SPRING 2019 WEEK 6

Question 1

1) Two members of a Bronx Engine Company discussing fire operations in Tenements
debated which incorrect statement made earlier in the tour? (Lads 3 Glossary 1.1)
A) An Energy Efficient Window (EEW) is a window designed to maintain an airtight
insulation, and will contain more than one pane of glass with an air tight space in-between.
B) Flashover is a transition in the development of a compartment fire when surfaces exposed
to thermal radiation from fire gases in excess of 1100°F reach ignition temperature more or less
simultaneously.
C) Under the Vent, Entry, Isolate, Search (VEIS) tactic, the priority upon entering an area via
a window is to close the door to that room or area in order to isolate that area being searched
from the fire area.
D) A “window gate” is a folding gate placed at a window to prevent intruders from entering.
The type that is approved by the Board of Standards and Appeals will always have locks.

Answer 1

D

Question 2

2) At a 4th floor fire in a 5-story Old Law Tenement, an Engine Officer entered the IDLH
atmosphere on his own due to a known life hazard. Of the following choices, which is not
defined as a “known life hazard” and should preclude the officer from rescue activity before
teaming up?
A) The Officer claimed he could see a victim through the involved 4th floor apartment
window.
B) The Officer claimed he could hear a victim in the involved 4th floor apartment.
C) The Officer heard bystanders questioning each other about the whereabouts of the occupant
of the involved 4th floor apartment.
D) The Officer was notified by the building superintendent on scene of the presence of an
elderly woman in the involved 4th floor apartment.

Answer 2

C

Question 3

3) A typical Old Law Tenement is correctly described in all choices below except?
(Lads 3 1.2.1-1.2.4)
A) They are three to seven stories.
B) They are 20’ to 25’ wide.
C) They are 50’ to 85’ deep.
D) There will always be an interior stairway to the cellar present.

Answer 3

D

Question 4

4) There are many factors that members must consider in size-up when responding to a fire in
a Tenement. Of the following factors, which is described incorrectly? (Lads 3 1.4.1)
A) Time - Governs the life hazard. A tenement fire is more serious during the daytime than at
night.
B) Life - The most serious factor at any fire. The life hazard to firefighters must also be
considered.
C) Occupancy - This determines the severity of the life hazard and the intensity of the fire.
D) Height - Building height will govern the use of the Aerial and/or Tower Ladder and
portable ladders.

Answer 4

A

Question 5

5) The first arriving ladder company officers have many things to consider when arriving at a
fire in a non-fireproof Tenement. Which consideration below is incorrect? (Lads 3
2.4, 3.2.1)
A) When two ladder companies arrive at approximately the same time but out of response
sequence, they shall be guided by their alarm box assignment. The second due unit shall make no
extraordinary effort to arrive at the location before the first due unit.
B) It is the responsibility of the officer of the first arriving ladder company to ensure that entry
doors at street level are chocked open.
C) In addition to the handie-talkie, the Officer should carry a Hand Light, Officer’s tool and
Thermal Imaging Camera.
D) If the engine does not have a charged hoseline at the door to the fire area, the first arriving
ladder officer should use caution when entering and performing the primary search of the fire
apartment with the Can FF and FE FF. All three members shall perform this search together and
not split apart.

Answer 5

D

Question 6

6) Which tool is not part of the Forcible Entry FFs tool assignment at a non-fireproof
Tenement Fire? (Lads 3 3.2.2)
A) Handie-Talkie
B) Flashlight
C) Maul and halligan
D) Rebar Cutter

Answer 6

D

Question 7

7) The chauffeur of the first arriving aerial ladder has many duties when operating at a fire in
a non-fireproof Tenement. Of the following, which duty is described incorrectly? (Lads 3
3.2.4 1-7)
A) The chauffeur of an aerial ladder shall not operate in a manner that will in any way impede
their return to the pedestal and cause a delay in positioning or repositioning the aerial for rescue
or removal operations. The chauffeur must notify their Company Officer of intended destination
when leaving this primary position.
B) The chauffeur should remain on the turntable when members have entered the building by
aerial ladder and are in precarious positions such as a floor over a heavy fire, the roof of a
building with a heavy fire condition, etc. The chauffeur should keep alert as to who, when, and
where of members using the aerial ladder.
C) If the chauffeur is aware that the second ladder company is not in service or will not arrive
in a reasonable time, they shall team up with another available member to try to get above the
fire via aerial or portable ladder.
D) The chauffeur and OV’s duties are complementary when the fire apartment or fire escapes
are located in the rear of the building. For purposes of efficiency, the OV and chauffeur shall
team up while keeping in mind the necessity to be available for the use of the aerial or portable
ladders to assist members in distress.

Answer 7

D

Question 8

8) A situation that can arise at a fire in a non-fireproof Tenement is the obvious need to use
the aerial ladder for placement of the Roof Firefighter at the same time of an apparent need to
remove an occupant. All of the following factors in reaching a decision as to the aerial ladder’s
initial use are correctly described below, except in which choice. (Lads 3.2.4 8)
A) Emotional state of the occupant - An agitated, frightened occupant or one threatening to
jump should be removed first.
B) Fire/Smoke in the immediate vicinity of the occupant - The occupant must receive instant
attention if he/she would be endangered or seriously disturbed by any delay in his/her removal.
C) Location and severity of the fire - A front first floor fire will not normally require
immediate removal of occupants from the 3rd, 4th, or higher floors in the front of the building.
D) The Time Element - When aerial ladder is needed both for removal and roof access, roof
access can be given priority if the person to be removed is in no immediate danger. If any doubt
exists remove the occupant first.

Answer 8

C

Question 9

9) The first arriving aerial ladder arrives at a fire on the 7th floor of a 7-story Old Law
Tenement in the borough of Manhattan. The OV FF of this unit would be correct to bring all of
the following tools except? (Lads 3 3.2.5)
A)
B)
C)
D)
Handie-Talkie
Flashlight
Halligan tool
6’ hook

Answer 9

D

Question 10

dutie^H 3 n°
,
n
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f,repr00f Tenement, the first arriving OV FF of an aerial ladder
uues depending on a number of factors. Which tactic below is correct?
may have various
(Lads 3 3.2.5)
A) Store Fire - Ventilate the rear of the store from the exterior. Prior to conducting any
horizontal ventilation tactics, request permission from the Incident Commander to coordinate the
ventilation with interior operations.
B) Top Floor Fire - Proceed to the roof. If possible, descend the fire escape and provide
coordinated ventilation with interior operations. VEIS will be completed if the OV teams up with
the second OV (or another available member).
C) When there is only a rear fire escape (railroad apartments) or the fire apartment is in the
rear, the OV and Chauffeur (or another available member) shall team up and enter the fire
apartment from that fire escape.
D) When there is a front fire escape and the fire apartment is in the front, the OV and Root FF
(or another available member) shall team up and enter the fire apartment from that fire escape.

Answer 10

B

Question 11

11) The first arriving aerial ladder Roof FF is required to take all of the tollowing tools to the
foof of a non-fireproof Tenement except? (Lads 3 3.2.6)
A) Life Saving Rope
B) Halligan tool and 6’ Hook
C) Flashlight
D) Handie-Talkie

Answer 11

B

Question 12

12) What is the most correct priority order ot access tor the first arriving Root FF to reach the
roof at a non-fireproof Tenement fire? (Lads 3 3.2.6 1-3)
A) Adjoining Building, Aerial Ladder, Rear Fire Escape, Interior Stairs
B) Aerial Ladder, Adjoining Building, Rear Fire Escape
C) Adjoining Building, Aerial Ladder, Rear Fire Escape
D) Aerial Ladder, Rear Fire Escape, Adjoining Building

Answer 12

C

Question 13

13) Proper ventilation is crucial at non-fireproof Tenement fires. Which action below would be
incorrect for the Roof FF to initiate? (Lads 3 3.2.6 pl5)
A) Proceed to the bulkhead door. When in position and prepared to vent, transmit this
information to the Ladder Company Officer inside the fire area to be vented. Following this
transmission, the Roof FF can start to force open the bulkhead door.
B) Following the initial transmission from the Roof FF, if the Officer indicated he/she does
not want vertical ventilation performed due to fire conditions preventing control of the fire
apartment door; the Roof FF will force open the bulkhead door, and if conditions are tenable,
reach in and probe the immediate area of the bulkhead for potential victims and then
immediately close and control the door.
C) If the Officer indicated he/she does not want vertical ventilation performed and the
bulkhead door cannot be closed and controlled for any reason (e.g. victim removal, damaged
door), the Roof FF should immediately notify the Ladder Company Officer inside the fire area to
be searched.
D) In no case shall the Roof FF perform vertical ventilation without direct communication
with the Ladder Company Officer inside the fire area. If communication cannot be obtained with
the Ladder Company Officer, the Roof FF should attempt to contact the Chauffeur.

Answer 13

D

Question 14

14) When operating at a fire in a non-fireproof Tenement, which Ladder Company tactic is
incorrectly portrayed? (Lads 3 3.3.5, 3.4.2 3, 3.5.2)
A) As the first arriving Tower Ladder at a fire in an Old Law Tenement with no front fire
escape, the officer may request the Roof FF to perform outside ventilation of the fire apartment
from the rear fire escape after completion of preliminary roof ventilation (bulkhead, scuttle,
skylight), if necessary.
B) When the second arriving ladder company is operating on the floors above the fire,
members should force one or more doors on each floor to provide an area of refuge.
C) For a top floor fire in a non-fireproof Tenement, the second arriving ladder company
Extinguisher FF should take two 6’ hooks in lieu of the pressurized water extinguisher.
D) For a top floor/cockloft fire in a non-fireproof Tenement, the second arriving ladder
company should check the floors below to ensure the fire did not start on a lower floor and then
remain on the floor below until needed. They shall not block the stair or hallway leading to upper
floors.

Answer 14

D

Question 15

15) Fires in air and light shafts can be challenging for members. Of the following tactics listed
below, which is the only one in accordance with Department procedures? (Lads 3 4 2
4.2.1,4.2.2)
A) During the initial stages of a shaft fire, the window frames, curtains, drapes, etc., in both
buildings feed the fire in the shaft. In most cases lateral extension into apartments of exposed
buildings will be immediate, trapping occupants and preventing members from finding and
remove them.
B) The draft created by a shaft fire will contribute to the horizontal extension during the initial
stages, frequently prohibiting a close approach to the shaft on most floors.
C) While awaiting hoselines, members may, by the proper application of water with pots,
pans, etc., either extinguish fire around shaft windows or delay the lateral extension.
D) The engine company, after knocking down fire in a room exposing the shaft, must continue
through the apartment for additional knock down and final extinguishment prior to directing the
nozzle stream into the shaft.

Answer 15

C

Question 16

16) At a recent fire in an air/light shaft in an Old Law Tenement, all of the following actions
taken were correct except the action found in which choice? (Lads 3 4.2.1,4.2.3, 4.2.4)
A) The second arriving LCC positioned the apparatus to cover the original fire building. Since
she was not needed in the fire building, she went to work in the exposed building.
B) Since the second arriving OV and Roof FFs were not needed in the fire building, they went
to work in the exposed building.
C) As the apartments on the shaft were in the same line, members of the second inside team
used the fire escape of one apartment for access to the others rather than force doors on several
floors.
D) In addition to their duties in the fire apartment, the first arriving ladder company officer
and forcible entry team facilitated the engine company’s advance.

Answer 16

A

Question 17

17) Fires in dumbwaiter shafts present many challenges to members of the Department. Of the
choices below, which contains incorrect information? (Lads 3 4.3)
A) All units must be immediately notified of a dumbwaiter fire. It is important that the top
floor, cockloft and cellar are checked as soon as possible.
B) If fire is reported in the dumbwaiter shaft, the Roof Firefighter should vent the dumbwaiter
bulkhead. If after venting a dumbwaiter bulkhead, the Roof Firefighter does not see any
appreciable volume of smoke venting, the Roof Firelighter should notify his/her officer.
C) If the dumbwaiter bulkhead has been previously removed and tarred over, this eliminates
the danger of extension via the dumbwaiter shaft. The Roof Firefighter should continue with
his/her normally assigned duties.
D) Members should not place any part of their body in the shaft.

Answer 17

C

Question 18

8) Roof operations in non-fireproof Tenements can be dangerous. A knowledgeable officer
should know which points below to be correct? (Lads 3 5.2.2, 5.2.3, Figure 5B)
1. When the fronts of buildings are aligned, depths will be aligned as well.
2. Opened end shafts are generally located toward the front.
3. If possible, move from one roof to another near the front wall, always checking your
footing.
4. Roof level skylights and/or scuttle covers, if removed, should be immediately discarded
from the roof to avoid a tripping hazard.
5. Before walking or moving on a roof when visibility is poor, or a heavy smoke condition
exists, crouch to a kneeling position. Probe the roof surface by either swinging a tool or leg
in the direction of movement.
6. Members operating on the roof should not step over a parapet or wall without first feeling
the adjoining surface with a tool.
7. When momentarily blinded by smoke or darkness, and there is no immediate danger, it
may be best to remain in place until visibility is restored.
8. Avoid standing directly above the window when taking the top floor window with the hook
from the roof.
A) 3, 5, 6, 7, 8
B) 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7
C) 1,3, 5, 6, 8
D) 1,3, 4, 5, 6

Answer 18

A

Question 19

19) Which point below is incorrect regarding metal gates that are often found on fire escape
windows? (Lads 3 5.3.2 3)
A) These gates are always on the room side of the window and will first require opening or
removing the window.’
B) Use either the fork or adz end of the halligan tool to pull the gate loose at the side of the
locking device. If severely exposed to heat or smoke at this side of the gate, removal may be
accomplished opposite the locking device.
C) The gate is attached to the window frame with wood screws.
D) Newer style gates may not be as easy to remove. Formidable mounting may be extremely
difficult to force. This information must be relayed to the inside team.

Answer 19

B

Question 20

20) A 6’ hook and halligan can be used to assist climbing onto a high bulkhead when alone.
Which choice below is not in accordance with this procedure? (Lads 3 5.3.3 A)
A) The halligan is placed with the fork end down and the adz end up.
B) When coping is present remove a piece and hang the hook on the bulkhead’s edge.
C) Using the halligan to support most of your weight, pull yourself up, using caution when
near or next to an open shaft or building wall that faces on a shaft, areaway, courtyard or street.
D) While climbing the hook, exert a downward pressure and do not push against the wall with
your feet. This lateral pressure may cause the hook to slip off the bulkhead wall.

Answer 20

C

Question 21

21) A member on the roof of a non-fireproof Tenement may use a removed door in conjunction
with the halligan to gain access to the roof of a bulkhead. To do this, drive the hook of the
halligan into the roof, then position the door against the bulkhead at an angle of? (Lads 3 5.3.3
B)
A) 45 to 60 degrees with the roof
B) 30 to 45 degrees with the roof
C) 5 to 15 degrees with the roof
D) 65 to 75 degrees with the roof

Answer 21

B

Question 22

22) Which firefighting roof tactic is incorrectly described below? (Lads 3 5.3.3 C-E)
A) After gaining access to and venting a high bulkhead, the Roof FF should get off the same
place where he/she gained access.
B) Some bulkheads are erected flush with an exterior wall (i.e., one side of the bulkhead is a
continuation of a building). This reduces the selection of an egress from the bulkhead. If in
doubt, the firefighter may drop an object (a tool if necessary) and listen for the sound of it hitting
the roof surface.
C) When pushing down the ceiling from the roof, utilize the hook end to ensure the hook
properly protrudes the ceiling below.
D) When forcing open bulkhead doors, realize that even if these doors are tight against the
doorjamb, there will usually be enough space between the bottom of the door and the sill to get a
purchase.

Answer 22

C

Question 23

READ COMM 10 ADD 2

Question 24

1) Which aspect of the Akron New Yorker Multiversal is described incorrectly?
(TB Tools 17 2.1 C, D, G)
A) The Elevation Control Hand Wheel is used to raise or lower the elevation. The range of
elevation is from 120 degrees above the horizontal to 10 degrees below the horizontal.
B) The Safety Stoplock and Release Pin prevent lowering the elevation below 35 degrees
above the horizontal unless the release pin is pulled. The release pin should be pulled before
reaching 35 degrees.
C) Do not operate below 35 degrees above horizontal unless the unit is secured in the truck
mount fixture, or is securely restrained by ropes. No operation below the horizontal shall be
attempted unless the unit is secured in the truck mount.
D) The Locking Plunger Retaining Latch Assembly is bright orange in color and prevents the
locking plunger from disengaging, guarding against accidental release while the appliance is
being supplied with water.

Answer 24

A

Question 25

2) Proper placement of the Akron New Yorker Multiversal is necessary to ensure it functions
properly. Which choice below contains incorrect information? (TB Tools 17 3.3.1,
3.3.2, 3.3.5 E)
A) The portable ground base should be placed at the point of operation with the front leg (leg
with the safety chain attached) pointing toward the fire or desired point of operation.
B) The Multiversal Nozzle shall be placed with the two inlets of the Siamese facing directly to
the rear, and in line with, the front leg of the portable ground base and with the locking plunger
directly in line with the front leg.
C) Remove all slack in the safety chain and secure it to a substantial object, if one is close
enough. The safety chain will effectively secure the appliance when utility ropes are not
available.
D) Do not connect the hose lines to the Siamese before tying the required knots, as this would
greatly increase the time required to tie the knots.

Answer 25

C

Question 26

3) During multi-unit drill, the senior Engine Officer had to correct which incorrect statement
made by the junior member on duty regarding the Akron New Yorker Multiversal?
(TB Tools 17 3.4.1-3.4.4)
A) The supply inlets of the Siamese are provided with two 3” female swivels. The use of a
single hose line to supply the Multiversal Nozzle is recommended.
B) When two hoses are used, bring them straight back a distance of 15 feet from the Siamese,
parallel to each other, before making any sharp bends or turns in the hose lines.
C) If only one hose line is used, bring it straight back for 15 feet before making any sharp
bends or turns.
D) When the Multiversal Nozzle is being operated in the portable position, do not move the
ground base or the 15 feet of supply hose that is closest to the unit, unless the water supply is
shut down.

Answer 26

A

Question 27

4) Proper water supply is crucial to the effective operation of the Akron New Yorker
Multiversal. If the following choices, which is incorrect? (TB Tools 17 3.4.5)
A) When used in the portable ground base, the unit should not be operated at more than 300
gallons per minute with any type of straight stream or fog tip.
B) With a 1 %” tip, do not exceed 100 psi.
C) With a 1 A” tip, do not exceed 70 psi.
D) With a 2” tip, do not exceed 50 psi.

Answer 27

A

Question 28

5) Two Company Officers discussing proper operation and maintenance of the Akron New
Yorker Multiversal identified which correct comment made earlier in the day?
(TB Tools 17 3.4.6, 3.6, 6.1, 7.4.1, 7.5)
A) When the supply lines feeding the Multiversal Nozzle are long, so that communication with
the Engine Company Chauffeur may be difficult, insert a single gate one length from the nozzle.
A member can be stationed at these gates to assure that proper pressures are maintained.
B) After each use, the spikes in the portable ground base shall be inspected. If the flats on the
end of the spikes exceed 1/8” in diameter, the spikes must be sharpened or replaced in
accordance with the instructions contained in the Manufacturer’s Manual, which has been issued
to units.
C) Routine maintenance on the Akron New Yorker Multiversal shall be conducted monthly.
D) To thoroughly drain the appliance, it is necessary to turn it upside down. The maximum
pressure to which any part of this appliance should be subjected is 250 psi.

Answer 28

A

Question 29

6) Sure Search Door Markers are highly visible, durably constructed and can be recognized by
touch when in place. They save time by preventing duplication of effort and provide for more
orderly searches. Which choice contains incorrect information regarding Sure Search Door
Markers? (TB Tools 19 3.1 - 3.6)
A) They are placed on the outside door knob when a member or team enters an area to perform
a primary search.
B) Placement will indicate to others that a primary search is in progress or has been completed
in this area and that they should continue on to another area.
C) When all operations have been completed the markers shall be removed and returned to
their assigned units under the direction and control of the Officer in Command.
D) Both the large and small Door Markers can be used as a latch strap. The open ends are
I snapped around both door knobs to prevent relocking of a door where necessary.

Answer 29

D

Question 30

7) The Captain of a Bronx Truck Company made the following statements to his members
regarding Sure Search Door Markers. In which statement was he incorrect? (TB Tools 19
2, 4.1 -4.5)
A) The door markers are issued to all units. When received, the markers shall not be marked in
any way.
B) Each member shall be issued two large markers and two small markers. A reserve supply
shall be carried on the apparatus.
C) Field Communications will also have a supply of Markers for use at major operations.
D) Both large and small door markers are colored “day glow yellow.”

Answer 30

A

Question 31

8) A newly promoted Lieutenant conducting an airbag drill in quarters had to correct which
incorrect comment made by a probationary firefighter? (TB Tools 20 2.4.1, 2.4.2, 2.5.1,
3.1.4)
A) Air bags are equipped with two (2) red air supply hoses and one (1) yellow air supply hose;
all of which are 16 feet in length.
B) Both steel and aluminum SCBA cylinders may used to operate the air bags.
C) On the pressure regulator, set the low pressure gauge to 135 psi by turning the pressure
regulator knob clockwise.
D) When the high pressure gauge falls below 200 psi on the pressure regulator, change the air
cylinder.

Answer 31

B

Question 32

9) Following a minor train derailment in Brooklyn, members of an Engine Company were
discussing proper use of air bags. Of the following comments made, which was incorrect?
(TB Tools 20 3.2.7, 4.2. 6.4, 6.5)
A) Always have the bag connected prior to placing it under or between a load.
B) The maximum internal air pressure for the bag when used for lifting purposes is 118 psi.
C) If necessary to block up a bag, 3/4” plywood, 3 layers thick, glued and nailed or screwed
together is recommended. Plywood will not split or crack under loads as it has elasticity.
D) Bags should always be inflated three quarters to their fully rated height capacity.

Answer 32

D

Question 33

10) Safety is crucial when operating with air bags. Of the following choices, which is in
accordance with Department safety guidelines? (TB Tools 20 6.6-6.8, 6.9.3, 6.9.4, 6.9.5)
A) During inflation, stand to one side and clear all personnel from the vicinity. Do not stand in
front of the opening where the bag has been placed, as there is a possibility of the bag being
pushed out by the load shifting.
B) Avoid inflating bags against sharp objects or on a surface heated to over 200 F. If
necessary, insert a flexible insulated pad or 3/4” plywood between the hot or sharp surface and
the bag, in order to protect the bag.
C) Never stack more than two bags on top of each other and if conditions allow, place the
smaller bag on top of the larger one. When stacking bags, always inflate the bottom bag first.
D) When stacking air bags you cannot add together the tonnage of the two bags to get the total
lifting weight. The tonnage of the larger bag is the maximum that can be lifted.

Answer 33

A

Question 34

11) A 30 ton airbag with a maximum lifting height of 10 inches will? (TB Tools 20 6.9.6)
A) lift 15 tons1 inch; and lift 30 tons to a height of 10 inches.
B) lift 15 tons1 inch; and lift 1 ton to a height of 10 inches.
C) lift 30 tons1 inch; and lift 15 tons to a height of 10 inches.
D) lift 30 tons
to a height of 10 inches

Answer 34

C

Question 35

12) Air bags have many uses and are a practical tool under many circumstances. Which
description of air bags below contains correct information? (TB Tools 20 7.2.4, 7.3.4,
8.4 Note)
A) The “Leak Sealing Field Kit” consists of one (1) air hose, red in color, with a built-in safety
relief valve. This air hose should only be used for leak sealing.
B) The “Leak Sealing Field Kit” air hose has a safety relief valve designed to limit the internal
air pressure in the air bag to 22 psi.
C) On many damaged cylinders or tanks, the air bags will not conform to the indentation or
shape of the damaged area. If this is the case, air bags shall not be used under any circumstances.
D) The average life span of the Maxiforce air bags is 20 years. Life expectancy is based on air
pollutants, not usage. Bags used in a heavily industrialized area will not last as long as bags in a
rural area.

Answer 35

B

Question 36

13) Two junior members of a Queens Ladder Company had a discussion regarding the “rabbit
tool.” One of the members was incorrect in which statement? (TB Tools 21 1,2)
A) It will exert over 4 tons of force.
B) It is designed for use on doors that open inward.
C) It can be used successfully on sliding elevator doors.
D) It may be used successfully as an auto extrication tool.

Answer 36

D

Question 37

The proper operation of the rabbit tool can be found in all choices below except?
(TB Tools 21 3.1, 3.2, 3.5, 4)
A) Insert the jaws between the door and the jamb, midway between the knob and lock. The
jaws must be in the closed position.
B) Set the control lever to “pressure” and operate the pump. The door should open in 1 to 2
pumps of the handle.
C) Whenever a door is encountered with multiple locks on the knob side, insert the jaws
between the knob and lock, and then move the tool to the proximity of the next lock or bolt.
D) To retract the jaws, place them on the floor and turn the control lever.

Answer 37

B

Question 38

15) Safety should always be a priority when forcing entry. Which safety consideration below is
incorrect regarding the use of the rabbit tool? (TB Tools 21 3.4, 3.6, 4)
A) The pump is designed to be operated in the vertical position only.
B) Officers supervising forcible entry operations on doors that have locks protected by shields
are directed to ensure that no member stands in front of the lock while the operation is in
progress.
C) Members should have on full firefighting gear with eye shields down.
D) Never attempt to grasp a leaking hose under pressure. The force of escaping hydraulic fluid
could cause serious injury.

Answer 38

A

Question 39

1) Of the following choices, which is incorrect regarding the “water relay” evolution?
(Evol 8 2, 3.1, 3.3, 3.4)
A) There is an increased possibility of introducing air into an operating pumper and losing
prime.
B) The Officer or ECC of the Operating Pumper, upon finding no viable water source,
transmits signal 10-70 via Department radio and HT and decides on optimum position of the
pumper, factoring such things as easiest hose stretch, ladder company accessibility, fire
conditions, collapse potential, etc.
C) The necessary lengths of 3!6” hose are stretched from a 3” outlet of the Supply Pumper to
the Operating Pumper’s 3” gated inlet on the pump panel side of the pumper
D) Normally, both the Supply Pumper and the Operating Pumper must remain in the Volume
Position. At standpipe operations where head pressure needs to be overcome, however, the
Supply Pumper remains in the Pressure position and the Operating Pumper must be in the
Volume position.

Answer 39

D

Question 40

) An experienced Engine Officer discussing water relay operations would be able to identify
each statement below as containing correct information except in which choice? (Evol 8
3.5, 3.9)
A) With the hydrant open fully and the pumps engaged, the pressure on the “pump pressure
gauge” of the Supply Pumper will be equal to the intake pressure from the hydrant plus the
pressure the pumps idle at in the Volume position (about 55 psi) or in the Pressure position (110
psi).
B) When the Supply Pumper’s ECC sends water by opening the 3” discharge gate fully, the
Operating Pumpers ECC leaves the gated inlet closed while opening the drain to the gated inlet,
thus allowing air in the 3 A” supply line to exhaust. When good water flow is observed flowing
through the drain, the drain should be closed.
C) Once good water flow has been observed through the drain and the drain closed, the ECC
of the Operating Pumper should then slowly open the 3” inlet gate fully and note the intake
pressure gauge reading. It should read from approximately 100-125 psi.
D) When supplied with water, the idle pressure on the “pump pressure gauge” of the Operating
Pumper will be equal to the intake pressure from the relay plus the pressure the apparatus idles at
in volume. In most circumstances during a relay, with both apparatus in the Volume position,
this number will be around 200 - 250 psi.

Answer 40

D

Question 41

3) Members of a busy Queens Engine Company conducting a training exercise on water relay
were able to identify which incorrect comment made during the drill? (Evol 8 3.12,
3.13, Notes)
A) The water relay procedure should normally accommodate two-2
1
/2” handlines without the
intake pressure gauge dropping below 15 psi on the Operating Pumper.
B) If the “intake pressure gauge” reading does drop below 15 psi on the Operating Pumper,
then the ECC of the Operating Pumper should request the Supply Pumper to increase throttle
(tap-up pro-pressure governor) in 10 psi increments as needed.
C) If the Supply Pumper’s “intake pressure gauge” drops below 15 psi, the Supply Pumper
ECC should immediately switch from the Volume position to the Pressure position in order to
ensure adequate water is being supplied to the Operating Pumper.
D) Time permitting; a 2!4” gate should be attached to the hydrant’s 2/2” outlet for possible
augmentation if necessary. If possible, it is better to set up a relay operation before supplying
handlines.

Answer 41

C

Question 42

4) Members of a Manhattan Engine Company were discussing standpipe stretches with two
newly appointed probationary firefighters when one of the new members made an incorrect
comment. Indicate the incorrect statement. (Evol 9 3.3 Note, 3.5, 3.6, 3.7)
A) 2 1/2” folded lengths should be folded with hose butts on the inside to protect the butts.
Straps must be disengaged from the folded lengths, however, the Nozzle and Backup firefighters
may opt to take their lengths up to the fire floor before removing the strap.
B) Place folded lengths on the floor landing below the standpipe outlet, or in the hallway
adjacent to the stairway door containing the standpipe, with straps facing up and male and female
hose butts adjacent to each other. The length with the nozzle is placed most distant from the
standpipe with the nozzle facing in the direction of the stretch. For narrow landings, folded
lengths can be stacked on the stairs.
C) Remove protective coverings from the male butts. The Nozzle firefighter connects hose
butts between the lead length and the second length. The Backup firefighter connects hose butts
between the second and third lengths. The Control firefighter connects the in-line pressure gauge
and hoseline to the standpipe outlet.
D) The Door firefighter (if present) may connect hose butts between the 3rd and 4th lengths (if
needed), can assist the Control firefighter in hooking up to the standpipe or assists the Nozzle
and Backup firefighters.

Answer 42

A

Question 43

5) Of the following choices, which is the only one that contains correct information regarding
Fire Department standpipe operations? (Evol 9 Notes)
A) All hoselines stretched from standpipes shall be connected to outlets on floors below the
fire floor. Variations from stretching initial hoselines from standpipe outlets on a floor below the
fire due to building configurations shall be approved by Division Commanders and placed in the
CIDS program.
B) If a pressure reducing/restricting device (PRD) is found on the standpipe outlet, it shall
always be removed. If the PRD cannot be removed, notify the IC that another source of water is
required; it is never permissible to use an outlet with a PRD.
C) If a building is equipped with both standpipe and sprinkler systems and the standpipe is to
be used, the Engine Company first to arrive must connect the first line to the sprinkler Siamese
and the second line to the standpipe Siamese.
D) The controlling nozzle may be carried attached to the folded lead length. If not carried
attached to a folded length, it shall be carried in the standpipe kit.

Answer 43

A

Question 44

6) At the conclusion of last week’s MUD on standpipe operations, members of a busy
Brooklyn Ladder Company had to correct a detailed member who made which incorrect
comment? (Evol 9 Notes)
A) When supplying the standpipe system, before water is started, the member controlling
supply must personally check connection of hose to the proper Siamese.
B) If a building is equipped with both standpipe and sprinkler systems and the standpipe is to
be used, the Engine Company first to arrive must connect the first line to the standpipe Siamese
and the second line to the sprinkler Siamese. Another pumper must augment the supply to both
the standpipe and sprinkler systems.
C) Members must always be protected from exposed butts of hoselines. For this reason, carry
the folded lengths in a way so that butts are outside, facing away from the body, to minimize the
chance of butts flopping around and injuring members.
D) In addition to signs or plates, the color of Siamese or outlet caps may indicate the system as
follows:
Standpipe - Red
Automatic Sprinkler - Green
Non-Automatic Sprinkler - Aluminum
Combination Standpipe/Sprinkler - Yellow

Answer 44

C

Question 45

1) A member of a Brooklyn Engine Company entered the Lieutenant’s office to discuss the
Department’s self mutual policy. Which point made during the discussion was incorrect?
(PAID 3-94 2.1.2, 2.2.1,2.2.2, 2.3)
A) If possible, a self mutual request should be made at least 72 hours in advance.
B) No repayment of tours owed will be permitted on Memorial Day and Veterans Day.
C) A member taking a self mutual off on a Tuesday 9X6 tour may pay it back on a Friday 9X6
tour.
D) A member may take a self mutual off Friday 6X9 if he/she previously worked a self mutual
on a Wednesday 6X9.

Answer 45

D

Question 46

2) Which choice below contains the most correct statements regarding the Fire Department
self mutual policy? (PAID 4-94 4.1 - 4.8)
1. Members may work a maximum of four self-mutuals in any calendar year.
2. Members are permitted to owe the Department a maximum of two tours prior to repayment.
3. Members shall complete repayment of the self-mutual within 90 days of the tour involved
under normal circumstances.
4. Tours not repaid by December 31 of each year will be carried over to the next calendar year
but will not be counted as a self-mutual for that next calendar year.
5. A self mutual off will only be permitted for tours when the applicant’s regularly assigned
group is scheduled to work.
6. A self mutual repayment will be permitted only when the applicant’s regularly assigned
group is not scheduled to work.
7. Members are permitted to link a payback self mutual tour with a regularly scheduled work
tour (24 hours) when assignments for both tours are within the same or adjoining company.
8. Members may be permitted to accumulate a maximum of one self-mutual tour to be repaid
to member at a later date.
A) 1,3, 5, 6, 7
B) 1,2,3, 7, 8
C) 2, 3, 4, 7
D) 1,3, 4, 5, 6, 7

Answer 46

A

Question 47

3) BC QUESTION - A newly promoted Battalion Chief should be able to identify which
incorrect comment regarding self mutuals for firefighters? (PAID 3-94 2.1.1,
2.1.3, 2.2.3, 3.2.3)
A) Battalions shall base their approval on the availability of replacement manpower.
B) Battalions shall notify the Office of Staffing Assignment (OSA) by telephone of all self�mutuals granted.
C) Battalions shall verify the Citywide Staffing Level on the day before the requested tour by
contacting OSA by telephone, no sooner than 1200 hours.
D) Battalions are not required to keep records of self-mutuals granted and repaid. This is the
responsibility of the Office of Staffing Assignment (OSA).

Answer 47

D

Question 48

4) BC QUESTION - Restrictions may be placed on members who do not fillfill their
obligations when it comes to self mutuals. Which statement below is incorrect? (PAID 3-
94 4.3)
A) If a member fails to repay a tour as required, the member shall not be permitted to make
24-hour mutuals.
B) If a member fails to repay a tour as required, the member shall not be permitted to work a
Minimum Staffing overtime tour until repayment has been completed.
C) If a member fails to repay a tour as required, the member shall not be permitted to work a
Roster Staffing overtime tour until repayment has been completed.
D) The 90-day time limit for repaying a self mutual off may be extended by the Battalion
Commander due to extraordinary circumstances (e.g. LODI, YL, etc.).

Answer 48

C

Question 49

5) Which member below correctly received their CFR-D pay differential in accordance with
Department policy? (PAID 3-98 2.2.1, 2.2.4, 2.3, 3.1)
A) The CFR-D certified OV FF of a Ladder Company performed stabilization of a person’s
spine/neck at a vehicle accident where the assigned Engine was delayed, and received CFR-D
pay differential for the tour.
B) The CFR-D certified Nozzle FF of an Engine Company returning to quarters at 1820 hours
on a single day tour received 9 hours and 20 minutes CFR-D pay differential.
C) The non-CFR-D certified Backup FF of an Engine Company working a 6X9 tour received
a 15 hour CFR-D pay differential.
D) The CFR-D certified Control FF of an Engine Company working a 6X9 tour was placed on
medical leave at 2300 hours and received a 15 hour CFR-D pay differential.

Answer 49

A

Question 50

6) A member due to report to the Bureau of Training for Annual Education Day should know
which point below to be incorrect? (PAID 1-08 2.3.2, 2.4. 3.1, 3.2, 3.3)
A) All members shall report in properly groomed with work duty shirt and shorts or long
pants; no bunker gear is required.
B) Members shall not be permitted to work the 6x9 tour prior to, or the 6x9 tour following,
Education Day.
C) Reimbursement leaves or school attendance variances will not be granted to members of a
unit scheduled for Education Day without the approval of the Executive Officer of the Bureau of
Training.
D) Mutuals on the day of Education Day are prohibited.

Answer 50

A

Question 51

7) A member due to report to the Bureau of Health Services for their Annual Medical
Examination should know which point below to be incorrect? (PAID 2-08 1.7, 2.3,
2.3.1,2.3.2, 3.1,3.2)
A) Members shall report in properly groomed and in proper work duty uniform (no shorts).
Members shall bring their FDNY ID card whenever reporting to the Bureau of Health Services.
B) Units scheduled for examination shall go out of service for the 9x6 tour, except on the day
that the independent group is scheduled to report to the Bureau of Health Services.
C) Reimbursement leaves or school attendance variances shall not be granted to members of a
unit scheduled for examination except with the approval of the Executive Officer of Health
Services.
D) Only mutual exchanges for the 6x9 tour prior to the scheduled examination will not be
granted. Members are permitted to work a mutual exchange the 6X9 tour following the
examination.

Answer 51

D

Question 52

8) Which member below did not report for duty in compliance with Department regulations?
(PAID 1-08 3.4,3.5, PAID 2-08 1.4, 1.6)
A) A 6th grade FF attended Education Day on 2/2/2018, and then again with her company on
7/25/2018.
B) A Lieutenant attended Education Day on 11/10/2018, bit did not attend again with his
company on 4/1/2019.
C) A Captain attended her annual medical examination on 1/12/2018 and then again on
8/2/2018 due to a group change.
D) A 6th grade FF received his 5th grade medical examination on 3/5/2018, but did not report
for his annual medical examination on 9/1/2018.

Answer 52

D

Question 53

9) BC QUESTION - A newly promoted Captain studying for Battalion Chief was incorrect in
which statement he made to another member regarding Battalion annual medical examinations?
(PAID 2-08 2.5.2)
A) Only the scheduled Battalion Chief shall report to the Bureau of Health Services from
quarters with the Battalion Vehicle. The Battalion Firefighter shall report to the Bureau of Health
Services from their place of residence.
B) Battalions should leave quarters promptly at 0900 hours.
C) The scheduled Battalion Chief and Firefighter shall participate in a training program upon
completion of their medical examination.
D) The scheduled Battalion will be out-of-service for the duration of the medical examination
and training session.

Answer 53

A