SPRING WEEK 1 HAZMAT 10-13 Flashcards
1) Knowing the skills and capabilities of units an officer may respond with will only add to
his or her experience. Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding
SOC Support Ladder Companies (SSL)? (HM 10 1.3, 2.5, 2.6, 4.1)
A) SSLs are not capable of identifying many materials, which will require the advanced skills
and equipment of a Hazardous Materials Technician Unit (HMTU) or Haz-Mat Company 1
(HMC1).
B) SSLs shall not be special called to fires in lieu of calling a Rescue or Squad company.
C) SSLs shall not be special called to a haz-mat incident in lieu of a Hazardous Material
Technician Unit or Hazardous Materials Company 1.
D) To operate as a SSL, the unit shall be staffed with a minimum of one trained officer or
trained acting officer and at least four trained firefighters.
D
2) SSLs may be deployed in a variety of situations. Of the following, which would be an
incorrect tactic? (HM 10 7.1, 7.3, 7.4)
A) For a suspended scaffold emergency, SSLs shall utilize the 1/2” kemmantle rope in place
of the 9/16” Life Saving Rope when lowering a safety line to stranded workers to attach to their
harnesses.
B) For collapse operations, although SSLs have received basic training in the five phases of
the collapse rescue plan, they do not carry the shoring materials required to permit them to
function fully in areas where substantial risk of secondary collapse is present.
C) For collapse operations, in the event it is necessary to perform any evolution which requires
tunneling, trenching, or cutting through supporting members, a SSL with the appropriate shoring
material and techniques shall perform this operation.
D) For trench cave-in responses, SSLs shall immediately begin scene evaluation, and hazard
identification through the use of their air monitoring equipment. They shall establish a safe zone
around the perimeter of the site, with the prevention of a secondary cave-in as the prime
consideration and will, if possible, begin removing the spoil pile from the danger zone if that has
been identified as a problem.
C
3) During trench cave-in operations, SSLs shall operate in full compliance with applicable
OSHA regulations which include all of the following procedures with the exception of which
choice? (HM10 7.4)
A) Each employee in an excavation shall be protected from cave-ins by an adequate protective
system (shoring) except when excavations are made entirely in stable rock.
B) Each employee in an excavation shall be protected from cave-ins by an adequate protective
system (shoring) except when excavations are less than 4 feet in depth and examination of the
ground by a competent person provides no indication of a potential cave-in.
C) A stairway, ladder, ramp or other safe means of egress shall be located in trench
excavations that are 4 feet (1.22 m) or more in depth.
D) When a required stairway, ladder, ramp or other safe means of egress is present, it shall be
located so as to require no more than 25 feet of lateral travel for employees.
B
4) SSLs must use extreme caution during confined space operations. Of the following houses,
which is incorrect? (HM 10 7.2)
A) SSLs shall not be permitted to attempt any entry that would require the rescuer to leave the
direct line of sight of the officer supervising entry at the entrance to the space.
B) A fully equipped back-up rescuer shall remain on stand-by in the event the primary (entry)
rescuer is injured, overcome, or needs assistance in escaping the space.
C) SSLs shall only attempt entries where the hazards are not readily identifiable and
controllable when the proper number of SSL-trained members are on-scene; i.e.; two entry team
members, two backup team members, and one decontamination member.
D) SSLs shall only attempt an entry when all necessary precautions to safeguard the rescuer
are taken, specifically, a suitable high point anchor is positioned to allow a retrieval system to be
placed for immediate retrieval of the rescuers, air monitoring to deter if atmospheric hazards are
present, and steps are taken to remove hazards or otherwise protect rescuers from their effects
(e.g., use of the SCBA for asphyxiation hazard).
C
5) There are many hazards to members during a chemical suicide incident. Which of the
following is considered the “primary” hazard? (HM 112)
A) Flammability
B) Inhalation
C) Skin absorption or caustic- acid
D) Blood-Borne pathogens
B
6) An indication of a possible chemical suicide incident is the presence of chemical containers
or strong chemical odors, such as hydrogen sulfide which has? (HM 11 3.2)
A) no odor.
B) a fruity smell.
C) a rotten egg smell.
D) a pungent odor.
C
7) At a chemical suicide incident, there are a number of actions members should take. Which
choice below contains only the actions in accordance with established Department procedures?
(HM 11 4,4.1)
1. Transmit the 10-80 Code 1 signal. Ensure the response of NYPD.
2. Don full PPE and use the SCBA. Minimize the exposure of personnel and resource
commitment.
3. Stretch a charged hoseline with a fog nozzle attached. Primarily for vapor dispersal, the
line may also be used for decontamination and fire suppression in case of ignition or
explosion.
4. Ventilate the vehicle or occupancy after entering.
5. Avoid disturbing the container, generally found in a bucket, as it may increase chemical
mixing and poisonous gas emissions.
6. Remove the patient from the hazardous environment and check for responsiveness. If
unresponsive and the assessment meets FDNY criteria for presumed death, handle the body
as part of the crime scene investigation.
7. Provide patient care according to CFR protocols. Remove the patient’s clothing and flush
with copious amounts of water as a part of emergency decon before transport.
8. When available, use meters to monitor oxygen levels, flammable vapor concentrations, and
the presence of hydrogen sulfide, hydrogen cyanide or other chemicals.
A) 1,2, 3, 4, 5,6, 7, 8
B) 2, 3, 4, 5, 7, 8
C) 1,2, 5, 6,7, 8
D) 2, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8
C
8) An officer trained in Decontamination Engine operations should know which point below
to be incorrect? (HM 12 4.2.1, 4.4.1, 4.4.2, 4.4.5)
A) To operate as a Decon Engine, the company shall be staffed with a minimum of one trained
officer/trained acting officer, and at least four trained firefighters.
B) A Decon Engine company assigned on the initial alarm (not special called as part of the
Technical Decontamination Task Force) will function as a normal Engine Company, as per
Department Fire Tactics and Procedures.
C) All Technical Decontamination procedures will be performed in a well-defined
Decontamination Corridor inside the Warm Zone. Initially this corridor will be free of
contaminants.
D) Decon Engine Personnel can establish the Warm Zone / Decontamination Corridor and set�up the necessary equipment wearing their work duty uniform or bunker gear. Once responders or
patients present at the edge of the decon corridor, personnel staffing the decon must be in
appropriate CPC for the incident encountered.
A
9) BC Question - The type of decontamination employed at a particular event can vary
greatly depending on the circumstances. Of the following choices, which one is unequivocally
incorrect? (HM 12 6.4, 6.6, 7.1)
A) Emergency gross decontamination procedures are not always required for non-ambulatory
patients.
B) Routine Haz-Mat responses with or without patients can be handled with one Technical
Decon Task Force. In certain circumstances, a second Task Force may be required for
augmentation or relief.
C) The optimal staffing of a non-ambulatory decon station for numerous patients requires two
Technical Decon Task Forces.
D) For a chemical attack in a subway that produces numerous ambulatory and non-ambulatory
patients, at least two Decon Task Forces should be called immediately.
D
10) BC Question - Members trained to operate in Chemical Protective Clothing (CPC) may be
directed to administer an antidote for a particular nerve agent. All of the following are correct
regarding this procedure except? (HM 13 3.1, 6.2 - 6.5)
A) The Office of Medical Affairs (OMA) is responsible for oversight of the administration of
the antidote to victims of a nerve agent / organophosphate exposure.
B) The determination to administer the antidote in the Exclusion and Contamination
Reduction Zones will be made by the Incident Commander based on the recommendation of the
Medical Branch Director in conjunction with the OMA Response Physician.
C) The Haz-Tac Officer will direct the administration of the antidote in the Exclusion and
Contamination Reduction Zones.
D) Antidote administration in the Exclusion and Contamination Reduction Zones will be
directed primarily to, but not limited to, Green Tag patients.
D
11) BC Question - The Incident Commander of a complex haz-mat operation has many things
to consider. An experienced Chief should know which choice to be incorrect regarding Technical
Decon Task Forces? (HM 12 2.1, 3.1, 3.2, 3.3, 4.4.1)
A) Technical Decon Task Forces shall only respond to special calls. Incident Commanders
shall assess the potential need for Technical Decon Task Forces and notify the dispatcher to
special call the number of Task Forces required.
B) Each Technical Decon Task Force will be identified by the Battalion from which it was
called. For example, Battalion 26 assigned to respond as part of a Technical Decon Task Force,
along with Decon Engine 73, and SOC Support Ladder 42 with their support vehicle, will be
designated as Technical Decon Task Force 26.
C) The Decon Engine Officer will be designated as the Technical Decon Task Force Leader.
All communications between the Task Force and the Incident Commander will be accomplished
through the Task Force Leader.
D) The Task Force Leader should request specific response instructions while en route to the
incident. Dependent on conditions at the scene (work zones, water supply, wind conditions, etc.)
the Incident Commander may direct that the Task Force respond to a specific location that is
distant from operations in order to allow the Task Force to establish a Decon Corridor to which
people can be directed.
C
