Week_13_Spring 14_on_line_5_2_14

Question 1

1. Please choose the correct items about radiation from the list below? (Section, 1)
   A) Radiation is energy that is released in the form of particles and/or waves. This energy will travel through space and possibly through materials.
   B) Radiation energy is colorless, odorless and tasteless, and therefore, radiation energy cannot be detected by human senses.
   C) Radiological materials come in all three physical states: solid, liquid and gas.
   D) The types of ionizing radiation discussed in ERP addendum # 4 include alpha particles, beta particles, gamma rays and neutrons

Answer 1

1. Answer: All are correct

Question 2

2. A person can be exposed to a hazardous material such as radiological material through four routes of entry: Please choose the most correct answer? (Section, 1.2.1)
A) Inhalation
B) Ingestion
C) Absorption
D) Penetration/Injection.
E) All of the above

Answer 2

2. Answer: E

Question 3

3. Please choose the incorrect definition about exposure and/or contamination? (Section, 1.2.1)
   A) An internal exposure is received from a radioactive source deposited inside the body.
   B) An external exposure is received from a radioactive source outside of the body. A person cannot be externally exposed to radiation without being contaminated.
   C) A person contaminated with radioactive material implies that the material itself is on a person’s body/clothing and is emitting energy in the form of alpha particles, beta particles, gamma rays or neutron particles.
   D) Contamination can result from the airborne distribution, direct contact or re-suspension of radioactive material.

Answer 3

3. Answer: B = An external exposure is received from a radioactive source outside of the body. A person can be externally exposed to radiation without being contaminated.

Question 4

4. Please indicate if you agree or disagree with the below statement? (Section, 1.3.4)
   “Women who are declared pregnant or who are pregnant and request to operate outside of the Warm or Hot Zone at the time of an incident may operate only in the Cold Zone.”
   A) Agree or D) Disagree

Answer 4

4. Answer: A

Question 5

5. Please choose an incorrect item about the Rad50 and/or dose/dose rate? (Section, 1.4)
   A) Dose - Amount of radiation energy deposited or absorbed in the body e.g. Total Miles – odometer reading.
   B) Dose Rate - How fast the radiation energy is deposited, e.g. MPH – speedometer reading.
   C) The Rad50 carried on Department apparatus is calibrated to alarm at 1 R/hr. The Rad50 is able to measure radiation levels up to 50 R/hr.
   D) A person operating in an environment with a Rad50 meter reading of 50 mR/hr, will receive a dose of 50 mR if operating for 1 hour in that environment, or 25 mR if operating for 1⁄2 hour, the duration of one SCBA bottle.

Answer 5

5. Answer: C = The Rad50 carried on Department apparatus is calibrated to alarm at 1 mR/hr. The Rad50 is able to measure radiation levels up to 50 mR/hr.

Question 6

6. Units must carry the Rad50 when: Please choose the correct items from the list below? (Section, 2.1)
   A) Out of quarters.
   B) Performing AFID.
   C) Responding to Complaints.
   D) During the assessment of emergencies and fires.

Answer 6

6. Answer: All are correct

Question 7

7. A Radiological Incident encompasses which of the following from the list below? (Section, 2.2)
   A) A situation where radiological meter readings are above background from a legitimate source and the source has not been released from its container.
   B) The source may also be a naturally emitting source.
   C) After consideration, readings should be confirmed by a second meter to establish the situation as a Radiological Incident.
   D) All of the above.

Answer 7

7. Answer: A & B = C = Readings must be confirmed by a second meter to establish the situation as a Radiological Incident.

Question 8

8. A Radiological Emergency involves which of the following from the list below? (Section, 2.3)
   A) A source that is not out of its container, either accidentally or intentionally.
   B) A Radiological Emergency encompasses a situation where radiological meter readings are above what is expected for a specific location.
   C) Readings must be confirmed by a second meter to establish the situation as a Radiological Emergency.
   D) Transmit the appropriate 10-80 code and specify “For a Radiological Emergency.”

Answer 8

8. Answer: B, C, D = A = A source that is out of its container, either accidentally or intentionally.

Question 9

9. RDD – Radiological Dispersal Device is incorrectly defined in which choice below? (Section, 2.3.2)
   A) Meant to disperse radioactive material as a solid (powder), liquid (mist) or a gas over a large area.
   B) Can involve explosives, also known as a “dirty bomb”.
   C) Above background radiological meter readings at multiple locations.
   D) Do not expect contamination; expect internal and external exposures

Answer 9

9. Answer: D = Expect contamination; expect internal and external exposures

Question 10

10. RID – Radiological Incendiary Device is incorrectly defined in which choice below? (Section, 2.3.2)
    A) Radiological material involved in an intentionally set fire, also called “dirty fire”.
    B) This type of an attack is used to delay First Responders.
    C) The greatest danger is from the radioactive material.
    D) Expect contamination with potential internal and external exposures.

Answer 10

10. Answer: C = The greatest danger is from the expanding fire

Question 11

11. The FDNY’ s Protective Action Guidelines (P AGs) are designed to help the Incident Commander and Operations Chief make critical, time-sensitive decisions. Please choose an incorrect PAG from the list below? (Section, 3.1.4)
    A) 50 Rem - Lifesaving for a Catastrophic Event
    B) 25 Rem - Lifesaving or Protection of Large Populations
    C) 10 Rem - Protection of Minor/Major Property
    D) 5 Rem - General Operations at a Radiological Emergency

Answer 11

11. Answer: C = 10 Rem - Protection of Major Property

Question 12

12. Please indicate if you agree or disagree with the below paragraph? (Section, 3.1.4)
    “Because radiation fallout from an Improvised Nuclear Device (IND) does not occur for approximately 15 minutes after the detonation, units responding to an IND should not enter the area of the detonation for at least 15 minutes post-detonation, when presence of radiation can then be detected and monitored.”
    A) Agree or D) Disagree

Answer 12

12. Answer: A

Question 13

13. During a Radiological event the FDNY will evacuate civilians from buildings in the surrounding area if: Please choose the most correct? (Section, 3.2.1)
    A) The projected dose inside the buildings will reach 5 Rem for the general population.
    B) 10 Rem for special groups such as non-ambulatory hospital patients, prison residents, nursing home residents, etc.
    C) Both A and B
    D) Neither A and B

Answer 13

13. Answer: C

Question 14

14. Please choose the correct procedures to follow for a radiological incident from the list below? (Section, 4.3)
    A) Confirm initial readings with a second meter.
    B) Determine the location of the radioactive source, if possible and within the scope of training and equipment.
    C) Verify that the situation involves a legitimate source, which has not been released from its container.
    D) Transmit the appropriate code: 10-80 no code or code 1, don appropriate PPE, if necessary14. Answer: All are correct

Answer 14

14. Answer: All are correct

Question 15

15. Please choose the correct procedures to follow prior to operating at a radiological emergency from the list below? (Section, 4.4)
    A) Don the appropriate PPE.
    B) Use full respiratory protection, bring APR with adapter.
    C) Zero out and don dosimeter.
    D) Monitor the incident with radiological metering equipment such as RadAlert50, Canberra mini radiac, or Ludlum.

Answer 15

15. Answer: All are correct

Question 16

16. The Department uses 1 mR/hr as an action level for radiological events. The Hotline (defining the Hot Zone) should be established at a rate of \_\_\_\_\_\_ mR/hr. Please fill in the blank? (Section, 4.4.2)
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4

Answer 16

16. Answer: B

Question 17

17. When a member’s dosimeter reads a dose of 5 Rem they should notify the Officer. If manpower and equipment are sufficient to allow rotation of members, leave the Hot Zone and proceed to the Warm Zone for decontamination. If rotation of members is not possible, continue life safety operations and monitor personal dosimeter. In accordance with Department’s Protective Action Guidelines, the maximum dose allowable for first responders is 25/50 Rem for life saving operations and 10 Rem for protection of major property. Continue to notify the officer for each additional 5 Rem dose received thereafter with the following information: Please choose the most correct answer? (Section, 4.4.3)
A) Location
B) Activity being performed
C) Radiological Rate and Dose
D) All of the above

Answer 17

17. Answer: D = Code Word = LARD

Question 18

18. The Decision dose on Canberra Meters is? (Page 30)
A) 5 Rem
B) 10 Rem
C) 12 Rem
D) 25 Rem

Answer 18

18. Answer: C

Question 19

19. The Transport Index (TI) indicates the maximum level of radiation (in mR/hr) at one meter from an undamaged package. If levels of radiation exceed the TI, the integrity of the package may have been compromised or breached. Please choose the TI for a package labeled with a yellow II label? (Page 33)
A) 1 mR/hr
B) N/A (Not Applicable)
C) 0.5 mR/hr
D) 10 mR/hr

Answer 19

19. Answer: A

Question 20

20. Upon confirmation of an incident where a Rad alert - 50’s readings are above the 50mR/Hr maximum dose rate of the Rad alert - 50 (the rad alert 50 is saturated), the Incident Commander shall immediately notify the _____________________. Please fill in the blank? (Section 4.2)
    A) Deputy Chief who would be assigned to the box.
    B) Citywide Command Chief.
    C) Battalion Chief who would be assigned to the box.
    D) Borough Dispatcher.

Answer 20

20. Answer: B

Question 21

1. A/n \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ load is a force perpendicular to the supporting member. It is straight and true and is evenly applied to the bearing structure. (FFP Taxpayers Glossary)
A) Axial
B) Eccentric
C) Lateral
D) Direct

Answer 21

1) A

Question 22

2. A/n \_\_\_\_\_ load is a force whose resultant is perpendicular to the supporting member but does not pass through the center of the mass. The load is not evenly applied to the supporting or bearing member. (FFP Taxpayers Glossary)
A) Axial
B) Eccentric
C) Lateral
D) Direct

Answer 22

2) B

Question 23

3. Taxpayer areas vary from 20’ x 50’ to areas of whole city blocks, the most common size being approximately 100’ x 100’. They can be built on one or more lots with adjoining structures of greater heights on three sides. Do you agree or disagree with the above statement? (FFP Taxpayers 2.2.1)
   A) Agree or D) Disagree

Answer 23

3) A

Question 24

4) What is the most prevalent type of taxpayer? (FFP Taxpayers 2.3.2)
A) Those built from the turn of the century until the 1920’s.
B) Those built from the 1920’s into the 1960’s.
C) Those built since the 1960’s.
D) Those built since 1945.

Answer 24

4) B

Question 25

5. In which type taxpayer has the use of combustible construction material been reduced? (FFP Taxpayers 2.3.3)
   A) Those built from the turn of the century until the 1920’s.
   B) Those built from the 1920’s into the 1960’s.
   C) Those built since the 1960’s.
   D) Those built since 1945.

Answer 25

5) C

Question 26

6. Decorative metal cornices, through which fire can spread, may be found on the front of some buildings. When there is a heavy fire in the front of the building, the supports of these cornices can be weakened and the cornice can fall to the ground unexpectedly. They can be removed to provide access to the cockloft area in which type of taxpayer? (FFP Taxpayers 2.3.1)
   A) Those built from the turn of the century until the 1920’s.
   B) Those built from the 1920’s into the 1960’s.
   C) Those built since the 1960’s.
   D) Those built since 1945.

Answer 26

6) A

Question 27

7. In some buildings, cornices of the facade type and signs are often attached to the front of the building outside off the brick walls. Removing the cornice or sign in most cases will not provide access to the cockloft area in which type of taxpayer? (FFP Taxpayers 2.3.2)
   A) Those built from the turn of the century until the 1920’s.
   B) Those built from the 1920’s into the 1960’s.
   C) Those built since the 1960’s.
   D) Those built since 1945.

Answer 27

7) B

Question 28

8. Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding mezzanines which may be found in taxpayer structures? (FFP Taxpayers 2.4.3-2.4.6)
   A) The mezzanine area is in most cases used for storage of goods, but it can contain offices (predominant in supermarkets and factories) and also sales areas to which the public will have access.
   B) The height of the ceilings in the mezzanine and the area below will be below average.
   C) Access to this area may be via small wooden stairs or just a ladder. Very seldom will there be another means of access.
   D) The majority of mezzanines will be enclosed with no railing around the edge

Answer 28

8) D = (In the majority of the mezzanines this area will not be enclosed and there will be a railing at the edge.)

Question 29

9. Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding rules for sprinkler protection in taxpayers? (FFP Taxpayers 2.5.1)
   A) 1938 Code - sprinkler required in area exceeding 10,000 square feet.
   B) 1968 Code - sprinkler required in area exceeding 7,500 square feet.
   C) 2008 Code Group M-Mercantile FULL BUILDING - sprinkler required in area exceeding 10,000 square feet OR the combined area on all floors including mezzanines exceeds 12,000 square feet.
   D) 2008 Code Group M-Mercantile FULL BUILDING - sprinkler required if storage of merchandise is in high piled racks or rack storage arrays

Answer 29

9) C = (2008 Code Group M-Mercantile FULL BUILDING - sprinkler required in area exceeding 12,000 square feet OR the combined area on all floors including mezzanines exceeds 24,000 square feet.)

Question 30

10. The cockloft of a taxpayer is usually a common area extending over all the stores in the structure and can vary in height from? (FFP Taxpayers 3.2.1)
    A) 1 foot to tall enough for a man to stand in.
    B) Four inches to more than six feet.
    C) Two to three feet.
    D) Six to twelve inches.

Answer 30

10) B

Question 31

11. Updated calculations have revealed that bowstring truss roofs may only support \_\_\_% of the load they were originally designed to hold. (FFP Taxpayers 3.3.3 B)
A) 20%
B) 40%
C) 50%
D) 60%

Answer 31

11) B

Question 32

12. In older type truss roof buildings, the trusses may be spaced 10 or 20 feet apart with roof beams installed between the trusses to support the roof coverings. Do you agree or disagree with the above statement? (FFP Taxpayers 3.3.3 I)
    A) Agree or D) Disagree

Answer 32

12) A

Question 33

13. Open web steel joists come in standardized lengths, depths and carrying capacities. They are used to span long distances up to? (FFP Taxpayers 3.3.3 B)
A) 25 feet
B) 90 feet
C) 60 feet
D) 100 feet

Answer 33

13) C

Question 34

14. Unprotected open web steel joists are particularly vulnerable to elevated temperatures of a fire and may collapse after? (FFP Taxpayers 3.3.3 D)
A) 30 minutes
B) 10 to 15 minutes
C) 5 or 10 minutes
D) 60 minutes

Answer 34

14) C

Question 35

15. When steel I-beams are heated from 1500 degrees F to 2000 degrees F, their yield strength drops dramatically and they start to soften and fail. This temperature can be reached in five to ten minutes at a fire and it is only a matter of time at an uncontrolled fire (thirty minutes for the smaller beam sections), until these beams can be heated beyond their strength limitations. Do you agree or disagree with the above statement? (FFP Taxpayers 3.6.3)
    A) Agree or D) Disagree

Answer 35

15) D = (When steel I-beams are heated from 1000 degrees F to 1500 degrees F…)