Week_10_Spring 14_on_line__4_04_14_ Flashcards

PART I – Emergency Response Plan (Erp) Pages 1 - 41: PART II - FFP – MULTIPLE DWELLINGS (Wind Driven Fires):

1
Q
1. Please choose the correct shipping documents found in transportation vehicles from the list
below? (ERP, section 3.3.5)
A) Trucks (bill of lading)
B) Railcars (waybill)
C) Ships and barges (cargo manifest)
D) Airplanes (air bill)
A
  1. Answer: All are correct
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2
Q
  1. Scene control at a Haz-Mat incident involves establishing control zones based upon
    expected or known levels of contamination to reduce the potential for transfer of contamination.
    Three contiguous areas will be established: Please choose the most correct answer from the list
    below? (ERP, section 4.1.4)
    A) Exclusion Zone (contaminated) - “Hot Zone”
    B) Contamination Reduction Zone - “Warm Zone”
    C) Support Zone (non-contaminated) - “Cold Zone”
    D) All of the above.
A
  1. Answer: D
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3
Q
  1. Please choose an incorrect item about the Hot (Exclusion) Zone? (ERP, section 4.2)
    A) The Exclusion Zone or Hot Zone is the innermost area of the scene and is considered
    contaminated or “hot.”
    B) All personnel entering the Exclusion Zone must wear appropriate personal protective
    equipment.
    C) The Hotline, the boundary of the Exclusion Zone, should be established initially based on
    the type of released material(s) and the initial instrument readings. The Hotline should be a safe
    distance from any potential exposure.
    D) The Hotline may be readjusted based on additional observation and/or measurements.
    Yellow barrier tape should be used to identify the Exclusion Zone.
    E) People, equipment and apparatus leaving the Exclusion Zone should be considered
    contaminated and must be decontaminated before leaving the scene.
A
  1. Answer: D = The Hotline may be readjusted based on additional observation and/or
    measurements. RED barrier tape should be used to identify the Exclusion Zone.
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4
Q
  1. Please choose an incorrect item about the warm (CRZ) zone? (ERP, section 4.3)
    A) The Contamination Reduction Zone (CRZ) or Warm Zone lies between the Exclusion Zone
    and the Support Zone.
    B) The Contamination Reduction Zone is an area provided to prevent or reduce the transfer of
    contaminants that may have been picked up by personnel or equipment exiting the Exclusion
    Zone.
    C) Some decontamination activities occur in the Contamination Reduction Zone.
    D) YELLOW barrier tape should be used for perimeter identification of the Contamination
    Reduction Zone.
A
  1. Answer: C = All decontamination activities occur in the Contamination Reduction Zone.
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5
Q
  1. Please choose the most correct item from the list below in regards to the cold (support)
    zone? (ERP, section 4.4)
    A) The Support Zone is the outermost area of the site and is considered uncontaminated.
    B) The Support Zone is designated as a controlled area for authorized support personnel and
    equipment.
    C) No contaminated persons, equipment or apparatus are permitted in the Support Zone.
    D) All of the above.
A
  1. Answer: D
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6
Q
  1. Please choose an incorrect item from the list below in regards to decontamination?
    (ERP, section 4.3.9)
    A) Gross Decontamination can only be used for emergency decontamination.
    B) Two common methods of gross decontamination used in emergencies are wet
    decontamination and dry decontamination.
    C) Wet Decontamination involves the use of hand-lines, fixed site emergency showers or the
    mass decontamination procedure.
    D) Dry Decontamination involves either the removal of outer clothing or all garments worn by
    the individual.
    E) Technical Decontamination is a more thorough decontamination process and follows Gross
    Decontamination.
A
  1. Answer: A = Gross Decontamination can be either emergency decontamination or nonemergency
    decontamination.
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7
Q
  1. The level of special protection required in each zone at an incident will be determined by
    the Incident Commander based on the incident size-up and monitoring data provided by the
    officer in charge of the Haz-Mat resources. The levels of chemical protective clothing defined by
    OSHA and the NFPA are:
    A) Level A: The highest level of skin and respiratory protection available to the responder.
    This consists of positive pressure SCBA inside vapor-tight chemical clothing.
    B) Level B: The highest level of respiratory protection, but a lower level of skin protection
    than Level A. This consists of positive pressure SCBA and a chemical ensemble that provides
    splash protection.
    C) Level C: This level of protection offers minimal skin and respiratory protection. This level
    presupposes that the types of air contaminants have been identified, concentrations measured, the
    atmosphere is not oxygen deficient and the filter cartridges provided are designed for the known
    contaminant(s).
    D) Level D: This level of protection provides minimal protection and is used to guard against
    nuisance contamination only, example structural firefighting clothing - bunker gear.
A
  1. Answer: D = Level D: This level of protection provides minimal protection and is used to
    guard against nuisance contamination only. Structural firefighter protective clothing i.e. bunker
    gear is not classified as chemical protective clothing.
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8
Q
  1. Each designated riding position on fire apparatus has been assigned an air-purifying
    respirator (APR) that can only be used when authorized by the Incident Commander. According
    to ERP this can only be done after: Please choose the incorrect item from the list below?
    (ERP, section 7.3)
    A) The air contaminant has been identified.
    B) The oxygen level is between 18.5% and 25.5%.
    C) The concentration of the material has been measured.
    D) The filter cartridge is specific for the contaminant.
    E) Air monitoring is on-going.
A
  1. Answer: B = The oxygen level is between 19.5% and 23.5%. Note: Cross reference
    SCBA add # 2, more criteria is provided in that bulletin
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9
Q
  1. Members of SOC Support Ladder Companies (SSL) are trained to operate at the
    Technician I level, a level above Operations. SSLs are assigned in all boroughs to provide a
    quick response to incidents anywhere in the city. Primary responsibilities for SOC Support
    Ladder Companies include all of the following except one, please choose the exception?
    (ERP, section 8.8.3)
    A) Conduct air monitoring to identify safe zones if not already in progress.
    B) Assist with rescue of victims regardless of other units on-scene or not on scene.
    C) Conduct contamination monitoring of victims after Gross Decontamination to determine if
    Technical Decontamination is needed.
    D) Conduct contamination monitoring of victims after Technical Decontamination to
    determine effectiveness.
    E) Assist in Member and Civilian Decontamination operations as directed.
A
  1. Answer: B = Assist with rescue of victims if HMTU or HMC1 is on-scene and conducting
    air monitoring. (Otherwise SSL performs air monitoring.)
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10
Q
  1. Please choose an incorrect procedure for Chemical Protective Clothing (CPC) Ladder
    Companies? (ERP, section 8.9.1)
    A) Several ladder companies are trained to operate as CPC Ladder Companies.
    B) The primary objective of the CPC Ladder Companies is to perform rescue operations of
    ambulatory victims in the contaminated area or Exclusion Zone.
    C) Members of CPC Ladder Companies are trained in all levels of CPC but should only
    operate in the Exclusion Zone when Technician companies are monitoring the environment.
    D) CPC Ladder Companies are only equipped with PPE and do not have any monitoring
    devices.
A
  1. Answer: B = The primary objective of the CPC Ladder Companies is to perform rescue
    operations of non-ambulatory victims in the contaminated area or Exclusion Zone.
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11
Q
  1. 10-80 No Code - An incident that can be controlled by the on-scene unit(s) and requires no
    additional resources. The HM Battalion and HMC1 can be contacted via the dispatcher, 800
    MHz or cell phone for technical information if necessary. HM Battalion and HMC1 may be
    requested to respond to the incident if necessary. Guidelines for transmitting Signal 10-80 No
    Code include: Please choose the incorrect item? (ERP, section 9.1)
    A) Release is of a small or medium quantity.
    B) The material and its hazards have been identified.
    C) Firefighters’ PPE provides adequate protection against the hazards.
    D) Special equipment and specialized training are not needed.
A
  1. Answer: A = Release is of a small quantity.
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12
Q
  1. Please indicate if you agree or disagree with the below statement? (ERP, section 9.2)
    “10-80-1 = An incident that requires additional resources not carried by regular field units to
    mitigate a spill or release that requires specialized training, knowledge, equipment or PPE.”
    A) Agree or D) Disagree
A
  1. Answer: A
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13
Q
  1. Please indicate if you agree or disagree with the below statement? (ERP, section 9.3)
    “10-80 Code 2 = An incident that involves a spill or release with 4 or less contaminated civilians
    or responders and requires Haz-Mat resources for possible rescue, mitigation and
    decontamination.”
    A) Agree or D) Disagree
A
  1. Answer: A
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14
Q
  1. Please indicate if you agree or disagree with the below statement? (ERP, section 9.4)
    “10-80 Code 3 = A Mass Decontamination incident where 5 or more civilians or responders are
    contaminated and additional Department resources are needed above the Code 2 level.”
    A) Agree or D) Disagree
A
  1. Answer: A
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15
Q
  1. Evacuation is best considered at a Haz-Mat incident when which of the following exist?
    (ERP, section 10.5.2)
    A) There is an immediate danger of fire or explosion.
    B) The potential for a discharge is great, it has not taken place, and there is no time to relocate
    people.
    C) The discharge has taken place but people are sufficiently protected to permit time for
    evacuation.
    D) People not yet in the path of a release will be threatened by changing conditions.
A
  1. Answer: A, C, D = B = The potential for a discharge is great, it has not taken place, and
    there is time to relocate people.
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16
Q
  1. The decision to shelter-in-place at a Haz-Mat incident is appropriate when the hazardous
    material will not affect the structure and its occupants, or the hazard will pass a structure with
    little infiltration. Sheltering-in-place is the preferred alternative when: Please choose the
    incorrect item from the list below? (ERP, section 10.5.5)
    A) Pre-planning has identified options for problem areas such as hospitals, jails, nursing
    homes, and public assemblies.
    B) Evacuation cannot be properly managed with the manpower, resources and facilities
    presently available.
    C) The hazardous material displays the following characteristics; moderate to high toxicity,
    totally released and dissipating, medium quantity solid or liquid leak, a migrating vapor of
    medium toxicity and quantity and people are safer indoors than outside, release can be rapidly
    controlled at the source.
A
  1. Answer: C = The hazardous material displays the following characteristics; low to
    moderate toxicity, totally released and dissipating, small quantity solid or liquid leak, a migrating
    vapor of low toxicity and quantity and people are safer indoors than outside, release can be
    rapidly controlled at the source.
17
Q
  1. According to general ERP the Safe Refuge Area is established in the
    ______________________ ? (ERP, section 10.6.3)
    A) Hot zone (Exclusion)
    B) Warm zone (CRZ)
    C) Cold zone (Support)
A
  1. Answer: B
18
Q
  1. Please choose an incorrect initial action by first arriving units on a Haz-Mat incident?
    (ERP, section 11.2, 11.4, & 11.5)
    A) Units responding to an alarm indicating a hazardous material incident should be aware of
    access and egress routes and wind direction.
    B) A hazard assessment must be made to determine if a release of the hazardous material has
    occurred. An attempt to identify the material and its hazards should become a top priority.
    C) If it is determined that the material has been released and members do not have the proper
    PPE, units should consider withdrawing from the area.
    D) A defensive posture should begin with the transmission of a 10-80 signal with the
    appropriate code.
    E) Hazard and risk assessments should continue until Haz-Mat resources arrive to begin
    offensive operations in the appropriate level of PPE.
A
  1. Answer: C = If it is determined that the material has been released and members do not
    have the proper PPE, units must withdraw from the area.
19
Q
  1. First Alarm Units positioning apparatus at a hazardous materials incident should consider
    the following points: Please choose the correct procedures from the list below? (ERP,
    section 11.8)
    A) Stop a distance from the location and approach cautiously while sizing up the incident. The
    apparatus can always be moved forward when it is determined to be safe.
    B) Position apparatus away from the incident if not needed, allowing entry for Haz- Mat and
    other resources.
    C) Position apparatus at the corners to control access and egress to the entire block.
    D) Position apparatus to allow adequate room for ingress and egress of ambulances.
A
  1. Answer: All are correct
20
Q
  1. The first arriving Ladder Company at a general Haz-Mat incident is responsible for which
    function below according to ERP? (ERP, section 12.1)
    A) Hazard Assessment
    B) Site access control
A
  1. Answer: A
21
Q
  1. The first arriving Ladder Company - Team 1 at a Haz-Mat incident is the Hazard
    identification team, please choose an item they are not responsible for from the list below?
    (ERP)
    A) Identify occupancy and location of hazards, from upwind if possible. Identify container
    shape and approximate size.
    B) Identify any visible markings, colors, placards/labels, etc. Search for shipping documents
    and MSDS.
    C) Provide primary search reports for locations entered. Report information available and
    stand-by.
    D) Access Hazard Action Guidebook & D.O.T. Guidebook, locating appropriate Guide,
    isolation and evacuation recommendations.
A
  1. Answer: D = First arriving Ladder Company - Team 2 (Information Resources) performs
    this function.
22
Q
  1. The Second Arriving Ladder Company is responsible for controlling access to the site and
    for establishing the initial Exclusion Zone. Please indicate if you agree or disagree with the titles
    of the teams under the second arriving ladder company, in quotes below? (ERP, section
    12.2.4 & 12.2.5)
    “Second Arriving Ladder - Team 1: Information resources / Second Arriving Ladder -
    Team 2: Initial Exclusion Zone.”
    A) Agree or D) Disagree
A
  1. Answer: A
23
Q
  1. The first arriving engine company at a Haz-Mat incident is responsible for water supply,
    please choose an incorrect procedure for this unit from the list below? (ERP, section 13.1)
    A) Based on the existing conditions, a line should be stretched but not placed into operation
    until ordered by the Engine Company Officer.
    B) The initial hand-line should be placed upwind and uphill for the safety of the members.
    C) Members of the first arriving Engine Company will remain together as a unit unless
    otherwise ordered by the IC.
    D) If necessary, members of the first arriving Engine Company may perform CFR-D duties.
A
  1. Answer: A = Based on the existing conditions, a line should be stretched but not placed
    into operation until ordered by the Incident Commander (IC) pending the outcome of the initial
    hazard assessment.
24
Q
  1. The Second Arriving Engine Company at a Haz-Mat incident is responsible for assisting
    and coordinating with the Second Ladder Company to control access to the site. The second
    arriving engine can also be ordered by the Incident Commander to perform which functions
    below? (ERP, section 13.2.3)
    A) Assisting the First Arriving Engine with water supply.
    B) Assisting the First Arriving Engine with line placement.
    C) Site control
    D) Evacuation
A
  1. Answer: All are correct
25
Q
  1. The following five conditions must be present for a wind impacted fire to occur. Which
    condition is listed incorrectly? (FFP MDs Add 3 2.2)
    A) Wind.
    B) Fire in an apartment.
    C) Failed or opened window in the fire room.
    D) Fire apartment door leading to the public hall left open or not fully closed.
    E) An area of high pressure such as an opened stairwell door, or an opened apartment door on
    the opposite side of the public hallway from the fire apartment.
A

1) E = (An area of low pressure such as an opened stairwell door, or an opened apartment
door on the opposite side of the public hallway from the fire apartment.)

26
Q
  1. When wind impacted fire conditions exist in a FPMD, the IC shall notify the borough
    dispatcher so this information can be relayed to all responding units. Do you agree or
    disagree with the above statement? (FFP MDs Add 3 2.1)
    A) Agree or D) Disagree
A

2) A

27
Q
  1. The term ______ describes the movement of fire, heat and smoke from an area of high
    pressure (the fire area) to an area of low pressure (all areas other than the fire area). (FFP
    MDs Add 3 2.2 Note 1)
    A) Stack Effect
    B) Wind Impacted Fire
    C) Flow Path
    D) Flashover
A

3) C

28
Q
  1. The impact of the wind will be affected by all of the following except? (FFP
    MDs Add 3 2.2 Note 2)
    A) Size of the window opening
    B) Fuel load
    C) Stage of the fire when the window failed
    D) Size of the fire apartment
A

4) D

29
Q
5. Who must be notified immediately when conditions indicating a potential wind-impacted
fire are observed? (FFP MDs Add 3 2.2.1)
A) The IC only
B) The IC and company officer
C) The company officer only
D) No notification is necessary
A

5) B = (*The communication of this critical information to the IC and company officers
operating inside the building must be acknowledged.)

30
Q
  1. Size-up for potential wind-impacted conditions begins by observing the wind and weather
    conditions _________ and knowing forecasted weather changes that will involve wind
    conditions. (FFP MDs Add 3 3.1)
    A) upon entering quarters
    B) while responding to a potential wind-impacted fire
    C) upon arrival on the fire floor
    D) before the tour starts
A

6) D

31
Q
  1. Which choice below contains correct information regarding wind and its effect on fire
    operations? (FFP MDs Add 3 3.2.1)
    A) The direction and speed at the street level is a reliable indicator of wind conditions above
    the street level.
    B) Wind behavior is not consistent but is predictable.
    C) Wind impacted fires only occur on upper floors of fireproof buildings.
    D) Building height, size, shape and location of adjoining or adjacent buildings add to the
    unpredictability of the effects of wind on fire conditions.
A

7) D = (A) The direction and speed at the street level is not a reliable indicator of wind
conditions above the street level. B) Wind behavior is not consistent or predictable. C) Wind
impacted fires have occurred on upper and lower floors.)

32
Q
  1. It does not take high winds to dramatically increase fire conditions inside the building.
    Do you agree or disagree with the above statement? (FFP MDs Add 3 3.2.1)
    A) Agree or D) Disagree
A

8) A

33
Q
  1. Prior to advancing to the reported fire floor, members must gather information by
    surveying? (FFP MDs Add 3 3.3.1)
    A) two floors below in all cases
    B) the floor below, or two floors below if scissor stairs are present
    C) the floor below in all cases
    D) both the floor below and two floors below if scissor stairs are present
A

9) B

34
Q
  1. The roof firefighter, in the apartment above the fire, may be able to provide vital
    information. This firefighter should provide all of the following except? (FFP MDs Add
    3 3.3.5)
    A) Size of the fire apartment
    B) Layout of the fire apartment
    C) Visible fire or smoke coming from the fire apartment
    D) By keeping the apartment door closed and opening a window, the roof firefighter will be
    able to simulate how the wind will flow through the apartment
A

10) D = (By keeping the apartment door open and opening a window, the roof firefighter will
be able to simulate how the wind will flow through the apartment.)
11) D = (An exterior stream such as the HRN is very effective

35
Q
  1. An exterior stream such as the HRN is not as effective in knocking down a wind
    impacted fire in a multiple dwelling due to the larger compartmented areas/rooms. Do you
    agree or disagree with the above statement? (FFP MDs Add 3 4.2.2)
    A) Agree or D) Disagree
A

11) D = (An exterior stream such as the HRN is very effective in knocking down a wind
impacted fire in a multiple dwelling due to the smaller compartmented areas/rooms.)

36
Q
  1. A Flanking strategy is the application of water from inside the fire building to control the
    main body of fire via a non-frontal attack. Which choice below contains incorrect information
    regarding this effective strategy? (FFP MDs Add 3 4.2.4)
    A) A small opening is made in the adjoining wall to the fire room.
    B) The hole shall be as close to the exterior wall as possible, so as not to create a flow path.
    C) The hoseline is operated into the opening to extinguish the fire.
    D) Initially, the hole in the wall should be only large enough for the entire nozzle, including
    the shut-off, to be placed into the opening allowing the stream to be directed at the ceiling of the
    fire room.
A

12) D = (Initially, the hole in the wall should be only large enough for the main stream tip of
the nozzle to be placed into the opening allowing the stream to be directed at the ceiling of the
fire room.)

37
Q
  1. Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding a flanking attack when the
    door to the fire apartment has been left open? (FFP MDs Add 3 4.2.4 A)
    A) This option is available based on the location of the fire apartment, the location of a
    stairway closer to the selected apartment, and the interior hallway conditions.
    B) Enter an adjoining apartment to apply the hose stream to the fire room or fire apartment via
    a breached wall adjacent to the fire area, if this adjoining area can be accessed and occupied
    safely.
    C) Once access is obtained to the adjoining apartment, the door to that apartment should
    remain partially open for ventilation.
    D) The hoseline is stretched to this adjoining apartment from the apartment below via an
    exterior window or balcony using a utility rope.
A

13) C = (Once access is obtained to the adjoining apartment, the door to that apartment must
remain closed.)

38
Q
  1. Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding a flanking attack when the
    door to the fire apartment is closed? (FFP MDs Add 3 4.2.4 B)
    A) Enter an adjoining apartment to apply the hose stream to the fire room or fire apartment.
    B) Operate via a breached wall adjacent to the fire area, if this adjoining area can be accessed
    and occupied safely.
    C) Once access is obtained to the adjoining apartment the hoseline must be stretched from the
    apartment below via an exterior window or balcony using a utility rope.
    D) The stream should be directed at the ceiling of the fire room.
A

14) C = (Once access is obtained to the adjoining apartment the hoseline will be stretched via
the fire floor public hallway into the adjoining apartment to operate into the fire apartment.)

39
Q
  1. Experience has shown that conditions at a wind impacted fire will severely tax the
    resources of the_____ to arrive Ladder Company. (FFP MDs Add 3 4.5)
    A) 1st
    B) 2nd
    C) 3rd
    D) 4th
A

15) B = (*Firefighters from the 3rd to arrive ladder, rescue or squad company, equipped with
forcible entry tools, may be assigned to force entry into the apartment below the fire apartment in
order to secure the ropes of the WCD and/or provide access for the HRN engine company.)