WEEK 7 DIDOMENICO Flashcards

Question 1

Q

The FDNY Workplace Violence Prevention Policy is designed to prevent and minimize
instances of violence in the workplace. It also encourages employees to report all instances ot
physical violence, attempted assaults, and threats reasonably perceived to result in physical
violence. Regarding this policy, which of the following item(s) are prohibited in the workplace?
(Indicate all of the prohibited choices) (PAID 1-11—7.1.4)
A. A firearm that a member has a license for that is kept in his locker
B. A club or bat in a Department Messenger Van kept there solely for personal protection
C. Explosive devices kept in the rear of the firehouse for an upcoming barbecue
D. Switchblades or knives kept at the housewatch desk in case of a terrorist attack

Question 2

Q

An employee who has secured an Order of Protection and is concerned that the person from
whom protection has been sought may attempt to contact the employee at his / her work location
should submit a copy of such order to? (PAID 1-11—9.1,9.2)
A. Bureau of Investigation and Trials C. FDNY Legal Division
B. Bureau of Fire Investigation D. Their Commanding Officer

Question 3

Q

A Workplace Violence Report (WPV-1) should be submitted in which of the following
situations? (PAID 1-11—10)
Circumstances which present a potential for workplace violence—this report submit should
be submitted to the immediate supervisor
An actual incident of workplace violence—the report may be submitted by the victim or a
witness to the reporting employee’s supervisor
Imminent danger—may be reported verbally and then documented in a report to the
supervisor

Question 4

Q

In regards to forwarding a Workplace Violence Report (WPV-1) to the Workplace
Violence Prevention Coordinator, it would be correct to state that? (PAID 1-11 —
10.4, 10.5, 11.1.1)
A. A Supervisor receiving a WPV-1 or a verbal report from an employee should never
forward it through the chain of command
B. Employees may not under any circumstances submit the WPV-1 report directly to the
Workplace Violence Prevention Coordinator as it must go through the chain of command.
C. Employees may submit the WPV-1 report directly to the Workplace Violence Prevention
Coordinator only when circumstances create EEO concerns.
D. A Supervisor receiving a WPV-1 or a verbal report from an employee shall ensure it is
forwarded via the chain of command on an expedited basis

Question 5

Q

You are an Officer working on a 9 x 6 tour where you determine there is a potential for
workplace violence between members on duty. In this situation you would be correct to think
that in consultation with the chain of command you may take all of the following actions except?
(PAID 1-11—11.2.1)
A. Take any measure within your authority to correct a potential for workplace violence or
respond to an incident
B. Permanently re-assign personnel
C. Refer personnel for discipline
D. Contact law enforcement authorities

Question 6

Q

A workplace violence incident occurs on a 6 x 9 tour in Engine 99 as one member
physically assaults another member. In this situation, members should know that this action is?
(PAID 1-11, 15.1.6)
A. A crime and should be reported only to 911
B. Not a crime and should be reported only to BITS
C. A crime and should be reported only to BFI
D. A crime and should be reported to 911, and then BFI should receive a secondary
notification

Question 7

Q

Regarding the definition of hazing and bullying, it would be incorrect to state that?
(PAID 1-13—2.1,2.2,2.4,2.5)
A. Hazing includes, but is not limited to, any form of initiation or rite of passage into an
employee group, unit or work location that has the potential for or causes physical injury, mental
harm or personal humiliation
B. Bullying is conduct that can be humiliating, intimidating, demeaning or cruel to a colleague
in order to exclude or reject another member from the team
C. Hazing I Bullying may occur between piers, from superiors to subordinates, or by junior
personnel toward those more senior in rank
D. Hazing I Bullying cannot be claimed under any circumstances for routine authorized
activities like committee work or training.

Question 8

Q

An employee who has been hazed or bullied may report it?
Through the chain of command by notifying their supervisor
Through the chain of command by notifying their supervisor and additionally report it to
either BITS or EEO
Directly to BITS or EEO, only if the member provides their name and contact information
A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 1,2,3

Question 9

Q

Once a supervisor or officer is informed or made aware ot any incidents or allegations of
hazing or bullying, they shall report it in writing through the chain of command to the?
(PAID 1 -13 —4.4)
A. Chief of Operations
B. Chief of Department
C. Fire Commissioner
D. Bureau of Investigations and Trials

Question 10

Q

Members of Engine 99 and Ladder 98 want to create and maintain a social media site for
their firehouse. They should be aware that they need to request authorization for this site by
submitting a Social Media Registration Form to the? (PAID 2-13—4.1.2)
A. Office of Public Information
B. NYC Department of Information Technology and Telecommunications
C. Chief of Department
D. Fire Commissioner

Question 11

Q

Which one of the following would be an appropriate use of social media as per the FDNY
Social Media Policy? (PAID 2-13—5.2.5, 5.2.6, 5.2.7)
A. A member posts a photo of himself wearing his uniform at his promotion party at
McSorleys Old Ale House in Manhattan
B. A member posts a photo of herself wearing her uniform at the Medal Day Ceremony
C. A member posts a photo that she took with her cell phone of the fire conditions on arrival
of her first good nozzle job
D. A member becomes Facebook friends with a woman he rescued at a 2 alarm fire

Question 12

Q

Ladder 28 arrives first at a fire in a 4-story OLT that has 4 windows per floor. Regarding
their sizeup of the number of apartments per floor, they would be correct to think that?
(L-3—5.4.1—A, B, C)
A. A front fire escape normally indicates that there are 2 to 4 apartments per floor
B. A front fire escape always indicates that there will be 3 to 4 apartments per floor
C. The lack of a front fire escape always indicates that there will be railroad flats
D. A comer building without a front fire escape may or may not have railroad flats

Question 13

Q

Regarding the interior sizeup at a fire in an OLT building, which point indicated below
would be incorrect? (L-3—5.4.2—A, B, C)
A. The total number of mail boxes in a 5-story OLT is an indicator of the number of
apartments per floor
B. Apartment numbering and lettering systems are indicators of the number of apartments per
floor
C. If four doors are found on each floor, this indicates 4 apartments per floor
D. Most railroad flats have the kitchen in the rear, so that the normal entrance door will be the
rear door

Question 14

Q

First alarm units arrive at a fire in an OLT building where they see smoke issuing from the
comice upon arrival. In this situation they would be correct to think which TWO thoughts?
(L-3—5.4.3 A)
A. This is positive evidence that there is fire in the cockloft
B. This is positive evidence that smoke and heat are entering the cockloft
C. The comice should be opened as soon as possible to check for the existence of fire in the
cockloft or the comice itself
D. Opening the ceilings below or opening the returns if present can help determine if there is
fire in the cockloft

Question 15

Q

A rapidly rising column of smoke, with particles or embers ascending to higher levels,
visible over the roof top of an OLT frequently is an indication that the fire is?
(L-3—5.4.3 B)
A. On the top floor
B. In the cockloft
C. In an open shaft
D. In the roof bulkhead

Question 16

Q

An officer conducting a company drill on proper search procedures was correct when she
stated that? (L-3—5.5.2, 5.5.4)
A. The secondary search is rapid, but thorough and systematic and must include the entire
perimeter of the building, and all shafts, basements or cellars.
B. Officers shall ensure that the area in the vicinity the entrance door and behind the entrance
door are searched quickly after the search of a room or an apartment has been completed
C. If a primary or secondary search is delayed, or not completed for any reason, the IC must
be notified
D. If fire on a lower floor requires the search of a number of apartments, it may be quicker to
enter these apartments from their fire escape, starting on the floor immediately above the fire
apartment

Question 17

Q

First alarm units arrive at a fire on the 3
rd
floor of a 5-story OLT that has 2 railroad flat
apartments per floor. Regarding the search operations at this fire, it would be incorrect to state
that? (L-3—5.5.6, 5.5.9)
A. If the first OV is unable to enter the fire apartment from the rear fire escape, he should
probe the immediate area with hand, foot or tool.
B. When operating on the floors above the fire, members should force one or more doors on
each floor to provide an area of refuge if they have to vacate the interior stairs
C. When operating on the floors above the fire, if you cannot gain entry into a safe area and
the attack line is in position and ready to advance, you must return to the fire floor as soon as
possible after the door to the fire area is opened
D. Secondary searches shall be conducted as soon as conditions permit and shall be conducted
by units other then those who conducted the primary search of these areas

Question 18

Q

It would be most correct to state that prior to proceeding above the fire, the second ladder
officer should ensure that the Engine and Ladder officers on the fire floor are aware of their
intention to operate above the fire. (L-3—5.5.8, 5.5.9 Note)
A. Agree or D. Disagree?

Question 19

Q

When conducting a search, a member finding narrow, tapered legs, with wheels would
most likely indicate they have found a? (Pg 45-picture)
A. Bunk bed
B. High Chair
C. Crib
D. Playpen

Question 20

Q

It would be incorrect to state that energy efficient windows found in modern buildings will
cause? (L-3—5.6.4)
A. High heat buildup in the fire apartment and floor above
B. Difficulty in order to vent them properly
C. Difficulty in determining the fire location
D. Discolored windows, which will be readily apparent from the exterior

Question 21

Q

Members entering an IDLH must be teamed up with another member in all instances
except for when there is a known life hazard and an immediate action could prevent the loss of
life. A known life hazard for these purposes is correctly indicated in which of the following?
(Indicate all correct) (L-3—5.7.3 Pg 49)
A. The victim can be seen by the rescuer
B. The victim can be heard by the rescuer
C. A credible source at the scene states there is someone definitely in the building, but not
sure where
D. The owner of a store at the scene states there is a worker in the building in the rear of the
first floor
E. A police officer at the scene states he saw two kids in the top floor deadman’s room
F. A person at the scene states their neighbor is usually home at night and most likely on the
second floor of the 2-story PD

Question 22

Q

11 BC QUESTION - If a member takes individual action for a known life hazard, the IC shall
forward a report to the Chief of? (L-3—5.7.3 Pg 49 Note)
A. Safety B. Operations C. Department D. Training

Question 23

Q

An OV from Ladder 33 is operating on the 3
rd
floor fire escape of a NLT building and will
be ventilating for search purposes. In this situation, she would be incorrect to think?
(L-3—5.7.3)
A. The ladder officer must be notified of a member’s intent to ventilate for search before the
FF enters.
B. The ladder officer may decide to disapprove the entry to search in order to limit any
negative impact caused by ventilation
C. After the FF ventilates the window and clears out the window for access, the priority action
is for the FF is to immediately search the room and locate any victims
D. If a victim is found, the FF should transmit radio code 10-45, including their location and
planned exit route

Question 24

Q

Regarding ventilation tactics in OLT buildings, which statements below are correct?
(L-3—5.8 Note)
#1— All horizontal ventilation tactics must be controlled, communicated to and coordinated by
the ladder company officer.
#2— All vertical ventilation tactics must be controlled, communicated to and coordinated by
the ladder company officer.
A. Only#l B. Only #2 C. Both #1 and #2 D. Neither statement

Question 25

Q

A Roof FF from Ladder 132 is operating on the roof of a tenement building that has heavy
fire on the top floor requiring the roof to be cut. In this situation, he would be correct to think?
(L-3—5.9.4, 5.9.6)
A. If possible, cut directly over the fire. To determine this location, members can check for
soft spots or use their sense of touch on the base of a soil pipe or vent pipe
B. Initially a 6’ x 6’ cut is recommended
C. The 3rd
cut he makes should be the knockout comer cut for tool insertion
D. Other than the knockout cut, all other cuts should be approximately 3 feet

Question 26

Q

First alarm units operating at a top floor fire in an OLT would be incorrect to think that?
(L-3—5.9.6, 5.9.8 B, C)
A. If a fire is burning in a top floor OLT apartment, members should wait until the fire is
knocked down before examining the cockloft
B. If fire is seen in the cockloft from an inspection hole made in the ceiling, ventilate all
windows in the apartment while waiting for a hose line
C. Using the back of the hook is generally more efficient when pushing down ceilings after
cutting a roof
D. Members should always cut roofs with the wind at their back

Question 27

Q

A member operating at an OLT fire is trapped in a rear room and attempting to go thru a
partition wall to escape. In this situation, he would be incorrect to think that? (L-3—
6.1.1—6.1.5)
A. The order of preference to accomplish this task is using the axe, then the halligan, or lastly
the hook
B. The member should start this tactic by punching a hole slightly below the waist level
C. After anchoring the tool against the opposite side of the partition, pull the tool towards
them self using short strokes, then kick the lath off the far side of the bay
D. Use the Swim Move or Reduced Profile Maneuver to move through the opening

Question 28

Q

An officer conducting drill on the construction of OLT buildings was correct to state that?
(L-3—7.1.6, 7.1.7, Figure 7A, 7.2.6)
A. Partitions that separate apartments in an OLT are fire stopped between the ceiling of one
floor and the under-side of the floor above
B. Floor beams in OLT’s are laid perpendicular to the front of the building
C. The horizontal arteries in OLT’s are interrupted by hall and stairs which will retard lateral
extension
D. Steel Columns, I-Beams and girders are never found in any OLT buildings

Question 29

Q

Regarding the operations of Ladder companies at OLT fires, it would be incorrect to state
that? (L-3—Page 60—picture, 7.3.1,7.3.2)
A. A Roof FF detecting heat at the base of a soil pipe should cut an inspection hole in the roof
B. On the floor above the fire, high temperatures, even if only at the ceiling level, justify
calling for a hand line
C. If fire is found in a bay, it and both adjoining bays should be opened for examination
D. If a floor needs to be cut, the most efficient way to cut the floor is cutting it with an axe at a
60 degree angle and on a bias

Question 30

Q

BC Question - In warm or hot weather, the IC, during overhaul may permit members to
remove their? (L-3—8.4)
A. Bunker coats only
B. Bunker coats and bunker pants
C. Bunker coats and helmets
D. Gloves only
E. Members must wear all PPE

Question 31

Q

When throwing material out of a window, a member should be posted in the yard or street
below and the yard examined before discarding any material to insure no occupants jumped.
After taking these precautions at a fire, if members were throwing involved material out of the
window, it is permissible to throw it where? (Indicate any correct choices)
(L-3—8.13,9.9)
A. Onto another building roof
B. Onto a 1-story setback
C. Into a narrow shaft
D. Into a wide, enclosed shaft
E. Into a wide, open shaft

Question 32

Q

Which one of the following items should not be removed under any circumstances from an
OLT during overhauling, regardless of charring? (L-3—9.3, 9.8)
A. Floor joists
B. Roof joists
C. Lintels
D. Wooden structural members like wall studs

Question 33

Q

When making entries in the company journal, it would be incorrect to state that?
(2.1,2.7,2.13)
A. The Housewatch FF shall make entries in blue or black ink
B. Entries made by all members, other than the Housewatch FF, shall be in red ink
C. At the beginning of each calendar day, before taking over housewatch duties, the day and
date shall be written across the page below the last entry and the time column shall read “2400”
D. Military time shall be used when making entries except that the terms 9x6 and 6x9 shall
be used to designate tours of duty

Question 34

Q

An Officer and four firefighters from an Engine Company all report for duty between 1700
and 1800 hours and find that the Engine is out at a 3
rd alarm about 6 blocks away. At 1800 hours,
the Officer calls the dispatcher who informs her to report to the fire as per the IC in order to
relieve the day tour. In this situation, she would be correct to think that she should?
(2.10)
A. Conduct a Roll Call, write the Roll Call, and make entry of departure
B. Conduct a Roll Call, make entry of departure, then write the Roll Call upon return from
operations
C. Not conduct a Roll Call, but rather immediately leave and make entry of departure
D. Not conduct a Roll Call, but rather immediately leave. No entry of departure is required

Question 35

Q

A civilian employee from the FDNY Fleet Maintenance arrives at quarters to perform
repair work on the apparatus brakes. Regarding the civilian employee entry into quarters, it
would be most correct for the? (2-11)
A. Housewatch FF to record the entry in blue or black ink
B. Officer to record the entry in red ink
C. Civilian member to record the entry in red ink
D. Chauffeur to record the entry in red ink

Question 36

Q

The Officer of Engine 99 has started writing a Roll Call and is partially done when the
Engine gets a run for a CFR-D response. After the Engine leaves, FF Square wants to make an
entry regarding his departure from quarters to work overtime in Ladder 98. In this situation, FF
Square should? (2.14)
A. Make the necessary entry in the journal without skipping any lines
B. Make the necessary entry in the journal, but skip a few lines to allow for completion of the
Roll Call
C. Leave a note / or sticky for the officer to give him a mark in the journal
D. Call the firehouse later to have the officer make the omitted entry

Question 37

Q

An appropriate Company Journal will have all of the following except?
A. Chief s visits recorded on pages 500 to 498
B. Company drills recorded on pages 497 to 495
C. Battalion Depot (mask cylinder) entries starting on page 494
D. A current, accurate company roster affixed to the first page
(

Question 38

Q

Which of the following are correct “Flagging Column” entries for the Company Journal?
(Indicate all of the correct choices) (5)
A. PP
B. LV
C. OT
D. RX
E. PRP
F. MSK
G. El
H. ACC

Question 39

Q

Below is a Roll Call written by Lt Brady at 0900 hours where groups 4-9 are in on the day
tour and 19-24 are in on the night tour:
0900 Roll Call conducted - Engine 98; members accounted for
viz :
OD (9 X 6) Lt Brady 5, FF Amendola 6, FF Gronkowski
7, FF White 22, FF Gordon 23
IC (6 x 9) Capt. Bellicheck 23, FF Edelman 20, FF
Michel 21, FF Hogan 8, FF Kraft 22
FF White assigned as chauffeur for the 9x6 tour
EE Dept PAQ and journal entries examined as per 15.2.3
Regs

0900 roll Call is written correctly?
A. Yes - written correctly B. No - written incorrectly

Question 40

Q

It is July 7
th on a 96-degree day when Engine 92 and Ladder 44 respond to a report of a fire
in a 6-story MD. The Battalion asks for a 10-12 because he is at a Division Conference. When
they arrive Ladder 44 investigates a food on the stove condition in apartment 6E as the
Lieutenant in Engine 92 orders his unit to start stretching a precautionary line. The Captain of
Ladder 44 then tells his LCC to transmit a 10-18 for a 10-26, no extension and advise the
Battalion that they will forward the particulars. When both officers come back to the street, they
can see that the members need some relief and rehabilitation from the oppressive heat conditions.
In this situation, the Captain as the IC should know which point below is incorrect?
(AUC 230—6.1, Add 1—3.1)
A. A RAC unit may be special called by an IC
B. Rehabilitation can take place with or without the establishment of a formal functional area
C. During routine incidents, companies can conduct rehabilitation on their own
D. Company rehabilitation should not occur during an SCBA cylinder change, the transition
from active fire attack to overhaul, or other similar situations

Question 41

Q

Members should be aware that effective Rehabilitation and Recovery of all members is a
high priority of the FDNY. When units are operating at certain incidents, a RAC unit, EMS and
other resources are assigned to establish rehabilitation and care procedures. In this regard, it
would be incorrect to state that? (AUC 230—6.1.1, Add 1—3.1)
A. RAC units are automatically dispatched on a 10-75, 10-76, 10-77, or 10-60.
B. RAC operations will be conducted at an area known as the “Forward RAC Area”
C. The “Forward RAC Area” will be the location of the Rehabilitation Group
D. The aim is to have the “Forward RAC Area” within 50 feet of the fire building and within
eyesight of the Incident Command Post whenever possible

Question 42

Q

BC QUESTION - A Chief should be aware that a Rehab Group shall be established by the
IC at which type(s) of incidents indicated below? (Indicate all of the correct points)
(AUC 230—7.1)
A. 10-75 or greater alarms
B. Long duration incidents
C. Physically demanding incidents
D. Long duration or physically demanding Incidents especially during extreme temperatures

Question 43

Q

A Rehabilitation Group at a 10-75 will consist of what units below? (AUC 230—7.1.1)
A. RAC Unit, BLS Crew, EMS Officer
B. RAC Unit, ALS Crew, EMS Officer
C. RAC Unit, BLS Crew, BLS Crew, EMS Officer
D. RAC Unit, BLS Crew, ALS Crew, EMS Officer
SPRING 2019 Fire Officers Class #7 13 ©Co

Question 44

Q

BC QUESTION - A BC should be aware that which of the following point(s) are correct?
(Indicate all of the correct points) (AUC 230—7.1.1, 7.2, 7.3, 7.4)
A. At second or greater alarms, 10-60, and prolonged incidents a Rehabilitation Manager will
supervise the RAC Unit and assist in coordinating of additional resource needs for the
Rehabilitation Group
B. At second or greater alarms, or when special called, the Resource Unit Leader shall assign
units being relieved or released to the Rehabilitation Group.
C. Units shall be sent to the Rehabilitation Group in manageable groups, usually three units at
a time
D. Members entering rehabilitation should normally rest for approximately 30 minutes before
being reassigned
E. At expanding incidents, the Medical Branch Director, in consult with the IC or
Rehabilitation Manager shall reevaluate the location of the Forward RAC Rehabilitation Area.

Question 45

Q

Special Units, Squads, Rescues, and Haz-Mat Ops Units shall be given priority for medical
monitoring when the Unit’s release is pending completion of the monitoring activities.
(AUC 230—7.1.4)
A. Agree or D. Disagree
Regarding RAC Units, it would be incorrect to state that? (AUC 230—Add 1—
2.2.2, 3.2, 4.3)
A. If a RAC Unit is staffed with one FF and responding, an additional RAC Unit will be
requested by the responding RAC FF
B. A second RAC Unit operating because the first RAC Unit had only one FF will operate
until released by the IC or Rehabilitation Manager
C. An additional RAC Unit will respond on the transmission of a 4
lh alarm, unless an
additional RAC Unit has already been assigned
D. RAC Firefighters will be responsible for the collection of member’s personal hoods who
operated in an IDLH to have them decontaminated. This is not optional.

Question 46

Q

Regarding RAC Units, it would be incorrect to state that? (AUC 230—Add 1—
2.2.2, 3.2, 4.3)
A. If a RAC Unit is staffed with one FF and responding, an additional RAC Unit will be
requested by the responding RAC FF
B. A second RAC Unit operating because the first RAC Unit had only one FF will operate
until released by the IC or Rehabilitation Manager
C. An additional RAC Unit will respond on the transmission of a 4
lh alarm, unless an
additional RAC Unit has already been assigned
D. RAC Firefighters will be responsible for the collection of member’s personal hoods who
operated in an IDLH to have them decontaminated. This is not optional.

Question 47

Q

I. The most effective way to extinguish a combustible metal fire is by using a?

A Purple K extinguisher
B Carbon Dioxide extinguisher

C. Class D extinguisher
D. Copious amount of water

(Tools 34-1.2)

Question 48

Q

A Lieutenant conducting drill on MET-L-X extinguishers was incorrect when he stated
that? (Tools 34—2.1,2.2, 2.3)
A. MET-L-X can be used on certain alkali metals including Lithium, Sodium, and Potassium.
It was specifically developed for Lithium fires (batteries)
B. The salt in the MET-L-X extinguisher forms a crust excluding air from contact with the
metal. A plastic additive melts to hold the crust together until the metal is cooled below its
ignition temperature
C. MET-L-X is suitable for fires in solid chunks such as casings
D. The MET-L-X extinguisher has a yellow label that states “MET-L-X FOR CLASS D (or
symbol) FIRES ONLY”

Question 49

Q

A Officer continued drill on LITH-X extinguishers and this time he was incorrect when he
stated that the LITH-X extinguisher? (Tools 34—3.1,3.2, 3.3)
A. Can be used on certain alkali metals including Lithium, Sodium, and Potassium. It was
specifically developed for Lithium fires (batteries)
B. Powder will cake and form a crust just like MET-L-X.
C. Excludes oxygen and acts as a heat sink directing heat away from the metal, eventually
extinguishing the fire
D. Has a label affixed that states “LITH-X”. There will be no yellow label.

Question 50

Q

It would be correct to state LITH-X? (TOOLS 34—3.3)
A. Is superior in a very hot burning metal fire such as lithium
B. Effectiveness on vertical surfaces is superior
C. Will cling to metal surfaces, so it will not be necessary to cover the burning material
completely
D. Is superior to MET-L-X at adhering to hot vertical surfaces

Question 51

Q

A Captain from a SOC Support Ladder is ordered by the IC to get the LITH-X
extinguisher to extinguish a combustible metal fire which has a vertical surface.
5. In this situation, the Officer would be correct to think that the? (Tools 34 - 4)
A. Optimum distance to start extinguishment is approximately 12 feet from the burning
material
B. Discharge time for the extinguisher is about 60 seconds
C. Extinguisher will cover 3 square feet at a 1-inch thickness
D. Entire thickness of the material does not have to be covered
E. Temperature restrictions on the extinguisher are from (-20 F to 150 F)

Question 52

Q

A Captain from a SOC Support Ladder is ordered by the IC to get the LITH-X
extinguisher to extinguish a combustible metal fire which has a vertical surface.
6. When operating at this fire, members would be incorrect to think that they should?
(5 - E, F, G, H)
A. Direct the powder at the base of the burning material
B. First apply a thin layer of agent evenly over the burning mass
C. Once control of the lire is established, cover the metal completely from close range
applying a heavier layer usually at least 3-inches thick.
D. Delay overhaul until the fuel has cooled; this may take up to 30 minutes

Question 53

Q

Regarding the distribution and inspection of CLASS D extinguishers to FDNY units, it
would be inaccurate to state that? (6.1, 7.1, 7.2, 7.3)
A. One MET-L-X extinguisher and one LITH-X extinguisher has been issued to HAZ-MAT,
Rescue, Squad, HMTU’s, SOC Support Ladders and Purple K units
B. These extinguishers shall be inspected daily and after each use
C. Periodic changing of the powder in these extinguishers is not necessary
D. Anytime the MET-L-X or LITH-X extinguisher is used at an incident or a defect is
discovered, it should be forwarded to HAZ-MAT Operations for replacement

Question 54

Q

NYC-DOT has installed bollards at pedestrian / bike entrances on the Williamsburg,
Manhattan and Brooklyn Bridges. Regarding these bollards, it would be incorrect to state?
(1-1,2,2.1)
A. Some bollards are removable, some are retractable
B. The removable bollards require a custodian bollard wrench to unscrew the locking rod and
a lifting bar that is placed through holes near the top of the fire bollard pipe
C. A metal halligan hook may be used in place of the lifting bar for removable bollard
operations
D. The items removed from the bollard shall be placed to the side out of the path of
pedestrians and vehicles. If staffing is insufficient, the removed items may be left unattended.

Question 55

Q

Retractable bollards electronically retract into the ground and are operated by a key switch.
Sets of keys are issued to first due units to perform this operation. Regarding operations at these
bollards it would be inaccurate to think? (Tools 35—3)
A. If there is an object on a retracted bollard, it will not rise because there are loop detector
zones on each side of the bollard
B. There are two key switches inside of the control box. The top one is for FDNY use
C. To unlock the control box a member will insert the key marked “CB” and turn it clockwise
D. The member will then insert the key marked “EM” into the FDNY key switch and turn it to
the EMERG position to lower the bollard. The key is not removable in the EMERG position
E. A member must be assigned to remain at the control box throughout the operation. Keys
must not be left unattended in the key switch at anytime

Question 56

Q

If the Control Box to a retractable bollard is opened and a key is not placed in the key
switch withinseconds, the system will switch to tamper mode causing an alarm to sound
and power to be cut from the system? (Tools 35—Page 9)
A. 15 B. 30 C. 45 D. 60

Question 57

Q

An Officer conducting drill on the Digital In-Line Gauge used for standpipe operations was
correct when he stated that? (Tools 36—3.1—A, B, C, D, E)
A. The gauge should be pre-connected to a folded length of hose
B. The green ON/OFF button must be pressed and held for 1-2 seconds to activate it; Then
release the ON/OFF button and the digital readout will show “0” pressure and “0” flow.
C. After opening the standpipe control valve, static pressure will immediately be indicated in
the bottom blue LED digital readout
D. The goal is a static pressure of 70 psi for a 3 length stretch or 80 psi for a 4 length stretch
E. An effective stream for a 2 !4 inch hoseline with a 1 1/8 inch MST is between 225 and 250
gallons

Question 58

Q

FF Smith is operating as the Control FF at a 10-77 in a HRFPMD. While utilizing the
Digital IN-LINE Gauge, he would be correct to think that? (Tools 36—3.1 E, F, Note, 4.1)
A. If the pressure reading is normal or higher and the water flow is reduced, he should suspect
a burst length
B. If the pressure reading is normal or lower and the water flow is increased, he should
suspect kinks
C. If the gauge fails to display upon initial startup, he should make another attempt to turn it
on. If the second attempt fails, he must remove the gauge from the standpipe outlet
D. There are pressure and flow alerts incorporated in the gauge. These pressure and flow alerts
are not a direct indication of an unsafe condition

Question 59

Q

Regarding the pressure and flow alerts and special features of the Digital In-line Gauge it
would be correct to state that? (Tools 36—4.1,4.2)
A.
“HI-P” will alternately flash on the red digital readout when pressure exceeds 150 psi
B.
“HI-F” will alternately flash on the blue digital readout when water flow exceeds 250 gpm
C.
“LO-F” will alternately flash on the blue digital readout when water flow is less than 180
gpm
D. If there has been no water flow for 15 minutes, the digital display will power off
automatically

Question 60

Q

The Digital In-line gauge is powered by a special 9V rechargeable lithium ion battery. No
other 9V battery may be used with this gauge. Units are issued 4 batteries for this gauge.
Regarding these batteries, it would be incorrect to state that? (Tools 36—5.2, 5.3)
A. One battery is installed in the gauge, one in a clear battery pouch of the carry case, and two
batteries are to be placed in the charging unit at quarters
B. A fully charged batter^ will supply about 5 hours of operation
C. The digital readout will slowly flash “LO batt” when there is about 90 minutes of battery
life left.
D. The digital readout will rapidly flash “LO batt” when there is about 30 minutes of battery
life left.

Question 61

Q

If the gauge is slowly flashing “LO-batt” during a fire operation, the Control FF should
know that the battery should be swapped? (Tools 36—5.3)
A. As soon as possible and this requires water to be shutdown
B. As soon as possible and this can be done with water flowing
C. Within 30 minutes and this can be done with water flowing
D. At the conclusion of the operation.

Question 62

Q

Regarding inspection and maintenance of the Digital In-line gauge, it would be incorrect to
state? (Tools 36—5.4, 5.6, 5.7, 7.1)
A. The gauge should be inspected for damage and operability each tour
B. The battery test feature should be pressed each tour to check battery condition. “Batt Good”
indicates the battery is serviceable
C. Batteries should be rotated and recharged weekly and after use
D. A slowly blinking red color from a battery charger indicator indicates a battery is charging

Question 63

Q

Floor jacks have been issued to units to be used at a variety of operations including vehicle
lift operations. Which point below is incorrect regarding these floor jacks? (Tools
37—1,4.3,5.1,5.6)
A. Their maximum capacity is 3 tons (6000 pounds)
B. Their lifting height ranges from 3 inches to 18 inches; Five pumps will achieve the
maximum height.
C. When lifting, the load must be centered on the jack saddle
D. Use the floor jack when the vehicle is on a relatively flat, level surface
E. During the lifting process, do not get under the vehicle until the vehicle has been cribbed

Question 64

Q

A Satellite Company arrives at a 3
rd alarm fire in a commercial building and the IC orders
the unit to set up their “Blitzfire Oscillating Monitor” on the exposure 3 side of the
structure on fire.
18. While operating, the Satellite Officer would be incorrect to think that the?
(Tools 38^.1, 4.2, 4.3)
A. Maximum inlet pressure is 200 psi
B. Horizontal stream range when stationary is +/- 20 degrees either side of the centerline
C. Vertical stream range is 10 degrees above to 86 degrees above the horizontal
D. The flow control handle has 6 detented positions which regulate the flow of water (GPM

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WEEK 7 DIDOMENICO Flashcards

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