring forcible entry tools into lobby. At this time no rolled up lengths of hose
    will be required.
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12
Q
  1. Please choose a correct procedure(s) for a company officer to follow when responding to a
    Class “E” or “J” alarm - single unit response and the alarm panel has not reset, requiring the
    officer to investigate the actual alarm location inside the building? (ABC 5-94, add # 1)
    A) If the alarm panel does not reset or is again activated, the officer must view the panel for
    alarm location and verify the floor from which the alarm is transmitted.
    B) In addition to the member remaining in the apparatus, the officer shall leave an additional
    member of the engine or ladder company in the lobby.
    C) If the officer intends to use an elevator for an alarm activation above the 7th floor, the
    officer shall enter the elevator with the remaining members.
    D) Officer and the remaining member(s) investigate while one firefighter remains with
    elevator.
A
  1. Answer: A, B, C, D
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13
Q
  1. Please choose an incorrect procedure for a company officer to follow when responding to a
    Class “E” or “J” alarm - single unit response and the alarm panel has not reset, requiring the
    officer to investigate the actual alarm location inside the building and the investigation reveals
    smoke or heat? (ABC 5-94, add # 1)
    A) Engine or ladder company officer shall contact firefighter in lobby or chauffeur in the
    apparatus and request additional help. (Transmit the box, or 10-76).
    B) Engine company officer shall return to lobby with firefighters and secure the necessary
    hose and equipment in preparation to operate as per High-Rise Procedures. At this time, the
    alarm panel should be checked again and the elevators should be recalled.
    C) The engine company shall remain in the lobby and await the arrival of a ladder company
    regardless of the circumstances.
    D) Ladder company personnel need not return to the lobby since they have their normal
    compliment of tools with them.
A
  1. Answer: C = Unless there will be an undue delay in the arrival of additional units, the
    engine company shall remain in the lobby and await arrival of a ladder company.
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14
Q
  1. Which of the following choices concerning standpipe ops is incorrect? (Ch. 9 9.1.1,
    9.2.1)
    A) Buildings that require a stretch of more than three lengths of hose should be included in
    CIDS
    B) Wet systems contain water in the riser at all times supplied by city main, gravity tank,
    pressure tank, and/or fire pump
    C) Dry systems are always equipped with an automatic source of supply and they all contain
    no water
    D) Most combination systems are “wet” and water flow demands of sprinkler and standpipe
    require prompt augmentation by FD pumpers
A
  1. C. = May be equipped with an automatic source of supply, but many contain no water and the only supply is from FD pumpers
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15
Q
  1. Which of the following choices concerning high-pressure pumping operations is incorrect?
    (Ch. 9 Add 1 1.1)
    A) Conventional Engines are two stage 1000 or 2000 gpm engines
    B) High Pressure Engines are retro fitted with a special high pressure discharge elbow
    C) High Pressure Engines have been issued specialized high pressure equipment to pump at
    discharge pressures over 250 psi and up to 700 psi
    D) 3rd stage Engines can supply a maximum of 500 gpm up to 700 psi
A
  1. C = Up to 600 psi
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16
Q
  1. Do you agree or disagree with the following statement? (1.4)
    All engines, including conventional engines, are capable of providing pressures over 250
    psi. However, unless emergency conditions exist and they are ordered to do so by the IC,
    conventional engines should not operate in pressures exceeding 250 psi
    A) Agree or D) Disagree
A
  1. Agree
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17
Q
  1. Whenever possible, an engine supplying high-pressure should be positioned within _____
    hose length(s) of the fire department connection being supplied. No more than _____ connected
    lengths of high-pressure supply hose should be stretched to the fire department connection.
    (3.1)
A
  1. A
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18
Q
  1. A LT was drilling with the new proby on high pressure pumping operations. In which
    statement was he not correct? (3.1, 3.2, 3.3)
    A) A BC should be designated as the High-Pressure Pumping Group Supervisor to control this
    pumping operation. The operation may not be implemented until his arrival
    B) Preset pressures on apparatus equipped with pressure governors should not be used when
    charging a standpipe system.
    C) When other than 1st due to a fire in a high-rise building, officers of high pressure engines
    and 3rd stage engines shall direct their ECC’s to position the apparatus at a hydrant in proximity
    to the Siamese
    D) Do not connect two high-pressure supply lines to a single building Siamese connection.
    When only one Siamese is available stretch the 2nd supply line to the 1st floor outlet
A
  1. A = May be implemented pending his arrival
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19
Q
  1. In regards to 3rd stage pumping operations, which one of the following is correct?
    (4.1, 4.2)
    A) Pressures exceeding 500 psi will require a 3rd stage engine
    B) When 3rd stage pumping is implemented, the IC shall ensure an additional 3rd stage engine
    is assigned to the incident
    C) Only an IC at the rank of Deputy Chief or higher may order the use of the 3rd stage
    D) The increased efficiency of a 3rd stage engine makes it the preferred choice for pumping operations requiring discharge pressures less than 500 psi
A
  1. B = (A-600; C- BC or higher; D- Over 500 psi)
20
Q
  1. Assuming 2 lengths of 3 ½” hose between the pumper and the Siamese, 3 lengths of 2 ½”
    hose attached to the standpipe outlet with 1 1/8” MST, the pump discharge pressure for each
    hoseline attached to a standpipe system should be _____ psi plus _____ psi for each floor above
    grade (9.3.11)
    A) 150, 10
    B) 150, 5
    C) 100, 10
    D) 100, 5
A
  1. D
21
Q
  1. Do you agree or disagree with the following statement. “Sprinkler systems should always
    be supplied with 3 ½” hose.” (Eng Ops ch 10 10.3.2)
    A) Agree or D) Disagree
A
  1. Agree
22
Q
  1. Do you agree or disagree with the following statement. “Sprinkler systems should always be
    augmented by at least two different engine companies.” (Eng Ops ch 10 10.3.8)
    A) Agree or D) Disagree
A
  1. Disagree = (WHENEVER POSSIBLE, sprinkler systems should be augmented by at least
    two different engine companies
23
Q
  1. Sprinkler system control valves may be one of four basic types. Of the following, which
    valve(s) is/are the most commonly encountered and may also be found in standpipe systems for
    use as section or zone control valves? (Eng Ops ch 10 10.4.4)
  2. Outside Stem & Yoke (OS&Y)
  3. Post Indicator Valve (PIV)
  4. Wall Indicator Valve (WIV)/Wall Post Indicator Valve (WPIV)
  5. Butterfly Type Indicator Valve.
    A) 1
    B) 1 & 2
    C) 2
    D) 1 & 4
A
  1. B
24
Q
  1. Do you agree or disagree with the following statement. “For the Akron “New Yorker”
    multiversal, water supply must be supplied by 3 ½” hose.” (Eng Ops ch 11 p 11-1)
    A) Agree or D) Disagree
A
  1. Disagree = (2 ½” hose can be used if necessary although upper end flows will not be
    attainable. )
25
Q
  1. When using the Tower Ladder basket based monitor at a Taxpayer fire, the Ladder Officer
    was most correct to ensure what pressure was at the inlet of the Tower Ladder apparatus?
    (Eng Ops ch 11 p 11-3)
    A) 100 psi
    B) 90 psi
    C) 175 psi
    D) 250psi
A
  1. D = (200 to 250psi is required at the inlet of the tower ladder apparatus for an effective
    operation. )
26
Q
  1. When kinks are severe enough to reduce the extinguishment capabilities of a hose line, an
    “Urgent” shall be transmitted via the handie-talkie. It is essential that which member(s) are
    notified of the water loss situation? (Eng Ops ch 12 2.1)
    A) Incident Commander
    B) Incident Commander and Units operating on the fire floor
    C) Incident Commander and Units operating on the floors above
    D) Incident Commander, Units operating on the fire floor and Units operating on the floor
    above
A
  1. D
27
Q
  1. You are the 2nd arriving Engine Officer operating at a fire on the 2nd floor of a 4-story
    Brownstone. Before entering the fire building you hear an “Urgent” for “Loss of Water” and
    view the 1st Engine apparatus pressure reading decreasing and flowmeter increasing. Knowing
    that the 1st arriving Engine is operating a spare “pre-1997 apparatus” with a Ross Relief Valve,
    you would be most correct to identify the problem as? (Eng Ops ch 12 p 3)
    A) Kinks
    B) Multiple Kinks
    C) Burst Length
    D) Severe Kinks
A
  1. C
28
Q
  1. Under the 1968 Building Code, a minimum of 4 exits is required in Assembly spaces for
    _______ or more occupant loads? (Assembly Pre 2008—Pg 6)
    A. 500 B. 750 C. 900 D. 1000
A
  1. D
29
Q
  1. Under the 1968 Building Code, a minimum of 3 exits is required in Assembly spaces for
    _____ or more occupant loads? (Assembly Pre 2008—Pg 6)
    A. 201 B. 401 C. 501 D. 750
A
  1. C
30
Q
  1. Under the 1968 Building Code, a minimum of 2 exits is required in Assembly spaces for
    ___ or more occupant loads? (Assembly Pre 2008—Pg 6)
    A. 76 B. 100 C. 150 D. 200
A
  1. A
31
Q
  1. Exit signs are required in all assembly spaces to indicate exits and direction to exits and
    must be clearly visible from all parts of the assembly space. The bottom of such signs shall be at
    least _____ feet above the floor level? (Assembly Pre 2008—Pg 7)
    A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8
A
  1. C
32
Q
  1. Exit signs shall be internally lighted where the general illumination in an assembly space is
    reduced to less than ______ foot candles during a performance or during occupancy?
    (Assembly Pre 2008—Pg 7)
    A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8
A
  1. A
33
Q
  1. All assembly spaces shall be provided with emergency lighting sufficient to provide at least
    ______ foot candles of illumination at the floor level. (Assembly Pre 2008—Pg 7)
    A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8
A
  1. A
34
Q
  1. Regarding exit and corridor openings in assembly places, it would be correct to state?
    (Assembly Pre 2008—Pg 7)
    A. The minimum corridor width is 44 inches
    B. Exit openings must be at least 36 inches wide for single doors for spaces up to 300 persons
    C. Exit openings must be at least 44 inches wide for single doors for spaces over 300 persons
    D. Exit openings must be 66 inches to 88 inches wide for doors swinging in pairs
A
  1. A, B, C, D
35
Q
  1. Places of assembly used as cabarets and all stages, dressing rooms and property rooms used
    in conjunction with places of assembly used as cabarets require? (Assembly Pre
    2008—Pg 9-10)
    A. A Supervised Fire Alarm Signal System
    B. A Sprinkler System throughout
A
  1. A, B
36
Q
  1. Which of the following places of assembly locations require sprinkler systems?
    (Assembly Pre 2008—Pg 10)
    A. Stages in F-1a, F-1b, F-3, F-4 providing live entertainment
    B. All dressing rooms and property rooms in F-1a, F-1b, F-2, F-3, F-4 (except F-1b not
    providing live entertainment)
    C. Place of assembly located in a J-1 building
    D. Catering establishments and banquet halls with occupant loads over 250
A
  1. A, B, C = (D - occupant loads over 300)
37
Q
  1. Which of the following may be permitted in cellars, basements and other below grade areas
    if there are sprinkler systems in place throughout? (Assembly Pre 2008—Pg 9-10)
    A. Class I—Flammable Liquids
    B. Class II—Combustible Liquids
    C. Class III—Combustible Liquids
A
  1. B, C = (Flammable Liquids—not permitted)
38
Q
  1. LPG equipment and containers may be used indoors for the purpose of performing
    emergency indoor repairs including such emergency use in an occupied place of public
    assembly. (Assembly Pre 2008—Pg 15)
    A. Agree or D. Disagree?
A
  1. Disagree — NOT allowed in OCCUPIED place of assembly
39
Q
  1. Cut Natural Trees may be displayed in which types of Places of Assembly?
    (Assembly Pre 2008—Pg 17)
    A. Only Houses of Worship
    B. Only on stages of theatres with permission
    C. Only in restaurants
    D. They may never be displayed in a Place of Assembly
A
  1. A
40
Q
  1. An Emergency Control Panel is required for stages in an F-1b occupancy with an occupant
    load of? (Assembly Pre 2008—Pg 17)
    A. 500 B. 600 C. 750 D. 1000
A
  1. B
41
Q
  1. An Emergency Control Panel is required for stages in an F-2 occupancy with an occupant
    load of? (Assembly Pre 2008—Pg 18)
    A. 500 B. 600 C. 750 D. 1000
A
  1. D
42
Q
  1. Regarding spaces for standing audience members, it would be correct to state that rope.
    tape, or other thin material must separate the space to be left clear at a height of ______ feet?
    (Assembly Pre 2008—Pg 18)
    A. 1 - 2 B. 2 - 3 C. 3 - 4 D. 4 - 6
A
  1. C
43
Q
  1. It shall be unlawful to stand, or allow any person to stand, in or at the head of an aisle.
    (Assembly Pre 2008—Pg 18)
    A. Agree or D. Disagree?
A
  1. Agree
44
Q
  1. How many rows of persons are allowed to stand in balconies? (Assembly Pre
    2008—Pg 19)
    A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
A
  1. A
45
Q
  1. Regarding the standing audience members allowed in passageways in places of assembly,
    if the passageway is more than 6 feet and less than 16 feet deep, persons may stand therein
    provided an unobstructed passageway of at least _____ feet in depth is left open, and there are no
    more than _____ rows of persons standing? (Assembly Pre 2008—Pg 19)
    A. 2, 6 B. 4, 4 C. 6, 6 D. 6, 4
A
  1. D
46
Q
  1. Regarding the standing audience members allowed in passageways in places of assembly,
    if the passageway is more than 16 feet deep, persons may stand therein provided an unobstructed
    passageway of at least _____ feet in depth is left open, and there are no more than _____ rows of
    persons standing? (Assembly Pre 2008—Pg 19)
    A. 6, 6
    B. 8, 4
    C. 8, 8
    D. 10, Any number of rows is allowed
A
  1. D