WEEK 9 Flashcards

Question 1

Q

PART I - MANAGING MEMBERS IN DISTRESS
1. BC Question - E99 and LI00 are responding to a phone alarm for a report of an alarm
ringing in a private dwelling. Upon arrival fire is blowing out one window on the 2
nd floor of the
2 story private dwelling. Capt. Kanden of LI 00 transmits a 10-75 and proceeds to the front door
of the dwelling with his inside team. Lt. Corrpez of E99 orders his members to start a 1 %” line
to the front of the house. The roof firefighter proceeds to the roof, the LCC is in the front setting
up the tower ladder, and the OV has made his way to the rear of the building. When the OV gets
to the rear he sees a victim at a window on the second floor. The victim then falls to the floor
inside the window as he is overcome by smoke. The OV immediately puts up a ladder, notifies
his captain, and enters the building alone to make the rescue of the victim. While the OV is
rescuing the victim the LCC starts to make his way to the rear but when he arrives the OV is
already bringing the victim down the ladder. The OV transmits a 10-45 to the IC, B99, who has
now arrived on the scene. After the rescue the fire is quickly extinguished, searches were
conducted, and operations are concluded. The Deputy Chief, D9, never arrived as they were
involved in an accident enroute to the scene. At this incident, who is responsible to complete a
report since the OV entered the building alone to address a known life hazard? This report must
be sent to whom? MMID Chapter 1 1.4
A. The Captain of L100 / Chief of the Department.
B. The BC in B99 / Chief of Operations.
C. The Captain of LI 00 / Chief of Operations.
D. The BC in B99 / Chief of Department.

Question 2

Q

When an understaffed Engine or Ladder Company, a unit staffed with less than 4
firefighters, is the only unit on the scene, the company shall take a defensive position. However,
if a known life hazard is discovered and immediate action could prevent the loss of life,
appropriate action (rescue activity) may be taken by an individual member. This applies only for
a known life hazard, not for standard search and rescue activity. E99 is understaffed and has just
arrived at a fire on the 1
st
floor of a 3 story multiple dwelling. There is no indication of a life
hazard, however the 1
st
floor hallway and stairway is charged with smoke. E99, the only unit on
the scene, would be correct to take all but which of the actions listed below?
MMID Ch. 1 2.1
A. Check and hook up to a hydrant.
B. Conduct a size up of the scene.
C. Transmit the appropriate radio signals.
D. Position and raise a portable ladder.
E. Stretch a hoseline to the hallway on the 1st
floor near the entrance to the fire apartmen

Question 3

Q

A Safety Team must be available at all times and shall normally be made up of the Backup
and Control firefighters of the second arriving engine. However, there will be times when entry
into an IDLH atmosphere is necessary prior to the arrival of the first two engine companies.
Listed below are four different situations where units operated alone at fires prior to the arrival of
the 1
st
two Engine companies and the FAST Unit. Which safety team was composed of the
wrong members? MMID Ch. 1 2.1.1
A. The Officer of LI00, staffed with 5 firefighters, designated the safety team as the LCC and
the Roof Firefighter.
B. The Officer of L99, staffed with 4 firefighters, designated the safety team as the LCC and
the Roof firefighter.
C. The Officer of E99, staffed with 5 firefighters, designated the safety team as the Control
and Door firefighters.
D. The Officers of E98 and L101, both staffed with 5 firefighters, designated the safety team
as the Control firefighter and the LCC.

Question 4

Q

BC Question - BC Bongino is working a day tour in B99 and responded to two fires at
which he was the 1
st due Chief. At which fire(s) did BC Bongino not operate in accordance with
FDNY procedures? 2.2, 2.3
Fire I: The fire started in the kitchen on the 1st floor of a 2 story private dwelling, was quickly
extinguished, and there was no extension. The 1st due truck called for relief and the
FAST Unit Officer told BC Bongino that they were ready to go. BC Bongino special
called an additional truck and ordered the FAST Unit to continue to operate as the
FAST unit since the fire was not yet declared under control.
Fire 2: The fire started in a rear bedroom of apartment 2A on the 2nd floor of a 3 story MD.
The fire was quickly extinguished and there was no extension. When the FAST Unit
arrived, they informed BC Bongino that they were staffed with 4 firefighters. BC
Bongino immediately called for an additional FAST truck to replace the original FAST
unit since that unit was not fully staffed.
A. BC Bongino operated correctly at both fires.
B. BC Bongino operated incorrectly at both fires.
C. BC Bongino operated incorrectly at Fire 1 only.
D. BC Bongino operated incorrectly at Fire 2 only.

Question 5

Q

The purpose of the Firefighter Assist and Search Team (FAST) is to be immediately
available to assist a member who becomes trapped, distressed, or involved in other serious life
threatening situations. Which point about the FAST unit is not correct? 2.1, 3
A. The dispatcher shall allocate a ladder company which shall be designated as the FAST
Unit, upon transmission of signals 10-60, 10-66, 10-75, 10-76, and 10-77. The dispatcher will
notify the assigned unit that it is designated as the FAST Unit and notify the IC of the identity of
the responding FAST Unit.
B. Upon arrival, the FAST unit officer shall verify that the IC is aware of the unit’s presence
and designation as the FAST unit. If assigned by the IC to other than FAST duties, the FAST
officer shall REMIND the IC of their FAST designation.
C. The FAST Unit shall report to and stage near the Incident Command Post (ICP), within
visual contact, at a position from which they can be readily deployed. An EFAS trained member
of the FAST Unit shall report to a Division vehicle on the scene to monitor the EFAS and the
FAST Radio.
D. The FAST officer should bring an up to date copy of the response ticket to the ICP which
would include any CIDS information that is available. The officer of the FAST Unit shall
announce their arrival on the scene over the handie-talkie and report to the ICP, unless otherwise
directed by the IC.

Question 6

Q

LI 00 was operating as the FAST unit at a fire on the 2
nd floor of a 2 story private dwelling
when they were deployed to help remove the control firefighter from the 1
st due Engine, E99.
The control firefighter slipped and fell on the staircase leading to the second floor and may have
broken his ankle. Which transmission given by members of the FAST unit, LI 00, was incorrect?
4.3, 4.4
A.
“LI 00 FAST to Command, we are at the location of the downed firefighter”
.
B.
“L100 FAST Roof to L100 FAST, I have the FAST Pak ready if you need it”
.
C.
“LI00 FAST to E99, we have your control firefighter and are removing him now”
D.
“LI00 FAST OV to command, be advised there is still fire blowing out 1 window in the
REAR

Question 7

Q

In addition to the normally assigned ladder company tools, the FAST Unit shall report to
the ICP, in all situations, with all of the following equipment except which one? 8
A. Life Saving Rope and the Life Belt.
B. FAST Pak.
C. Pak-Tracker.
D. Stokes Basket with long backboard.
E. Search Rope

Question 8

Q

All members of the FAST Unit should be fully prepared to operate upon arrival and must
be ready for immediate deployment as directed by the IC. Which point about the operation of
the FAST unit is incorrect? 5.1, 5.2
A. A member must be assigned the FAST Pak and is responsible to manage the air supply of
the distressed member, if needed.
B. If a member is EFAS trained, upon arrival, he/she must report to the Battalion vehicle
being used to monitor EFAS. This FAST Unit member shall remain in the Battalion vehicle and
monitor both EFAS and the Battalion’s FAST Radio for the duration of the incident, even if the
FAST Unit is given an assignment.
C. If a member is not EFAS trained, upon arrival, he/she must report to the Battalion vehicle
on scene to monitor both EFAS and the FAST Radio Board. This FAST Unit member shall
remain in the Battalion vehicle and monitor both EFAS and the Battalion’s FAST Radio for the
duration of the incident, unless the FAST Unit is given an assignment.
D. A survey of the fire building should be done by the FAST unit to determine the following:
Access for portable ladders, presence of fire escapes and party wall balconies, the type and
location of stairs and elevators, and any obstructions that would hinder access to any side of the
structure.

Question 9

Q

During a drill at the Rock regarding FAST unit operations, members of LI00 made the
following three points and were correct in all but which?
A. When the FAST Unit operation requires the use of a ladder, avoid repositioning ladders
already in place against a fire building unless it is a life threatening situation and a notification is
made to the members operating in that area. Ladders in place may be providing a means of
egress for operating firefighters.
B. When the FAST Unit arrives at the location of the distressed member, the transmitting
member of the FAST Unit shall depress the EAB on the downed member’s handie-talkie. This
will identify the member of the FAST Unit transmitting the emergency message on EFAS and
the FAST Radio and will also ensure the message is transmitted at the maximum wattage.
C. When the FAST unit arrives at the location of a downed member they should assess fire,
air, immediate medical care, and removal.
D. The FAST Unit shall remain intact and not split up when dealing with large commercial or
complex buildings.

Question 10

Q

Which suffix designations listed below are correctly indicated? (More than one correct).
Comm. Man. Ch. 2, 2.12.3
A.
“K” indicates Rescue Task Force on a 10-66 signal.
B.
“G” indicates FAST Group Supervisor.
C.
“L” indicates Firefighter Locator Officer.
D.
“S” indicates Staging Area Manager assigned on a 10-66.

Question 11

Q

When a member needs to be rescued, all other members on the scene must be well versed
in the proper use, care, and limitations of the equipment used to rescue the downed member.
Which point below is not entirely correct about this lifesaving equipment? MMID Ch. 3
Add 2 and 3
A. The DRD can be deployed to assist in the removal of a non-ambulatory injured or
unconscious member. The DRD is designed for horizontal drags and can be used to pull
members up a stairway.
B. Nylon tubular webbing comes in 20’ lengths, has a breaking strength 4000 lbs., has a
knotted breaking strength 3000 lbs., and must be made into a continuous loop before use by
using a water knot.
C. Nylon tubular webbing shall only be used for dragging victims; no vertical lifts should be
attempted. Each Officer and member will be issued a length of webbing which will become part
of the member’s personal equipment.
D. To requisition replacement lengths of webbing the Officer on Duty should forward an RT-2
to the tool room. The webbing can be cleaned with mild soap and water, allowed to dry naturally
avoiding direct sunlight, and should be inspected monthly and after each use.

Question 12

Q

When a mayday is transmitted for a firefighter that is lost, missing, trapped, or in distress
time will not be on your side. This is why it is essential that units follow department procedures
regarding firefighter removal. Which point about firefighter removal is not correct?
MMID Ch.3, 2.1, 3.1, 4.1, 5.3
A. It is important to emphasize that the operating units continue to fight the fire when a
mayday/urgent is transmitted for a distressed firefighter. The abandonment of Engine or Ladder
company operations places the trapped member and the rescuing firefighters in severe danger.
B. The Company Officer of the FAST unit should never get physically involved in the
firefighter removal operation. It is the responsibility of the officer to supervise the operation and
keep the members focused with the job at hand.
C. When the member has been located, the appropriate radio transmissions must be made.
Whether or not the removal involves a conscious or unconscious member, the priorities will be
fire/environment, air, immediate medical care, and removal.
D. It is important to transmit a clear and concise message with the appropriate information.
An unclear message will only cause confusion and delays. When wearing the facepiece, the
microphone must be placed directly on the voicemitter.

Question 13

Q

Lt. Beck is working a day tour in L100 and has just arrived with his unit at a fire on the 1
st
floor of a 2 story flat roof private dwelling. LI 00 is the FAST unit and after reporting into the
command post they hear a mayday from the Irons FF from L99. The member who gave the
mayday says he is having chest pains and can’t walk out of the building. The IC quickly deploys
LI00 to go remove the Irons FF from L99. Lt. Beck and his can FF quickly locate the Irons FF
from L99 and begin to assess his condition. Lt. Beck calls the other members of his FAST Team
and says they just need the Stokes Basket and removal will be quick. The Roof FF from LI 00
calls Lt. Beck and asks if he wants the FAST Pak in addition to the Stokes Basket. Lt. Beck says
they only need the Stokes Basket as the Irons FF from L99 has plenty of air left in his cylinder.
Do you agree or disagree with Lt. Beck’s actions at this fire?
A. Agree or D. Disagree

Question 14

Q

When members arrive at the location of a downed firefighter it is of critical importance to
determine if the member has air or not. Listed below are four ways to determine if the
unconscious member has air or not. Which two are not described correctly? (More than one
correct). MMID Ch. 3, 7.6
A. Turn the purge valve. If there is air, the flow will be heard.
B. If the facepiece is on, remove the regulator from the facepiece and listen for air escaping.
C. Look at the remote gauge of the downed member.
D. Look at the cylinder gauge of the downed member.

Question 15

Q

Members of LI00 were drilling on firefighter removal and made the following points.
Which was the only correct point made at this drill? MMID Ch. 3, 7.4, 7.5, 7.7, 7.9
A. Members in distress should not remove their facepiece unless their air supply is depleted.
B. It is a good practice to use the facepiece with the FAST Pak as the member’s facepiece may
be damaged.
C. Air may be supplied to the member through the use of the low pressure system by one of
the following methods: FAST Pak regulator with the member’s facepiece, Hansen fitting of the
low pressure hose, or the FAST Pak facepiece and regulator.
D. The UAC is for emergency use only when a member is low or out of air within an IDLH.
If the condition of the distressed member’s SCBA is in doubt use caution when providing air via
the high pressure system.

Question 16

Q

Once a member is distress is located and the proper radio transmissions have been made,
the member needs to be properly identified to ensure it is the member originally reported in
distress. Which point about identifying a member is incorrect? MMID Ch. 3, 10
A. If the member is unconscious, positioning him/her on their left side as this will provide
access to the member’s name on back of their bunker coat and the PRA ID number on the mask.
B. If the member is unconscious, depress the EAB of the member in distress if possible. The
activation of the distressed member’s EAB will identify them in EFAS. Notify the 1C via handie�talkie prior to EAB activation of the distressed member.
C. If the member is unconscious, and you are unable to activate the distressed member’s EAB,
key the mic on the distressed member’s handie-talkie to obtain their identity in EFAS.
D. To accurately identify the distressed member by the use of the Pak-Tracker and EFAS, it is
imperative that all members ensure that both the SCBA and the handie-talkie coincide with their
assigned position.

Question 17

Q

Members should be familiar with the proper packaging techniques and basic removal
methods so that in the event of a downed member, removal can be accomplished quickly and
efficiently. Which point about firefighter removal is not correct? MMID Ch. 3,
A. When an unconscious firefighter is found, it is more effective to attempt a quick removal of
the member rather than get involved in the slower work of packaging the firefighter.
B. If possible, position the member so that their back is facing toward the direction of removal
prior to starting the packaging process.
C. An operating member/unit that locates and starts the packaging process of the distressed
member will most likely will be fatigued and have a diminished air supply. Turning the operation
over to the dedicated FAST Unit upon their arrival will facilitate the timely removal of the
distressed member.
D. Packaging a conscious member is not always required for removal. In most situations,
packaging an unconscious member will be required for removal. The method used to package
the member will be determined by the type and the degree of difficulty involved in the removal.

Question 18

Q

Members of LI00 were conducting a drill in quarters which involved removing a downed
firefighter. In the scenario, the downed firefighter was located at the bottom of the basement
stairs and needs to be brought up and out of the basement. In order to make the drill more
realistic, Lt. Smith had one of his firefighters lie at the bottom of the stairs and act as the downed
/ unconscious firefighter. Lt. Smith told his firefighter to don all of his PPE and get a mask off
the rig to use in the drill. The firefighter returned in his gear and a mask from LI00 and the
members did the drill. After the drill the firefighter who was acting as the downed / unconscious
firefighter showed the proby how to repack the DRD since the members used it to assist in
carrying him up the stairs. Did the members follow FDNY procedure in conducting this drill?
MMID Ch. 2, Addendum 2, Ch. 3, Addendum 2
A. Agree or D. Disagree

Question 19

Q

BC Question - An Incident Commander (IC) must manage the emergency incident to
which they are assigned. The IC must develop strategies and tactics to stabilize and eventually
control the emergency. Which action(s) taken by the IC is/are not correct? (More than one
incorrect) MMID Ch. 4, 2.3, 3.2, 7.1, 7.2
A. The IC shall immediately notify the dispatcher when the FAST unit is being put to work
and request a replacement FAST unit. The IC shall also announce over the handie-talkie tactical
channel, that the FAST unit has been assigned to address the member in distress and all units
shall continue with their present assignment.
B. The IC shall announce the FAST unit’s arrival and identity over the handie-talkie at the
scene. On receipt of this announcement, the members performing the duties of the Safety Team
shall return to their original assignments.
C. When a mayday/urgent has been transmitted for a member in distress, the IC shall
immediately acknowledge the mayday/urgent transmission. Additionally, the identity of the
member transmitting the message should be verified by the member assigned to monitor EFAS.
D. The FAST unit shall not be returned to service prior to their arrival on the scene unless the
incident is placed “Under Control”
. The FAST unit shall not be used to provide relief for
operating units until the fire has been declared “Probably Will Hold”.

Question 20

Q

BC Question - BC Knowitall is working a day tour and is operating as the IC at a fire on
the 3
rd
floor of a 5 story MD. The fire was in apartment 3B and contained to the kitchen and
living room. BC Knowitall transmitted a 10-75 and shortly thereafter the all hands. After the
fire was knocked down and the primary searches were completed, the Officer from the 1
st due
truck calls BC Knowitall and asks for relief. BC Knowitall orders the FAST Unit to go ahead
and relieve the 1
st due truck and then calls for an additional truck to replace the FAST Unit. DC
Jones has now arrived on the scene and is very upset with BC Knowitall since he ordered the
FAST Unit to work prior to the fire being placed under control. In this situation which action
below must now be taken? MMID Ch. 4, 8.1
A. BC Knowitall must forward a report to the Chief of Department and notify the respective
Borough Commander or Command Chief immediately after the incident is “Under Control”
.
B. DC Jones must forward a report to the Chief of Operations and notify the respective
Borough Commander or Command Chief immediately after the incident is “Under Control”
.
C. BC Knowitall must forward a report to the Chief of Operations and DC Jones must notify
the respective Borough Commander or Command Chief immediately after the incident is “Under
Control”
.
D. BC Knowitall must forward a report to the Chief of Department and DC Jones must notify
the respective Borough Commander or Command Chief immediately after the incident is “Under
Control”

Question 21

Q

FF Harris, who is not the sharpest tool in the shed, was drilling with the two new probys
assigned to his company. FF Harris made the following three points:
Point 1: If the FAST Pak is not with you when you encounter a downed firefighter, await the
arrival of the FAST Pak before starting removal procedures.
Point 2: Once an unconscious member is supplied with air, turn the purge valve fully open to
allow a constant flow of air.
Point 3: Once clear of the IDLH environment, stop and assess the medical needs of the
distressed member. Address situations that are immediately life threatening.
Which points are not correct? MMID Ch. 3, 7.8, 7.9, 8.1
A. All are incorrect.
B. 1 and 2 are incorrect.
C. 2 and 3 are incorrect.
D. All are correct.
E. 1 and 3 are incorrect.

Question 22

Q

When a decision has been made to convert a downed member’s SCBA into a harness, it is
beneficial to move the firefighter to a sitting position providing we do not suspect any type of
spinal injury. Once in a sitting position, rotate the member, if possible, so that their back is
facing toward the direction of removal. All of the following are benefits of moving the
firefighter to a sitting position except for which one? MMID Add. 1, 2.1
A. It will be easier for SOC units to locate the Schrader fitting.
B. It will allow full control over the distressed member. This will help prevent members not
assigned to the removal process from moving the distressed member prior to the completion of
the packaging.
C. It reduces the member’s size in half, which will be beneficial in tight locations.
D. Allows easier access to the SCBA low pressure hose, facepiece, and both shoulder and
waist straps.

Question 23

Q

In order to implement HT channel 16 for a FAST Group, a communication plan must be
established. This plan will allow communications to continue on the fireground without
hampering fire operations and firefighter rescue operations. From the choices below please
indicate which members were not on the correct channels during a FAST Group operation.
MMID Ch. 5, Add. 1
A. FF Removal Officer (Rescue Battalion Chief) on Channel 16. - FF Removal Officer’s Aide
on Channel 1.
B. FF Locator Officer (Battalion Chief) on Channel 16. - FF Locator’s Officer’s Aide on
Channel I.
C. FAST Unit on Channel 16. - FF assigned the FAST Radio on Channel 1.
D. FAST Group Supervisor on Channel 2. - FAST Group Supervisor’s Aide on Channel 16.

Question 24

Q

BC Question - All hands with an extra Engine and Truck are working at a fire in a 1 story
100’ x 50’ taxpayer. BC Knowitall is in command and the all hands Chief, BC Wiggum, is
commanding operations inside the taxpayer. The Deputy is still enroute and has not yet arrived
on the scene. Things seem to be progressing well when all of a sudden the Can Firefighter from
the 1
st due Truck transmits a mayday and says that the drop ceiling collapsed and that he is
trapped. BC Knowitall immediately deploys the FAST Unit to assist the trapped firefighter. The
trapped firefighter tells BC Knowitall that he has
3A of a tank of air and that he is about 15’ from
the front door. The 1
st due Engine also calls command and tells BC Knowitall that they have
water on the fire and should have the fire knocked down shortly. Rescue 7, the FAST Unit, and
BC Wiggum are at the location of the trapped firefighter and are in the process of removing him.
The trapped firefighter has a laceration on his forehead from where the helmet dug into it when
the ceiling fell, other than that he is not injured. BC Wiggum calls BC Knowitall and tells him
that they should have the firefighter removed in about 3 minutes. BC Wiggum then asks BC
Knowitall “Did you transmit a 10-66?” BC Knowitall would be correct to answer BC Wiggum
how? MMIDCh. 5,1.2
A.
“I did not transmit a 10-66 because I don’t think it’s necessary in this situation”.
B.
“Yes I transmitted a 10-66 since the firefighter is trapped and this signal must be
transmitted when a member is trapped”.

Question 25

Q

During a recent day tour Lt. Levine, LI00, and his members were listening to the radio and
monitoring operations at a fire in a 2 !4 story private dwelling when they hear the IC transmit a
10-66 for a member who is lost. The dispatcher notifies the IC that the full 2
nd alarm has been
transmitted and the additional units on the 10-66 have also been dispatched. With that
transmission LI00 gets a ticket to respond and is assigned as the 2
nd due truck on the second
alarm. Which unit(s) listed below should report to and remain at the staging area until ordered to
the scene? (More than one correct). MMID Ch. 5, 3.3
A. LI 00, 2nd due truck on the 2nd alarm.
B. LI01, the additional FAST Unit.
C. E99, the CFR-D Engine.
D. E98, the 1st
due Engine on the 2nd alarm.
E. Rescue 7, the Rescue Co. that is part of the Rescue Task Force.

Question 26

Q

When a member(s) who were the subject of a 10-66 are located and removed to a safe area
we must follow certain procedures regarding the mayday and the 10-66 signal. Which choice
below is correct? MMID Ch. 5, 4.3, 4.4
A. When the distressed member is removed the Mayday should be cancelled and the 10-66
signal resolved.
B. When the distressed member is in a safe area and adequate resources are on the scene to
treat and remove the member, the Mayday should be cancelled and the 10-66 signal resolved.
C. When the distressed member is removed the Mayday should be resolved and the 10-66
signal cancelled.
D. When the distressed member is in a safe area and adequate resources are on the scene to
treat and remove the member, the Mayday should be resolved and the 10-66 signal cancelled.

Question 27

Q

The FAST Group should be under the direct supervision of a Chief Officer who has no
other duties and will be designated as the “FAST Group Supervisor”
. Any available chief on the
scene may be assigned to this position. The FAST Group Supervisor shall coordinate and
control all search, rescue, removal, and medical treatment of the affected member. If a Chief
Officer is not initially available to be the FAST Group Supervisor, which Officer(s) listed below
can fulfill this function until the arrival of a Chief Officer? (More than one correct.)
MMID Ch. 5, 2.2.3
A. The Officer of LI 00 who’s unit is standing fast awaiting an assignment.
B. The Officer of E99 who’s unit is standing fast awaiting an assignment.
C. The Officer of a Rescue Co. operating at the scene.
D. The Officer of a Squad Co. operating at the scene.
E. The Officer of L101 who’s unit is a SOC Support Ladder Co.

Question 28

Q

BC Question - A group of Captains studying for the BC test were discussing the managing
members in distress bulletin and made the following three points. Which point was not correct?
MMID Ch. 5, 2.4.1,
A. A Battalion Chief shall be designated as the Firefighter Locator Officer and shall
coordinate all efforts to establish the victim’s last seen point and assist the RUL in conducting a
roll call of units. Any Officer can fulfill this position until the arrival of a Chief Officer.
B. The IC shall announce on all handie-talkie channels in use that a rescue plan has been
implemented, and the identity of the units assigned to the FAST Group. This action will reassure
the affected member that assistance is on the way and will also help to discourage freelancing of
members not assigned to the FAST Group.
C. Upon arrival, the Rescue Operations Battalion will assume the duties of Firefighter
Removal Officer, supervising all extrication efforts. The Firefighter Removal Officer shall work
in conjunction with the FAST Group Supervisor.

Question 29

Q

BC Question - Making the proper notifications when a member is missing, lost, trapped, or
seriously injured can be critical to the member’s survival. Which point about the 10-66 signal is
not correct? MMID Ch. 5, Section 7
A. The signal 10-66 can be used on the company handie-talkie to replace a Mayday
transmission.
B. The signal 10-66 shall be transmitted to the dispatcher via Department radio, once it has
been verified that a member is missing, lost, trapped or seriously injured, and additional
resources are required to locate and/or rescue the member.
C. After the transmission of a 10-66, a full description of the incident shall be transmitted to
the dispatcher via Department radio e.g., “one member trapped on the fire floor”
.
D. The IC shall use a cell phone to keep FDOC advised, in addition to using the Department
radio for progress reports.

Question 30

Q

BC Question - It is important for members transmitting information to the dispatcher to
follow certain procedures to protect the identity of members who may be injured or in other
serious situations. Which point below is incorrect regarding these transmissions to the
dispatcher? MMID Ch. 5, 7.2, 7.3, Communications Manual Ch. 8, 8.2.5, 8.2.6
A. The name or unit number of a member with a minor injury may be transmitted over the
Department radio after requesting a mixer off message.
B. The signal 10-66 shall only be transmitted via Department radio, by or at the direction of
the IC. The signal 10-66 shall be transmitted as a mixer off message and the initial 10-66
notification shall include the name and the unit number of the affected member.
C. The initial notification of a fatality or serious injury to an on-duty member shall be made to
the dispatcher via a mixer off message and shall not include the name or unit number of the
fatally or seriously injured member.
D. Once the signal 10-66 has been transmitted, all additional notifications regarding affected
member(s) shall be made to the dispatcher via a mixer off message.

Question 31

Q

BC Question - A more difficult situation exists when the identity and/or location of the
missing member(s) cannot be determined such as when there is a collapse. In this situation an
immediate roll call of units shall be conducted. Sector Supervisors, if appropriate, can conduct
the roll call in their own sectors. When conducting an emergency roll call in a situation such as a
collapse the roll call shall? MMID Ch. 5, 5.1
A. Start with the first units to arrive on the scene.
B. Can be started however the IC deems appropriate.
C. Start with the last units to arrive on the scene.
D. Start with units in the most severely exposed positions.

Question 32

Q

BC Question - The IC must assign a Street Coordinator Manager when the signal 10-66 is
transmitted. The early assignment of a Street Coordinator Manager will prevent needless
congestion and repositioning of apparatus as an incident escalates. This Street Coordinator
Manager shall be responsible for establishing contact with PD and EMS Officers to ensure traffic
flow, ensuring access/egress of other essential vehicles, and positioning needed apparatus for the
most efficient use to name a few. From the choices listed below who can staff the Street
Coordinator Manager position? MMID Ch. 5, 6.1
A. Only a Chief Officer.
B. Only a Company Officer.
C. A Chief or a Company Officer.
D. This is a Police Officers duty.

Question 33

Q

The Incident Command System will improve safety by providing better accountability of
personnel and improved use of resources and tactical effectiveness. ICS breaks down the
elements that are required to successfully manage an incident into five main functions. From the
choices below which is not one of the five main functions? ICS Ch. 1,1.4
A. Command
B. Finance
C. Safety
D. Operations
E. Logistics

Question 34

Q

BC Question - A Captain studying for the Battalion Chiefs test should know that if he is
assigned as the resource unit leader at a large operation where the Incident Command System has
been set up, he would be correct to report to which Chief listed below? 4.2
A. The Planning Section Chief.
B. The Operations Section Chief.
C. The Incident Commander.
D. The Logistics Section Chief.

Question 35

Q

The Incident Commander has the option of implementing a Command Staff when the
Incident Command System is established. Which Officer listed below is not part of the IC’s
Command Staff? 4.1.7
A. The Safety Officer.
B. The Public Information Officer.
C. The Operations Section Chief.
D. The Liaison Officer.

Question 36

Q

Safety and sound management practices dictate that a reasonable span of control exists.
The organizational options within the ICS are designed to provide span of control ratios that
meet these requirements. Which point is correct regarding the “span of control”? ICS 3.2
A. In general the span of control of any individual with management responsibility should, in
all situations, range from three to seven with five being ideal.
B. In general the span of control of any individual with management responsibility should
range from three to seven with five being ideal.
C. In general the span of control of any individual with management responsibility should, in
all situations, range from five to nine with seven being ideal.
D. In general the span of control of any individual with management responsibility should
range from five to nine with seven being ideal.

Question 37

Q

During a class at FLSTP, new Lieutenants were receiving a class on the Incident Command
System. Which point made by the instructor was not entirely correct? ICS Ch. 1,2.1,
2.2, 2.3, 3.1.1
A. The Incident Command System provides for the following kinds of operations: single
jurisdiction and single agency, single jurisdiction and multi-agency, and multi-jurisdiction and
multi-agency involvement.
B. The ICS provides basic elements in organization, standard terminology, and procedures
that ensure efficient operations by trained personnel. It can be implemented with a minimum of
disruption to existing procedures and provides the means for adding or subtracting resources.
C. If any function is not delegated, it remains the responsibility of the Incident Commander(s).
The use of common terminology ensures that all members are able to communicate effectively.
D. The Incident Command System organizational structure is capable of adapting to any type
of large incident to which the Department responds. The ICS is not suitable for small incidents
and should not be used in those situations.

Question 38

Q

To maintain a manageable span of control, improve communication, and improve control
and coordination single resources may be combined into sectors and groups. Which is they only
point about sectors and groups that is correct? 4.3.1
A. A sector defines the activities and operations of resources within an assigned geographical
area. For example, the IC might form a sector from units operating in an exposure. A Sector
Supervisor manages a sector.
B. A group consists of resources formed to address specific functional tasks. For example, the
IC forms a group to search specific floors of a high rise building. A Group Director manages a
group.
C. While groups are restricted to a specific geographical area such as an exposure, sectors may
cross established boundaries to accomplish an assigned functional task (e.g., search).
D. When a group is assigned a task or function that overlaps sector boundaries, the sector is
still responsible for the task or function. Groups and sectors coordinate their efforts and report to
the next higher level of command.

Question 39

Q

The Officer or Chief in charge of a team, sector, group, branch etc. will have a specific
designation. From the choices below, which designation is not correctly listed? 4.3.1,
4.3.2
A. A group supervisor manages a group.
B. A team leader supervises a team.
C. A task force leader supervisors a task force.
D. A branch director manages a branch.
E. A strike team supervisor supervises a strike team.

Question 40

Q

During a drill members were discussing the Incident Command System and made the
following four random points. Which point listed below is not correct? 3.5.1, 3.5.2,
3.8.3, 4.3.3
A. Under unified command, each department and/or agency will maintain control over its own
personnel. This enables all involved agencies to perform their roles effectively, minimize
inefficiency, and avoid duplication of effort.
B. The goal of a unified command is to develop a single collective approach to managing an
incident. The departments act as one organization and are managed as such. Each agency
however, will have its own command post and can operate independently if necessary.
C. All resources at the incident are assigned a status. In ICS, once resources are allocated to
an incident, they are assigned to one of three status conditions: Available - ready for immediate
assignment, assigned - performing an active assignment and out of service/R&R - not ready for
assignment.
D. Initially, the IC can manage the staging area. If the position of Operations is staffed,
staging reports to Operations since this Chief now is managing the tactical part of the Incident
Action Plan. The Operations Section allocates the available resources from a defined staging
area.

Question 41

Q

Members of E99 have just arrived at a nursing home for a report of a person in cardiac
arrest in room 2B. Upon arrival the firefighters find a 95 year old man in cardiac arrest and as
soon as the nursing home staff sees the firefighters they quickly disappear. Members of E99
immediately start CPR and follow all FDNY procedures. After a few minutes a nursing home
employee hands Lt. Hernandez a DNR order and tells Lt. Hernandez that this patient just moved
into this nursing home last week. The DNR order Lt. Hernandez is looking at was written by the
last nursing home that this patient lived in, it has a valid date (not expired), has a physician’s
signature, and is on the old nursing homes DNR form. In this situation Lt. Hernandez would be
correct to give which order? CFRD Ch.2, Add. 1
A. Order his members to discontinue CPR since the DNR has a current date and is on the old
Nursing homes DNR form.
B. Order his members to continue CPR because once CPR is started it can’t be discontinued
for any reason.
C. Order his members to continue CPR since the DNR is not considered valid in this situation.
D. Order his members to discontinue CPR since valid DNR orders can never be revoked.

Question 42

Q

Later on during the same tour E99 responds to another report of a female patient in cardiac
arrest. Upon arrival members of E99 find a female in cardiac arrest on the 1
st
floor of a private
dwelling. As members start to assess the patient, the patient’s daughter presents them with a
valid out of hospital New York State DNR form which has a current date and is signed by the
family physician. Members review the DNR a find it to be valid and do not start CPR. The
patient’s daughter says that she wants the members to honor the DNR but the patient’s son says
that he wants the members to do CPR. The brother is starting to get agitated and is yelling at the
members to start CPR. In this situation members would be correct to take which action?
CFRD Ch.2 , Add 1
A. Since a confrontation appears likely members should begin CPR.
B. Since the DNR is valid do not start CPR and call the police to deal with the patient’s son.

Question 43

Q

Listed below are different legal documents that units may encounter in the field. Which of
the following legal documents is/are recognized in the pre hospital environment?
CFRD Ch. 2, Add 1, Section 3
A. A Health Care Proxy.
B. A Medical Order for Life Sustaining Treatment that contains a valid DNR Order.
C. A Living Will.
D. A Power of Attorney document.

Question 44

Q

The role of the Certified First Responder-Defibrillation (CFR-D) provider is to be the first
tier of the EMS system and to provide the initial assessment and resuscitative care until BLS or
ALS arrives. Which point below is correct? CFRD Ch. 2, 1.7, 1.8,
A. Company Officers of CFR-D Units shall ensure that two (2) CFR-D Firefighters will be
working each tour. Officers shall notify their respective Battalion for needed details prior to the
start of the tour.
B. In order to be in service as a CFR-D Unit, there shall be a minimum of two (2) trained
members (Firefighters only) with current CFR-D Certification.
C. While CFR-D Units must begin each tour with two (2) certified Firefighters, in the event
that during a tour the minimum CFR-D staffing reduces to 1 Firefighter and 1 Officer, the
Company shall be out of service for CFR-D responses.
D. Without two CFR-D certified members, the Company shall not respond to any type of
CFR-D call. If a call is received directly from the public to assist civilians, the OOS unit will
notify the dispatcher to assign a properly staffed unit.

Question 45

Q

During roll call in E99, Lt. Johnson was giving out the riding assignments along with the
CFR-D assignments. In which choice below did Lt. Johnson give out an incorrect CFR-D
assignment? CFRD Ch. 2, 2.1
A. FF. Levine was assigned as the airway firefighter and is responsible for manually
stabilizing the patient’s spine if trauma is suspected. FF Levine will open and maintain the
airway, administer oxygen if needed, and should carry the oxygen bag.
B. FF. Cruz was assigned as the checker and is responsible for conducting patient assessment
and performing any hands-on care. In response to a cardiac arrest, FF Cruz will check for a
pulse, begin compressions, and shall carry the trauma bag.
C. Since E99 is staffed with 5 firefighters, FF Wright was assigned as the equipment FF and
should initially remain with the apparatus to help carry any additional equipment that may be
needed.
D. Lt. Johnson said that he will be assigned as the boss and will carry a flashlight and a handie
talkie. Lt. Johnson will also complete the PCR to properly document patient care.

Question 46

Q

After operating at CFR-D runs members must ensure that they have the proper supplies and
equipment in order to be prepared for the next CFR-D run. Additionally members must take the
appropriate steps if decontamination is needed. An Engine Co. would be out of service for both
fire duty and CFR-D responses in all of the following situations except which one?
CFR-D Ch. 2,3.16.1,3.16.2
A. FF Smith, who was wearing his bunker pants only, realized he had some blood from a
patient on his arm. FF Smith had to decontaminate himself.
B. FF Jones, who was wearing his bunker gear, was performing CPR on a patient in cardiac
arrest and was kneeling in vomit in order to perform chest compressions.
C. FF Murphy was operating at the scene of a patient who was hit by a car and accidentally
placed the trauma bag on the ground which was covered in blood contaminating the bag.
D. E99 did CPR on a patient in cardiac arrest and used their defibrillator. After the patient
was transported members realized that they did not have any more defibrillator pads available
and the battery on the defibrillator was very low.

Question 47

Q

Members of LI00 are very interested CFR-D program and were drilling on the topic.
During the drill members made the following four points and were incorrect in which one listed
below? CFRD Ch. 2, 3.9.1, 3.10.1. 3.11, 3.12, 3.13
A. When requesting an ambulance, Companies must provide the following information to the
dispatcher: CUPS status, age, chief complaint, if CPR is initiated, and pulse and respiratory rate.
B. If a patient is CRITICAL or UNSTABLE, packaging efforts must begin immediately while
treating life threats. If a patient is POTENTIALLY UNSTABLE or STABLE, perform the
appropriate focused physical exam for the patient.
C. A PCR is required whenever a CFR-D Company is on-scene (10-84) at any CFR-D
assignment whether or not patient care is provided. This serves to document the Companies
actions.
D. Individuals may identify themselves as patients or may be identified to the Company as
such by family, friends or bystanders. An individual is considered a patient if the individual is
sick or injured, or the individual was exposed to a situation or condition that could have the
potential to cause injury.

Question 48

Q

During a recent day tour E99 had two runs; please indicate in which choice below did E99
take a correct action? CFRD Ch. 2, 3.18. Communications Ch.6, 6.5.2
Run 1: This was a run for a report of a male patient having a heart attack. As E99 was
responding they were flagged down at an intersection for a person who fell while
crossing the street. E99 located the patient who appeared to have a broken arm.
Members of E99 began patient care, notified the dispatcher that they were flagged
down for a verbal, and that they were going to stay on the scene and treat the patient.
E99 remained on the scene until FDNY EMTs arrived and took over patient care. The
dispatcher sent another CFRD Engine to the original run.
Run 2: E99 was responding to a fire in a private dwelling and while enroute came across a
small rubbish fire in a vacant lot. Lt. Kay then told his members that they had to stop to
extinguish this fire in this situation.
A. E99 was correct in both situations above.
B. E99 was correct on Run 1 only.
C. E99 was correct on Run 2 only.
D. E99 was incorrect on both Runs.

Question 49

Q

Monitor Street. Upon arrival members of E238 do not see anybody at all in front of 224 Monitor
Street. The Officer from E238 would be correct to take all but which of the following actions?
CFRD Ch. 2, 4.7
A. Members of E238 looked around the area in front the address, including inside the fenced
in area in front of the address, and also the adjoining areas.
B. After a complete search of the area, the Officer from E238 reviewed the response printout
for additional information as to incident location, cross street, dwelling or unit number, and any
other pertinent information provided in the comment section of the response ticket.
C. After rechecking the information provided, no patient was found so the Officer of E238
verified the information with the dispatcher and asked for a 10-7.
D. After the dispatcher told E238 that they had nothing further, members of E238 asked two
people who were passing by if they knew the location of the patient. After the passerby’s said
they didn’t know where the patient was the Officer transmitted a 10-91 and put E238 10-8.

Question 50

Q

Members of the NYPD Emergency Service Unit are trained as EMT’s or Paramedics and
are therefore a higher level of medical authority than CFR-D Units. Please indicate which choice
below is not correct when dealing with ESU. CFR-D Ch. 2, 4.13
A. If the NYPD ESU EMTs arrive on the scene and assume the role of the higher level pre�hospital care provider and assume responsibility for patient care, the Company shall release the
patient to ESU in all situations.
B. If a CFR-D Unit arrives on the scene of a medical emergency and the NYPD Emergency
Service Unit has already initiated patient care, then the ESU EMTs retain responsibility for
patient care.
C. If the NYPD ESU has already initiated patient care the Officer of the CFR-D Unit shall
ascertain from ESU if any further assistance is required from the CFR-D Unit. If no assistance is
required, the Officer shall transmit signal 10-91 and go 10-8.
D. If the ESU EMT’s ask the CFR-D unit for assistance, the ESU EMTs shall have medical
authority at the scene until the arrival of an ambulance. In this situation a PCR is required to be
completed by the CFRD Unit.

Question 51

Q

Members of E99 are operating at a CFR-D run in a restaurant where a patient was choking
and is now in cardiac arrest. EMS has not yet arrived on the scene when a civilian approaches
the members of E99 and says that he is a medical doctor and wants to take over patient care. The
officer and members of E99 should follow all but which procedure below? CFRD Ch. 2,
4.12
A. The Officer of E99 asked the doctor to produce proper identification.
B. E99 accepted the doctor’s assistance, immediately notified the dispatcher that a doctor was
on the scene, and asked that EMS be notified.
C. The Officer told his members to perform within their scope of practice but to follow any
order given by the doctor.
D. The Officer of E99 asked the doctor for his 6 digit New York State license number so he
could document it on the PCR.

Question 52

Q

In the event that a CFR-D Unit needs medical advice during a CFR-D response, the Unit
may telephone the FDNY/EMS telemetry physician if a telephone is available. Before calling
telemetry the Unit shall have completed the primary survey, C.U.P.S. status determination, and
should identify themselves as a CFR-D unit. Members who are CFR-D trained would know that
the phone number for the FDNY EMS telemetry physician can be found where?
CFRD Ch. 2, 5.3
A. Posted on the Officers side dashboard in the apparatus.
B. Posted on a laminated card carried in the trauma bag.
C. Posted on a laminated card carried in the defib bag.
D. Posted on the chart holding the unit’s PCR forms.

Question 53

Q

Members of E99 were discussing CFR-D operations when minors are sick, injured, or
when child abuse is suspected. Which point made during this discussion was not entirely
correct? 6.1
A. When a CFR-D Unit suspects child abuse, the circumstances of the suspected abuse shall
be reported to EMS at the scene. The Officer shall make an entry in the company journal upon
return to quarters including the names and unit ID of those notified.
B. If a minor is suffering from an illness or injury that is non-urgent in nature, treatment
should still be provided unless the parent or guardian refuses to allow this treatment.
C. Where a minor is found to be suffering from a life-threatening illness or injury, immediate
medical intervention must be provided unless the parent/guardian refuses to give consent.
D. If a parent or guardian will not allow treatment to be rendered, members should carefully
explain the reason(s) for the treatment, what intervention is necessary to correct the problem and
the consequences if the injury/illness is not treated.

Question 54

Q

E99 and L100 have just arrived at the scene of a serious two car accident where two people
are pinned in their cars. Captain Smith is working in E99 and Lt. Baker is working in LI00.
EMS paramedics have just arrived on the scene along with an EMS Deputy Chief who is an
EMT. Please choose the correct point below. CFR-D Ch. 2, 8.2
A. The EMS Deputy Chief is the overall Incident Commander and is responsible for all
decisions including patient care decisions.
B. The EMS Paramedics are in charge of all patient care decisions and Capt. Smith is the
overall Incident Commander.
C. Capt. Smith is the overall Incident Commander and is in charge of all decisions including
patient care decisions.
D. The EMS Paramedics are in charge of all patient care decisions and the EMS Deputy Chief
is the overall Incident Commander.

Question 55

Q

A glow stick is a single-use translucent plastic tube containing isolated substances which
when combined produce light through a chemical reaction-induced chemiluminescence. Which
point below is the only correct one regarding glow sticks? TB Tools 30
A. Glow sticks are water resistant, do not use batteries, generate a small amount of heat, and
can tolerate low pressures such as those found underwater.
B. Glow sticks can be carried in any compartment on the apparatus and should be kept in their
original packaging away from direct sunlight. Heat and humidity will not affect their life span.
C. Glow sticks have been issued to all units. Each unit shall carry at least 10 glow1. A glow stick is a single-use translucent plastic tube containing isolated substances which
when combined produce light through a chemical reaction-induced chemiluminescence. Which
point below is the only correct one regarding glow sticks? TB Tools 30
A. Glow sticks are water resistant, do not use batteries, generate a small amount of heat, and
can tolerate low pressures such as those found underwater.
B. Glow sticks can be carried in any compartment on the apparatus and should be kept in their
original packaging away from direct sunlight. Heat and humidity will not affect their life span.
C. Glow sticks have been issued to all units. Each unit shall carry at least 10 glow sticks on
their apparatus. Glow sticks will provide up to 12 hours of illumination.
D. Glow sticks are activated by shaking the tube which mixes the internal chemicals. The
glow stick should be shaken until it glows evenly.

Question 56

Q

Listed below are six points about the cordless rebar cutter. Please indicate which two
points are incorrect? TB Tools 28
A. The rebar cutter can be used to cut wrought iron fences up to 1 inch in diameter. The rebar
cutter can be used to cut case hardened steel rods or locks.
B. The rebar cutter is safe to use in an explosive atmosphere, e.g. flammable liquids, gases, or
dusts. This tool does not create sparks.
C. Caution must be exercised when cutting an object with a free unsupported end. To avoid
injury, material being cut should be secured.
D. Do not point the cutting head towards any person when operating. Cut pieces of metal can
fly off with tremendous force.
E. Do not replenish hydraulic oil when the tool is warm. Before each operation, verify that
the cutting blades are sharp and securely tightened.
F. Do not overreach, do not hold the work (bar) by hand or against your body, and do not
force the tool. Use the correct tool for the application at hand.

Question 57

Q

Positive pressure fans can be used to pressurize the attack and evacuation stairs in FPMD’s,
to ventilate a building with high CO readings, and to ventilate large structures or areas of smoke
and gases. Which point about the positive pressure fans is not correct? TB Tools 32
A. The PPV fans should never be transported while in operation. If the fan needs to be moved
it shall be shut down before transportation.
B. PPV fans shall never be refueled inside a structure. If the fan needs to be refueled at an
extended operation, the fan shall be shut down and moved to an outside area remote from any
foot traffic to be refueled.
C. PPV fans shall be inspected daily at the start of the 9x6 tour. At MUD, fans shall be started
and allowed to run at full RPM for 5 minutes. A visual inspection of the fan belt and tightness
check should be conducted prior to starting the fan.
D. When running fans at an incident, exhaust hoses should, if possible be attached to the
operating fan in order to limit and control the introduction of CO inside the structure. Stairwell
pressurization shall not be initiated until authorized by the Officer of the Vent Support Unit.

Question 58

Q

Listed below are the six components of the sound powered telephone system. Please
indicate which one is not described correctly. TB Tools 31
A. A headset consists of a microphone and two ear cups which are connected by a strap and
has a male connector. Headsets have less interference and background noise then handsets.
B. A handset resembles and functions like a standard telephone handset and has a male
connector.
C. The wire reel consists of a 400 foot-long wire wound around the reel inside a plastic case,
with a 3 foot-long fixed wire coming out of the side of the reel. Both ends of the wire reel have
female connectors.
D. The jumper cord is a small wire with two male connectors. A jumper cord is used between
two female connectors.
E. AY connector is a short section that is used to split the sound powered telephone system to
allow additional communication points. The Y connector has one male and two female
connections.
F. Amplifiers increase the volume of verbal transmissions and are required to be used when
using the sound powered phones. The talk level knob that controls the volume shall be placed in
the middle setting when in use.

Question 59

Q

During MUD on a Saturday morning members were drilling with the sound powered
phones and set up the phones to enhance the drill. Members made the following four points
about the use of the sound powered phones and were incorrect in which point? TB Tools 31
A. Specific members shall be dedicated to maintain the SPT communications link. Each shall
be paired with another member who monitors HT communications.
B. Similar to conventional telephones, sound powered phones emit a ringing or buzzing sound
when communications are initiated. A member must constantly listen for the ringing or buzzer
sound.
C. When transmitting messages, speak loudly and clearly, keeping the mouthpiece close to
your face. As with HT transmissions, use the term “K” to indicate the end of your transmission.
D. A member using a headset in a standby position (awaiting a transmission) should cover the
mouthpiece with his or her hand. This will reduce the background noise which might be
transmitted through the wire.

Question 60

Q

Lt. Carter is in charge of the subway unit at the Rock and was teaching a class about sound
powered telephones to the new probies. The probies should correct Lt. Carter in which point
listed below? TB Tools 31
A. NYCT has installed two types of hard-wired SPT systems: Street to Station and Street to
Tunnel. There is usually no connection from one SPT system to another e.g., from an under
river tunnel system to a nearby station. All SPT connectors within the NYCT are located in
locked metal boxes that are adjacent to standpipe Siamese or outlets. Boxes containing SPT
jacks require a 1620 key to open.
B. SPT on the platform or mezzanine level are located in red metal boxes inside the stainless
steel standpipe cabinets. Standpipe cabinets are identified by a sign located above the standpipe
outlet, showing a white hose on a red background. Combination standpipe/SPT boxes may be
located on columns or on a station wall. If there is no SPT outlet located in the standpipe outlet
box, look in the surrounding area for a small individual cabinet.
C. Street to Tunnel SPT systems usually include a specific pair of tubes. For example,
members in the Brooklyn-bound Clark Street tubes could speak to others in the Manhattan�bound Clark Street tube and the can speak to members operating in a completely different tunnel
or tube. SPT connector are typically located inside the emergency exits on both sides of the
under river tubes. In the under river tubes, SPT connectors are found at standpipe outlets;
approximately 600 feet apart.

Question 61

Q

A group of Lieutenants are in the middle of an 8 hour study group session and are
discussing the duties and responsibilities of company commanders. Which duty and
responsibility listed below is not correct? Regulations Ch. 13, 13.2
A. Engine companies shall carry not less than three lengths of 2 1/2” and not less than four
lengths of 1 3/4” hose (one of the 1 %” lengths must have a nozzle attached). Ladder companies
shall carry not less than three lengths of 1 3/4” hose (rolled or folded) and the necessary fittings
to place a line in operation.
B. A current inventory of hose shall be maintained in the office record journal recording size,
kind, registered number, manufacturer, year of issue, and disposition.
C. Company commanders shall arrange, on each Saturday on the 9x6 tour, for the operation of
all motors and pumps of special unit apparatus stored in quarters and shall cause a thorough
weekly inspection of aerial, tower, and portable ladders.
D. Doors or windows of apparatus shall not be removed without written permission from the
officer in command of Fleet Services. Additionally, Company commanders shall make sure that
studs on wheels of apparatus are not painted.

Question 62

Q

The Officer on duty is responsible for the movements of the apparatus during his/her tour.
Listed below are four instances during a day tour in E99 where the apparatus left quarters. In
which choice did the Officer of E99 not follow FDNY procedures? Regulation Ch. 13, 13.3
A. E99 left quarters each time they received a run and once when they were special called to a
10-77.
B. E99 left quarters to conduct building inspections and then again after lunch to check
hydrants.
C. E99 went out after roll call so that they could train a new Engine Company Chauffer.
D. E99 left quarters to procure the meal. They stayed within their 1
st alarm response area and
completed this within 60 minutes.

Question 63

Q

During a day tour in E99, Lt. Sharp took the following actions and was only correct in
which one? Regulations Ch. 13, 13.3
A. E99 was responding to a call for wires down when the ECC noticed that a cross link of the
snow chain was broken. Lt. Sharp ordered the ECC to stop and remove the broken link.
B. After the 0900 roll call Lt. Sharp supervised the inspection of each mask carried on E99.
He also took a mark in the company journal with the results of the inspection.
C. When the ECC told Lt. Smith that the air horn was not working Lt. Sharp placed E99 OOS
since both the air horn and the electronic siren are required for a unit to be in service.
D. Just after lunch one of the firefighters son asked Lt. Smith is his son, who stopped by to
visit, can take in a few runs. Lt. Smith said yes as long as he wears his seat belt.

Question 64

Q

Company officers shall collect house assessments (house tax) from members and such tax
shall be paid bi-weekly. Which member listed below is not required to pay house assessments
(house tax)? Regulations Ch. 15, 15.1.15,
A. FF Wright is light duty and is assigned to a RAC Unit and does the ABCD schedule.
B. FF Gooden who has been on ML for 30 days and is expected to be on ML for another 10
days.
C. FF Hernandez who is on his terminal leaves and is getting ready to retire.
D. FF Cohen who is on military leave for 2 weeks in a row.

Answer 1

A

MMID (Managing Members In Distress)
• When a fire progresses past the incipient stage, the fire area must be considered an IDLH
atmosphere. Every member entering the IDLH atmosphere must be equipped with personal
protective equipment and a self-contained breathing apparatus. No member shall enter,
leave, or operate in an IDLH atmosphere unless the member teams-up with at least one other
member and remains within visual or voice contact with that member.
• Handie-talkies or other electronic devices communication devices are not acceptable to
replace visual or voice contact. At least one of the members of the team within the IDLH
must have a handie-talkie and must be able to contact a handie-talkie-equipped member of
the Safety Team outside of the IDLH atmosphere.
• If a known life hazard is discovered and immediate action could prevent the loss of life,
appropriate action (rescue activity) may be taken by an individual member. This applies only
for a known life hazard, not for standard search and rescue activity.
• A known life hazard is a s follows: A victim can be seen by the rescuer, a victim can be
heard by the rescuer, or a member has information from a credible source or a person at the
scene indicating the location of the life hazard.
• In all incidents of such individual action, the Incident Commander shall forward a report
detailing the full particulars to the Chief of Operations. A thorough review of each of
these incidents will be conducted.

Answer 2

A

MMID (Managing Members In Distress) (conf)
• The FAST Unit shall remain intact and not split up when dealing with large commercial or
complex buildings.
FAST UNIT TOOLS:
In addition to normally assigned ladder company tools, the FAST Unit shall report to the ICP
with the following equipment:
• FAST Pak
• Search Rope
• Stokes Basket with long backboard
• 2:1 Rope
• Pak-Tracker
As part of the size-up, determine what other tools/equipment may be needed for the various
rescue possibilities such as:
• Rebar cutter
• Life Saving Rope/Life Belt
• Saws
• Elevator keys for buildings with elevators
• Flotation devices for operations on or near bodies of water
When a Mayday/Urgent has been transmitted for a member in distress, the Incident Commander
shall:
• Prior to acknowledging the Mayday/Urgent transmission, pause momentarily to obtain the
transmitting member’s Internal Radio Identification Code, which may be obtained from
either the Battalion HT or FAST Radio.

Answer 3

A

REBAR CUTTERS TOOLS 28
• This cutting tool is being distributed to all Ladder, Squad, and Rescue companies as another
option for removing window and door gates. It can also be used to cut wrought iron fences up
to 5/8” in diameter. It is not to be used to cut case hardened steel rods or locks.
• DO NOT operate this tool in an explosive atmosphere, e.g. flammable liquids, gases or dusts.
This tool creates sparks, which may ignite the dust or fumes.
• DO NOT overreach. Keep proper footing and balance at all times. This allow for better
control of the tool in unexpected situations.
• DO NOT hold the work (bar) by hand or against your body. This is unstable and may lead to
loss of control.DO NOT force the tool. Use the correct tool for the application at hand.
• DO NOT point the cutting head towards any person when operating. The cut pieces of metal
can fly off with tremendous force.
• When working above grade level, confirm that there is no one operating below you.
• DO NOT replenish hydraulic oil when the tool is warm. Avoid skin contact, eye contact,
inhalation or ingestion of the oil.

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