SPRING 2019 WEEK 4 Flashcards
1
Q
- Listed below are four definitions of construction terms taken from the glossary in the
taxpayer bulletin. Which term/s listed below is/are not correctly described? (More than one
Incorrect) Glossary
A. An axial load is a force perpendicular to the supporting member. An axial load is straight
and true and is evenly applied to the bearing structure.
B. An eccentric load is a force whose resultant is perpendicular to the supporting member and
passes through the center of the mass. The load is not evenly applied to the supporting or
bearing member.
C. Impact loads are loads delivered in a short time on structural members and produce stresses
on structural members that may not have been provided for in design and may cause collapse.
D. Lateral loads are loads that are exerted outwardly on a horizontal plane. These forces may
take place during a collapse or an explosion. Walls are not usually designed to withstand severe
lateral loads.
E. Spalling is the process by which masonry surfaces lose successive layers of their mass
when exposed to excessive water.
A
B.E
2
Q
- During a drill members were describing taxpayers with their new proby and made the
following four points. Which point listed below is not correct? 2.1,2.2
A. Taxpayers are business structures one or two stories in height.
B. Taxpayers are commonly of class 3 construction with exterior firewalls and wooden
interior structural members.
C. Their areas vary from 20’ x 50’ to areas of whole city blocks, the most common size being
approximately 100’ x 100’. They can be built on one or more lots with adjoining structures of
greater heights on three sides.
D. These buildings are usually single structures commonly sheltering from one to as many as
10 different businesses with fire resistive partitions and fire stops in the cocklofts
A
D
3
Q
- The taxpayer bulletin tells us that there are three broad categories of taxpayers:
- The older type built from the turn of the century until the 1920’s. This type is usually one
story in height but there are some that have two stories. Some of the older structures have
partitions, girders, beams, and columns of wood and may be considered wood frame
buildings although most have masonry exteriors. - The most prevalent type built from the 1920’s into the 1960’s. They are usually larger in
area than the older types and many are one-tenant occupancies, such as supermarkets,
bowling alleys, restaurants, factories, etc. - The newer type construction built since the 1960’s. These contain the same type of
occupancies and the structural features will be similar to the previous types except that the
use of combustible construction material has been reduced. In many of these buildings the
difference will be the steel bar joists that are used to support the floors and roof in place of
wood beams.
In which category above will a firefighter be able to normally remove the cornice to gain access
to a fire in the cockloft?
A. The older type of taxpayer built from the turn of the century until the 1920’s.
B. The most prevalent type of taxpayer built from the 1920’s into the 1960’s.
C. The newer type of taxpayer construction built since the 1960’s.
A
A
4
Q
- Lt. Smith is working a day tour in L-100 and has just arrived at a fire in a 1 story 20’ x 50’
isolated taxpayer. L-100 is the FAST Unit and upon arrival hear the 1
st due units tell command
that the fire is located in a mezzanine area toward the rear of the store. Lt. Smith decides to tell
the proby working about mezzanine areas in taxpayers and was incorrect in which point listed
below? 2.4
A. Since these areas have probably been added to the premises after the original construction
date, the load bearing components will usually be the same as the original construction of the
taxpayer or better.
B. The mezzanine area is in most cases used for storage of goods, but it can contain offices
(predominant in supermarkets and factories) and also sales areas to which the public will have
access.
C. The height of the ceilings in the mezzanine and the area below will be below average.
Access to this area may be via small wooden stairs or just a ladder. Very seldom will there be
another means of access.
D. Mezzanine areas may be found in the rear of the store or building, some along one side
from front to rear or along part of one side, and a few have been erected in the center of the
premises.
A
A
5
Q
- The wooden bowstring truss is found in older commercial structures in New York City. It
is common in supermarkets, bowling alleys, lumberyards, auto storage garages, and in buildings
that originally housed such occupancies. Which point listed below regarding wooden bowstring
trusses is not entirely correct? 3.3.3
A. Wooden bowstrung trusses have a characteristic hump-like roof profile where the root
appears to rise up from below the parapet wall to tower above it. The longer the span, the higher
the bow.
B. When the bowstring truss was originally designed, engineers used certain assumptions
pertaining to tensile strength of wood. Updated calculations have revealed that bowstring truss
roofs may only support 60% of the load they were originally designed to hold.
C. Bowstring truss roof overload can also occur due to later additions of loads that were not
considered in the original design, such as accumulation of roofing material, heavier ceiling
finishes, new mechanical equipment installations and conversion of the truss space into
mezzanines, storage areas, office space, etc.
D. In the older bowstring truss roof buildings, there is a possibility of rotting at the ends of the
trusses where they rest on the walls, due to water leaking through the roof covering. Truss failure
has occurred without fire impingement.
A
B
6
Q
- Please read the following statement and indicate if you agree or disagree with the
statement. 3.3.3
A truss is composed of two major members, the top one is called the top chord and the
lower one called the bottom chord. Shorter members, called webs, connect the top and
bottom chords. The webs are placed vertically and diagonally, forming triangular
configurations with the chord members. There are many variations but all are essentially
the same; a combination of independent components used to span large distances through
the use of smaller pieces fastened together. Trusses can be either wood or steel.
A. Agree or D. Disagree
A
D
7
Q
- Open web steel joists are commonly found in modem taxpayer construction and members
must have a working knowledge of the hazards associated with these trusses. Which point listed
below about open web steel joists is not correct? 3.3.3
A. Open web steel joists, found in modem taxpayer construction, have no fire resistance
rating. Fire rating depends upon the ceiling finish and finish roofing.
B. Open web steel joists come in standardized lengths, depths, and carrying capacities. They
are used to span long distances up to 60 feet.
C. Unprotected open web steel joists are particularly vulnerable to elevated temperatures of a
fire and may collapse after only 10 or 15 minutes.
D. Open web steel joists may be covered with various roof decks: solid wood, steel deck,
cementitious roof plank, precast concrete, or gypsum plank.
A
C
8
Q
- Operating at taxpayer fires present many dangers to the operating members. Roof
operations can be especially dangerous at these buildings. Which point listed below is an
incorrect point about roof features at taxpayers? 3.3.4
A. On some roofs the skylights, scuttles, and other openings have additional security materials
placed at the ceiling levels of these openings, such as, heavy metal grates, heavy steel plates and
electrically charged grids.
B. If any of these appurtenances listed in choice A above are removed and the area covered
over, the supports for these coverings may be of very light weight, sometimes wood 2 x 4’s
covered with thin sheets of plywood.
C.
“I” beams protruding above the roof surface or roofs built in step fashion with one store
roof slightly higher than another will always indicate where fire division walls are located.
D. Small scuttle covers on the roof, possibly with iron ladders to the interior, may also be
opened to vent rooms below. Ventilators or exhaust ducts which may vent store areas or the
cockloft are sometimes found on the roof.
A
C
9
Q
- The stability of masonry walls is very much dependent on the integrity of the roof. The
roof acts as a monolithic brace which ties the walls together. In effect the roof is holding up the
walls by providing lateral support. A collapse or disintegration of the roof removes this support
and may impart a lateral load, either pushing out, or pulling in, on the wall as stresses are
formed. A member studying for the Lieutenants test would know which points below to be
correct? (More than one correct) 3.4.2
A. Brick walls sometimes hinge at ground level and an entire side or rear wall may remain
intact and fall out flat.
B. Concrete block walls sometimes hinge at ground level and an entire side or rear wall may
remain intact and fall out flat.
C. Concrete block walls usually crumble or break as they fall, but large sections can be
projected a good distance due to the impact as the wall hits the ground.
D. Brick walls usually crumble or break as they fall, but large sections can be projected a good
distance due to the impact as the wall hits the ground.
A
B
10
Q
- After operating at an EMS run in a taxpayer the members of E99 were discussing parapet
wall and their inherent dangers. Each member made a point about parapet walls. Which
member was not entirely correct? 3.4.3
A. A particularly hazardous condition is the possible collapse of the front parapet wall. This
parapet wall is often only supported laterally at short intervals and it receives support at the ends
where it is tied into the crosswalls.
B. Stability of masonry walls depends on the load being concentrated in a vertical direction
through the wall. Any degree of tilting which causes this load to be eccentric to the vertical may
cause collapse.
C. A long section of the parapet wall often remains intact as the wall topples onto the
sidewalk. Members have been killed or injured by such wall collapses.
D. A parapet wall is a continuation of an exterior wall, fire wall, or party wall above the roof
line. The parapet section of the exterior walls may extend around the entire perimeter of a
building roof area.
A
A
11
Q
- L-100 is operating at a small fire in a one story, 100’ x 40’, class 3 taxpayer with 5
stores in it. The fire was in the middle store which is a pharmacy and sits in between a
donut shop and a pizza store. The fire in a shelving unit that was up against the exposure 2
side partition wall. After the fire was knocked down Lt. Smith orders his proby to remove
and overhaul the stock that was on the shelf and is smoldering. The interior plaster
partition wall has substantial burn marks where the fire was burning against the wall. The
Lieutenant tells the proby to open up the wall to make sure there is no extension behind the
plaster covering. While the proby was opening the wall the Lieutenant tells the proby that
when we remove any amount of plaster covering of an interior partition wall, we are
weakening the wall since the plaster covering provides longitudinal rigidity for the
partition wall. Do you agree or disagree with the Lieutenants statement? 3.4.4
A. Agree or D. Disagree
A
D
12
Q
- Exposed steel “I” beams are commonly used in taxpayer construction to support roof and
floor joists. It is important for firefighters to have a good understanding of how steel “I” beams
react under fire conditions. Which is the only correct point listed below regarding steel “I”
Beams? 3.6
A. An average 50 foot long steel “I” beam, heated uniformly over its length to 970 F will
extend in length approximately 6”. At 1000 F a 100-foot long beam will have extended in length
12 /f’
.
B. When steel “I” beams are heated from 1000 F to 1500 F, their yield strength drops
dramatically and while they may soften they will not fail. This temperature can be reached in 15
to 20 minutes at a fire.
C. Exposed steel “1” beams are commonly used in taxpayer construction to support roof and
floor joists.
”1” beams will absorb heat from the fire at a rate dependent on many factors, such
as, the temperature of the fire, the extent of the fire, and the mass of the beam.
D. A large, heavy “I” beam will absorb the same amount of heat and its temperature will rise
the same as a lightweight beam. Because of the conductivity of the steel, this temperature will
diffuse into the beam causing its expansion.
A
C
13
Q
- Members of E-99 are operating at a fire in a taxpayer and are extinguishing the fire in
the rear of the store. L100 has opened up the ceiling and there is a medium fire condition
in the cockloft area. E-99 quickly extinguishes all the fire in the store and the cockloft.
Once the fire is extinguished and the smoke starts to clear the Officer from E-99 notices a
steel “I” beam which was involved in fire and is still glowing red from the heat of the fire.
The Officer from E-99 tells his nozzle firefighter to open the line and cool the steel I beam.
He tells his members that cooling the steel “I” beam will cause it to regain its strength and
load carrying ability. He further states that if the beam has already sagged under the
weight of floors or roof, firefighters should not be allowed in the possible collapse zone,
whether these beams are cooled or not since the steel will contract to its original length as it
is cooled and if the beam has sagged, this shortening may pull the end of the beams off their
supports or twist the beam allowing the joists to drop. Do you agree or disagree with the
Officer of E99’s statements? 3.6.4
A. Agree or D. Disagree
A
A
14
Q
- Taxpayers fires are dangerous due to the many hazards that may be stored within the
building itself. Adding to that is the many structural and construction hazards that taxpayers
present to firefighters. Which point below is not correct regarding hazards found at taxpayer
fires? 3.8,3.9
A. Heavy terrazzo or concrete is sometimes placed over wood joist floor construction which is
an exceptionally hazardous condition. A fire in the cellar may weaken floor supports with little
evidence of heat conditions on the first floor. Sudden failure due to weight on the floor is
possible.
B. When pulling sheetrock ceilings, large pieces often fall flat in one large section and can
inflict injury due to its weight. Long ceiling ducts may be sandwiched between hanging ceilings
and usually have numerous supporting ties to hold them securely.
C. Suspended ceilings offer their own collapse potential when loaded with water or weakened
by fire. They are suspended by light wood strips, steel wire, or steel bars, all of which are
quickly affected by fire.
D. Suspended ceilings should be punched with a hook for water detection, to check
construction, and fire conditions. Multiple layers of tin, sheetrock, or tiles may have been
affixed together on supports which were not intended to carry such weight.
A
B
15
Q
- Members were discussing cellar fires in taxpayers and made the following three statements
below. Which statement(s) is/are correct? 3.10.3 - Partition walls between cellars are usually of combustible or flimsy construction and joist
channels at cellar ceilings are often not firestopped allowing fire, combustible gas, and
smoke extension from cellar to cellar. - Cellar areas are often divided into a maze of storage spaces and the layout of the cellar will
usually conform to the layout of the store above. - Outside cellar stairs are usually found in the rear of taxpayers. When there are several
stores in the building, these stairs may lead to a passageway along the rear cellar wall from
which access can be gained to the various storage areas.
A. All statements are correct.
B. All statements are incorrect.
C. Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
D. Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
E. Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
A
E
16
Q
- Overhead security doors present problems for firefighters operating at a fire in a taxpayer.
These overhead doors may cover Siamese connections, delay entry into the fire occupancy, and
may rest on sidewalk entrance doors to the cellar. Which point made by members during a drill
on overhead doors is not correct? 3.11.1
A. When there are a number of stores in a building all with overhead doors, it may be difficult
to determine the exact location of the entrance door or doors to the stores. Overhead signs might
give a clue.
B. At fires heat can cause springs in overhead door to lose tension. If these doors start down
without the counterbalance of fully tensioned springs they will come down with tremendous
force. Doors used in residential installations range in weight from 150 - 400 pounds.
C. When the spring tension is gone, the motor or hoist devices act as a safety and will prevent
the door from coming down. In addition, at more advanced fires the steel track on either side can
warp pulling, out the rollers and allowing the door to drop flat.
D. Attempting to force large overhead doors that have lost spring tension will require lifting
dead weight and normally may be futile. Treat every open overhead door for what it is, a heavy
overhead hazard.
A
C
17
Q
- The weight of an overhead door that is added to the front walls, especially when these
doors are in the closed position, can cause the lintel over the store front to fail and the wall and
door assembly may fall during a fire. 3.11.1
A. True or B. False
In the larger type occupancy such as a supermarket, there are two means of egress. The
customers, however, are aware of the main entrance only, since the secondary exit is usually
remote or obscure. 3.12
A. True or B. False
A
B/A
18
Q
- In assessing the possibility of a structural collapse, consideration must be given to the type
of construction involved in the fire, the intensity of the fire, and the time that the structural
members have been burning or subjected to the heat of the fire. All of the following points listed
below are may be causes of collapse during a fire in a taxpayer except which one? 4.2.4
A. A heavy body of fire which has been burning out of control for 15 minutes or more,
particularly in a large open floor area.
B. Presence of water absorbent materials such as rags, paper, and clothing, which increase
floor loads when wet and which may push out walls by expansion from the absorbed water.
C. Heating of unprotected structural members resulting in expansion with walls being pushed
out and columns out of plumb.
D. Girders, beams, and columns being twisted out of shape due to excessive heat and in turn
causing floor joists to lose their bearing support and fall free.
E. Backdrafts blowing out walls or floors, weakened and burned out structural members,
vibration or movement in or near a weakened building, and water, ice, or snow loads on the roof.
A
A
19
Q
- A backdraft is the ignition and rapid combustion of a mixture of flammable gas or dust and
air which flashes back through openings around the fire area. Which point about a backdraft is
not correct? 4.4.1
A. The three basic factors necessary for ordinary combustion and a backdraft are
combustibles, oxygen, and heat.
B. A room or fire area requires only 10 percent of its space to contain the explosive mixture
for the entire area to possibly explode.
C. Warning signs of a potential backdraft are glass windows stained with smoke condensation
and pulsating from the pressure of the fire or the reversal of air with smoke being pulled back
into a smoke filled opening.
D. Cellar and storage areas are particularly vulnerable to backdrafts, although backdrafts can
occur in any part of a structure.
A
B
20
Q
- BC Question.
- E99, E98, E97, LI00, LI01, and BC5 have arrived at a 1 story, class 3, 40’
x 50’ isolated taxpayer with 2 stores. There appears to be a fire in the Chinese restaurant, the
store on the exposure 2 side. The windows of the Chinese restaurant are pulsating and there is a
dirty brown smoke leaking out of the AC unit above the front door. Both roof firefighters from
LI00 and LI01 are on the roof, the Engine Companies have stretched a 2 hoseline to the front
of the building, and LI 00 is getting ready to force the front door. The roof firefighters report that
there is a skylight over the Chinese food store and that the glass is pulsating from the pressure of
the fire. The BC at this operation would be correct to issue which order listed below at this fire?
4.4
A. Order the members of L-100 to force the front door, enter to start a search, and locate the
main body of fire while the Engine Companies advance the 2 !6” line into the store.
B. Have the Engine Co. take a flanking position and discharge the hoseline into fire area after
the Ladder Co. forces the front door. This is the most effective way to attack a fire where a
possible backdraft condition exists.
C. Have the roof firefighters open the roof directly over the fire. After the roof is vented have
L-100 force the front door and order the Engine Co. to advance their line into the store to
extinguish the fire.
A
C
21
Q
- E-99 is advancing a hoseline deep into a large cellar to attack a fire that is located in the
rear of the cellar. The Ladder Co. has located the fire in a storage room and is holding the door
closed waiting for the line to arrive. Members advancing the line took the following action and
were incorrect in which one below? 4.7
A. The control firefighter was posted as a lookout at the top of a cellar stairs to observe
conditions.
B. While advancing through the cellar the Officer continually checked the stability of the floor
and the ceiling above.
C. The Officer called for a backup line to be positioned at the top of the cellar stairs.
D. The members of E99 bunched up on the line in order to ensure each other’s safety.
A
D
22
Q
- During afternoon drill members were discussing a recent fire that they operated at. The fire
started on the first floor and spread to the cockloft of a 1 story taxpayer. Which statement is not
entirely correct regarding cockloft fires in taxpayers? 5.3
A. Since most fires originate in the rear of the first floor where utilities, storage, and services
are located, this is the area from which the fire usually extends to the cockloft.
B. The standard flat roof may have little or no pitch. If it is pitched, it will be from the front to
the rear.
C. If fire enters the cockloft at the low point or rear of the building, our fire problem is less
severe than if it has entered into the cockloft at the front.
D. When a taxpayer has an inverted roof, the roof beams create the original ceiling level.
Roof supports of 2 inch x 4 inch short studs are connected to the roof beams and extended
upward, where they connect to a roof grid to which the roof boards are nailed.
A
C
23
Q
- Which point below about venting the roof at a taxpayer fire is correct? 5.4.5,
5.4.6, 5.4.7, 5.4.12, 5.4.13, 5.4.14,
A. When cutting a vent hole in the roof of a taxpayer the hole must be large enough to remove
the bulk of the heat, smoke, and fire. A hole 3’x6’ where possible is recommended.
B. The immediate ventilation and cutting of an effective size hole on the roof calls for two
saws and two members on the roof. A Roof Sector Supervisor must supervise roof operations
when more than two power saws are working on the roof.
C. Additional ladder companies should be special called to the scene of the operation as
needed. The 2
nd arriving officer should initiate this, if necessary. A Roof Sector Supervisor
should be assigned as early as possible to supervise roof operations. This should be a Chief
Officer.
D. Scuttles, skylights, or covers of former skylights that are located over or near the main
body of fire should be opened first. Make sure that ceilings or other sealed spaces below such
openings are pushed down and opened to permit the exit of heat, smoke, gases, and fire.
A
D
24
Q
- BC Question - BC Knowitall is the IC at a fire in a 100’x50’ 1 story taxpayer with 5
stores. The fire is in the middle store, the pizza store. The dispatcher just notified BC
Knowitall’s aid and told him that the Deputy was involved in an accident and is going to be
delayed. The 1
st due Ladder Co. officer calls BC Knowitall and tells him that the fire in the store
is advanced but it has not extended into the cockloft. Two 2 ’A” lines have been stretched into
the store due the volume of the fire. Rescue is in the exposure, 02, and reports that the fire has
burnt through the partition wall but that they can hold it with the can. Squad is in the opposite
exposure, 04, and reports that there is a light smoke condition and no fire extension. The roof
firefighters call BC Knowitall and report that the roof is open and there is no fire extension into
the cockloft. In this situation BC Knowitall should take which action below? 5.7.4
A. Transmit a 2nd alarm.
B. Transmit a 10-75 along with an all hands.
C. Transmit a 10-75 along with an all hands and call for an additional Engine and Truck.
D. Continue to operate with the units on the scene and await the arrival of the Deputy Chief.
A
A
25
Q
- Members were discussing the cutting of roofs and floors at taxpayer fires and made the
following four points. Which point below is incorrect? 5.5
A. The direction and force of the wind is often a critical factor in determining the plan of
action in cutting the roof. The most effective and quickest cutting will be accomplished if you
work with the wind at your back.
B. Generally, wood joists run the long side of a building or occupancy, particularly in the
older taxpayers where the occupancies within a taxpayer have frontages not exceeding forty feet.
C. Wood joist beams are usually spaced 16 inches on center. Wood flooring and roof boards
when nailed directly to roof beams are nailed at right angles to these joists.
D. In most cases, you will not know for certain how the joists run until a ceiling is pulled, or
the floor or roof boards are removed and you can visually observe them.
A
B
26
Q
- With increased knowledge regarding bowstring truss roof construction, a cautious approach
must be adapted, regardless of the size of the fire area. Which point listed below is incorrect
when operating at a fire in a taxpayer with bowstring truss roof construction? 5.5.25
A. Prior to implementing interior operations, the IC must perform a risk assessment keeping in
mind that the life hazard and safety of the members involved in the operation is of paramount
concern.
B. If interior operations are implemented, the operating force and interior operational time
shall be kept to a minimum with the maximum amount of supervision.
C. At large and/or advanced fires, or where the timber trusses or the underside of the roof are
involved in fire, exterior operations should be the primary tactical consideration.
D. If a building has a wooden, metal, or combination bowstring truss design, members will
only be allowed to operate on the roof if the fire is small and is confined to the contents only.
A
D
27
Q
- BC Question - When firefighters encounter a fire in structure with bowstring truss roof
construction, the IC must perform a risk assessment keeping in mind that the life hazard and
safety of the members involved in the operation is of paramount concern. The IC may
implement an interior attack after a risk assessment has been performed. The IC should take all
but which of the following factors into consideration? 5.5.25
A. The current structural stability of the building.
B. The size and location of the fire.
C. Any possible life hazard.
D. Verification of safe access to the fire area.
A
C
28
Q
- During afternoon drill members were talking about collapse of wooden bowstring truss
roots and made the following four points. Which point listed below is incorrect? 3.3.3, 5.5.25
A. Wood truss roots appear to fail without warning. The roof does not sag or get spongy.
Steel trusses tend to stretch when losing their strength because of elevated temperatures, but
wood tends to snap.
B. The added live load of firefighters and their equipment on a roof of this type can precipitate
a collapse. Truss failure has occurred without fire impingement.
C. Units are reminded of the collapse potential of these type roof systems, with particular
attention being paid to the side walls. This is due to the hip rafters being pushed in an upward
and outward fashion when the main roof collapses.
D. When there is a need for members to operate on a bowstring truss roof of a building not
involved in fire, the IC must take into account the past history of truss failure in these buildings,
particularly if the building is vacant.
A
C
29
Q
- Recently BC Kascone operated at two different fires in taxpayers and was designated as the
roof sector supervisor at both fires. Both taxpayers were 60’ x 50’ class 3, and had 3 stores in
each. In which fire(s) listed below would BC Kascone be correct to start a trench cut?
Fire 1: The fire started on the 1
st
floor in the middle store and extended to and spread
throughout the cockloft.
Fire 2: The fire started in the cellar and spread to the 1
st
floor. Units on the scene were having
trouble extinguishing the fire on the 1
st
floor and thought the fire was going to spread to
the cockloft. The fire was eventually extinguished and contained to the cellar and first
floor.
A. Both fires.
B. Fire 1 only.
C. Fire 2 only.
D. Neither fire 1 or fire 2.
A
C
30
Q
- BC Question - A BC running a fire in a taxpayer would be correct to know that at a serious
fire in a taxpayer the need for and use ofLadder companies is not unusual. 5.4.13
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
A
B
31
Q
- In newer taxpayers the roof supports are of lightweight open web steel joists. These
lightweight steel joists present many hazards to firefighters operating at fires in these buildings.
Which point below is not correct regarding lightweight steel joists? 5.5.26
A. Roofs of fire buildings with lightweight steel joists as the roof support system can only be
cut if the fire is confined to the contents only.
B. Vertical ventilation should be limited to removal of skylights and scuttle covers if present.
C. Lightweight open web steel joists are spaced greater distances apart than the standard wood
joists.
D. The spacing of the joists will vary depending on the strength of the joists and the type of
roof decking used.
E. Fire resistance of lightweight steel joists is a function of the mass of the material.
Lightweight members have little inherent fire resistance.
A
A
32
Q
- During a recent day tour Lt. Smith of L-100, decided to give the proby the roof for the
first time. Just after roll call L-100 responded to a fire in a 1 story, 60’x 60’ taxpayer. The
fire started in the rear utility room and extended to the cockloft. After performing his
initial duties the proby started to cut a vent hole in the roof with the saw. As he started to
cut he noticed a white powdery residue around the saw blade. He called his officer to tell
him and Lt. Smith instructed the proby to finish the cut and then get off the roof. The
proby also notified the IC. Do you agree or disagree with Lt. Smith’s order? 5.5.26 H
A. Agree or D. Disagree
A
D
33
Q
- L-100 is operating at a fire on the 3
rd
floor of a 5 story multiple dwelling. While operating
on the roof, the roof firefighter is trying to call his officer to let him know that the cockloft is
clear, but his officer is not answering his repeated calls. In this situation the roof firefighter
would be correct to contact which member listed below? 9.2.2 B
A. The Engine Officer who is operating in the fire apartment with the officer from L-100.
B. The Ladder Co. Chauffeur of L-100.
C. The Incident Commander.
D. The Irons FF from L-100.
A
B
34
Q
- The importance of communications between units and the IC cannot be overemphasized.
Information of a routine nature should be communicated to the Company Officer, while more
serious information should go directly to the IC. Which member listed below should transmit the
following points of information to the IC: 9.3.1
• Location of the fire. (Wing, floor, apt. number etc.)
• Fire conditions.
• Access to the fire area.
• Whether the fire is extending and how it is extending.
• Difficulties or delays in gaining entrance to the fire area.
• If any occupants have located or are reported missing.
A. The1
st
due Ladder Co. Officer at the fire area.
B. The1
st
due Engine Co. Officer at the fire area.
C. The2
nd due Engine Co. Officer at the fire area.
D. Thefirst Officer who arrives at the fire area.
A
D
35
Q
- During a drill about mayday and urgent transmissions, each member of E-99 made a point
on the subject. Which point made was not entirely correct? 9.4
A. When giving an urgent or a mayday, the member must always press the Emergency Alert
Button. This will ensure that the message gets transmitted at maximum wattage.
B. Mayday and urgent messages are intended for use in situations where immediate
communication is necessary to protect life or prevent injury.
C. The term “collapse” is to be used to indicate structural failure only. Mayday transmissions
have priority over urgent transmissions.
D. Whenever the Emergency Alert Button has been pressed, and/or a mayday or urgent is
transmitted, all HT communications on that frequency are to cease, except those between the
member initiating the emergency transmission and the IC.
A
A
36
Q
- The IC must conduct a roll call in all of the following MAYDAY and URGENT situations
listed below except for which one? 9.4, 9.4.2
A. When a MAYDAY is transmitted for a “collapse imminent”
.
B. When a MAYDAY is transmitted for a “structural collapse has occurred”.
C. When an URGENT is transmitted when an “interior attack is discontinued”.
D. When an URGENT is transmitted for a “danger of collapse”
A
D
37
Q
- While reviewing a recent operation at a 1 story, 20’x40’ taxpayer where a mayday was
transmitted for an imminent collapse, members were listening to the HT transmissions and heard
the following: 9.4.1 A, 9.4.2 C
Mayday, Mayday, Mayday, L-99 OV to Command Mayday.
Command to L-99 OV go ahead with your Mayday.
L-99 OV to Command, mayday - collapse imminent, the rear wall is about to collapse,
there are cracks in the wall. I am in the rear, exposure 3, looking at the exposure 3 wall.
Command to all units, Mayday, Back out of the building, back out of the building.
Command, the IC, then immediately conducted a roll call and accounted for all the
members.
After the mayday was resolved, the IC notified all units.
Please choose the correct answer below.
A. The entire transmission is correct.
B. The entire transmission is incorrect.
C. The transmission and actions of the IC are correct.
D. The transmission and the actions of the OV from L-99 are correct.
E. The transmission and actions of the IC are correct; however the transmissions and actions
from the OV of L-99 are incorrect.
A
D
38
Q
- All of the following below are correct mayday messages except for which one? 9.4.1
A. Engine 222 to Command, Mayday-Unconscious Member. The following information is
transmitted: Location, Unit and ID of the Injured Member, Nature and extent of the injuries, if
known, and Resources needed.
B. Ladder 11 to Command, Mayday - Missing Member.
The following information is transmitted: Last know location or reference point, Unit the
member is working in that tour, Name of the affected member, and Assignment (roof, nozzle).
C. Ladder 43 Fast OV to Command Mayday - Missing Member Found. The following
information is transmitted: Location, ID of member to determine if it is the reported missing
member, and Resources needed to reach safety.
D. Ladder 44 OV to Command, Mayday - Collapse has occurred. The following information
is transmitted: Location and extent of collapse, Number and nature of injuries, and if anyone is
trapped.
A
C
39
Q
- Lt. Smith was drilling with the proby assigned to E-99 and was discussing mayday and
urgent transmissions. Lt. Smith made the following two statements: - An urgent transmission is used to indicate that a member has suffered a serious
injury that is not immediately life threatening or to inform members of a serious
change in conditions. - Anytime a member discovers another member with any type of non-life threatening
injury, he/she shall immediately press their Emergency Alert Button, and then contact
the IC in the following format: “urgent, urgent, urgent, Engine 99 to command,
urgent.”
Which statement(s) below is/are correct? 9.4.2
A. Only statement 1 is correct.
B. Only statement 2 is correct.
C. Both statements are correct.
D. Both statements are incorrect.
A
A
40
Q
- When units arrive on the scene of a fire and are unable to secure a positive water source,
certain actions must be taken to remedy this problem as quickly as possible. Which action below
is incorrect when units are unable to secure a positive water source? 9.4.2 B
A. Whenever any Engine Co. is operating at the scene of a lire and is unable to secure a
positive water source, the ECC should immediately press his/her EAB button and transmit an
urgent message to the IC.
B. The urgent message should be transmitted to the IC as follows: Urgent, Urgent, Urgent,
E-99 Chauffeur to command Urgent.
C. When the IC acknowledges the urgent message the ECC should respond as follows: E-99
Chauffeur to command, Urgent 10-70 and then provide information to the IC such as dead
hydrant, apparatus breakdown, or insufficient pressure.
D. The IC shall announce over the HT when a positive water source has been attained. The IC
shall also inform the Borough Dispatcher that a positive water source has been attained.
A
A
41
Q
- During the recent cold spell E-99 operated at numerous fires and at four of these fires they
had to transmit urgent messages. Which urgent message transmitted by E-99 was not entirely
correct? 9.4.2
A. When the nozzle firefighter became aware of a structural problem that indicated a danger
of collapse he transmitted an urgent, used the words “Collapse Feared”, and gave his location
and conditions discovered.
B. When the Officer of E-99 noticed that the wind was impacting the fire and endangering the
nozzle team he transmitted an urgent message, used the words “Fire Extending”, and then waited
for the IC’s directions.
C. When the control firefighter noticed a burst length he transmitted an urgent, used the words
“Water Loss, and told the IC the nature of the problem and the ID of the units affected.
D. When the ECC noticed that fire was entering exposure two he transmitted an urgent, used
the words “Fire Extending”, and then gave the location and the nature of the extension.
A
B
42
Q
- The Emergency Alert Tone Assisted Rescue can be utilized to home in on the location of
missing, lost, or trapped members. This procedure takes advantage of the increased wattage of
the emergency alert tone and maximum volume output regardless of the missing member’s
volume setting, and requires only one handie talkie. Which point about this procedure is not
correct? 9.5
A. The IC announces over FIT that an emergency alert tone assisted rescue is to be
implemented and designates a new primary tactical channel. This channel shall not be the same
one on which the missing, lost, or trapped member was operating.
B. The emergency alert tone will be created by a designated member as follows: A H/T is
placed on the channel which the missing, lost, or trapped member was operating. The EAB is
pressed every few seconds to transmit the emergency alert tone and then pausing to allow for the
possibility of a response from the missing, lost, or trapped member.
C. Searchers listen for the beacon tone emanating from the missing, lost, or trapped member’s
HT. When beacon tone has been detected, searchers home in on member’s location by use of the
beacon tone.
D. When the definite location of member has been determined, the emergency alert tone
should be discontinued to lessen the discomfort of the trapped member and to enable
communication between this member and searchers.
A
C
43
Q
- Feedback assisted rescue is another procedure that may be used to locate a missing, lost, or
trapped member. This procedure utilizes the handie talkie feedback noise in order to home in on
the location of missing, lost, or trapped members. Which point about this procedure is incorrect?
9.5
A. The H/T’s used for the feedback assisted rescue are placed on the channel that the missing
member was operating on.
B. A member is designated to produce the feedback and is assigned two H/T’s.
C. The H/T speakers are held 1 to 2 inches apart as this produces the loudest high pitch
feedback tone.
D. The transmit buttons of both HT’s are pressed and held for 60 seconds until the time out
timer cuts off the transmitter.
A
D
44
Q
- While discussing the handie talkie during a drill, members made the following points and
were only correct in which one below? 9.6, 9.7, 9.8
A. Certain areas in a building are conducive to good HT operations like the outer area of a
structure, windows, or unobstructed shafts. It may be necessary to move around until best
location is found.
B. Members may, during visits to hospitals, use their HT’s in a normal fashion. The H/T’s
radio frequency transmissions will not interfere with patient care equipment.
C. All facepieces are equipped with voicemitters. When transmitting with the facepiece
donned, place the microphone in the vicinity of the voicemitter.
D. HT communications in the subways system are good from level to level. Communications
in straight line are excellent. Some subway stations have multiple levels underground, which
will require additional handie talkies.
A
A
45
Q
- When a Ladder Co. performs salvage at the scene of an operation, a report must be
completed. From the choices below please select who must file this report and where must the
report be sent/stored? 12
A. The Ladder Co. officer of the unit who performs salvage at an operation must complete the
SAL-2 form and forward it to the IC responsible for the fire report.
B. The IC of the operation must complete the SAL-2 form and include it in the NYIRS report.
C. The IC of the operation must complete the SAL-2 and file it in their unit records.
D. The Ladder Co. officer of the unit who performs salvage at an operation must complete the
SAL-2 form and file it in their unit records.
A
D
46
Q
- BC Question - BC Knowitall is the IC at an all hands fires on the 2
nd
floor of a two
story private dwelling. The fire was contained to a rear bedroom with slight extension to
the cockloft. Members had to cut the roof, take 2 windows, and they used one line to
extinguish the fire. The Deputy Chief already took up when BC Knowitall decides that he
needs a unit to perform salvage operations. There were five engines and three trucks still
on the scene. BC Knowitall looked around and ordered E-100 to perform salvage
operations since they were the extra engine above the all hands and stood fast for the
duration of the operation. Do you agree or disagree with BC Knowitall’s order? 11
A. Agree or D. Disagree
A
D
47
Q
- Which point listed below about salvage operations at a fire operation is not correct?
1.1, 1.3, 2.2, 4.1
A. Salvage is defined as the saving of possessions in danger of being lost by a fire and is a
definite function of a fire department, particularly of a ladder company.
B. Salvage begins with the fire is knocked down and continues throughout operations and
overhaul. The ladder company officer in his overhauling size-up must include a salvage size up.
C. During operations all members are salvage firefighters and should try to extinguish, vent,
overhaul, and examine in a manner that avoids unnecessary damage to the premises and contents.
D. In addition to our normal complement of tools the following equipment should be available
in order to properly protect property: plastic sheeting, staples and staple guns, hammers and
nails.
A
B
48
Q
- The portable power saw comes equipped with a variety of cutting blades. High engine
speed and availability of special blades enables the operator to cut almost any material
encountered at fires or emergency operations. Which description of the various blades listed
below is incorrect? 2.2
A. Carbide tip blades will cut through gravel and tar covered roofs, wood flooring, light sheet
metal, and similar material. The operational life span of the blade is short and dislodged carbide
tips becoming airborne have caused injury to members.
B. Aluminum Oxide blades, abrasive disc, will cut through various types of steel, including
auto bodies, metal security doors, metal window bars, etc.
C. Silicon Carbide blades, abrasive disc, will cut through concrete and other masonry
materials.
D. The diamond metal/concrete blade can replace both the aluminum oxide and silicon oxide
blades. The combination blade is also recommended to cut wood, gravel and tar covered roofs,
and light sheet metal.
A
D
49
Q
- The portable power saw is a highly effective tool, however it must be properly maintained
to ensure it operates at peak performance and in a safe manner. Which point listed below is
incorrect regarding the maintenance of the portable power saw? 3.2, 3.3, 3.4
A. The saw should be placed out of service if blade continues to spin at a low idle as this is
usually the result of clutch failure.
B. Return carbide-tipped blades to the Technical Service Division when more than eight tips
are missing, broken, or worn down to the circumference of the blade.
C. Return aluminum oxide or silicon carbide blades for replacement whenever they are
cracked, badly nicked, if the center hole wears out of round, or the blade is worn down to 8” in
diameter or less.
D. Belt adjustments, including a visual inspection of the belt should be done weekly at MUD
and after every cutting operation. Blades must be kept tight when on the saw.
A
B
50
Q
- The combination metal/concrete saw blade is 12” in diameter, diamond brazed, and can
replace the aluminum oxide and abrasive disk blades. After using the diamond blade at an
operation members noticed that it was glazed over and cutting ineffectively. From the choices
below please choose the correct way to remedy this condition. TB Tools 9 Append D,
Data Sheet 1
A. Place the blade OOS and return it to Tech Services.
B. Place the blade in a container of diesel fuel and let it soak for at least 24 hours and then
clean it.
C. Run the blade through concrete as this will expose more diamonds on the blades edge.
D. The blade must be removed and thrown away since it has reached its useful life span.
A
C
51
Q
- When operating with the saw the potential for an accident is high due to adverse
operational conditions. A slight miscalculation or sudden unplanned move can result in a serious
accident. Performance skill coupled with strict adherence to safety procedures can prevent
accidents. Which point below about operating with the power saw is not correct? 4.4
A. Only members who have demonstrated an aptitude and who have been thoroughly trained
in its operation should be permitted to operate the saw during fire operations.
B. At all times a team of two members shall perform cutting operations. Members shall be
equipped with complete fire clothing, gloves on, and protective goggles in place.
C. The firefighter who operates the saw, the operator, will be assisted and/or guided by
another member. The Officer in charge of the operation should select the best method
compatible with circumstances existing at the time.
D. A physical communication system between the guide man and the operator will be as
follows: one slap on the back of operator = stop cut, two slaps on the back of operator = cut,
three slaps on the back of operator = shut down saw.
A
B
52
Q
Members of L-100 were discussing the portable power saw during evening drill and made
the following statement listed below. Which statement is correct? 4.7.1, 4.8.3, 4.11,4.13
A. Only the Officer, the operator, and the member designated as the guide may enter the circle
of danger. All persons directly to the rear of the operating saw blade must be warned away, as
the saw may throw debris 20’ feet or more.
B. If possible, the saw shall be shut down when unattended and when moving to distant areas
of operation such as moving from level to level.
C. The saw cut should be as deep as possible as this will ensure that the saw has cut through
the material. The experienced operator will know when a beam is being cut by the sound and
feel of the saw.
D. Gunning the saw while the operator is either standing by or moving to a new point of
operation is permitted to keep the saw running smoothly in a heavy smoke condition.
A
A
53
Q
Please read the following four statements and pick which one(s) is/are correct. (May be
more than one correct). 4.7
1. During roof or floor cutting operations, everyone in the vicinity of a saw in operation shall
observe, as near as possible and practical, a 20 foot radius circle of danger. This circle
shall be measured in all directions from the point where the blade of the saw is in
operation.
2. During roof or floor cutting operations, everyone in the vicinity of a saw in operation shall
observe, as near as possible and practical, a 40 foot radius circle of danger. This circle
shall be measured in all directions from where the member operating the saw is standing.
3. During roof or floor cutting operations, everyone in the vicinity of a saw in operation shall
observe, as near as possible and practical, a 40 foot diameter circle of danger. This circle
shall be measured in all directions from the point where the blade of the saw is in
operation.
4. During roof or floor cutting operations, everyone in the vicinity of a saw in operation shall
observe, as near as possible and practical, a 20 foot diameter circle of danger. This circle
shall be measured in all directions from where the member operating the saw is standing.
A. Only#l is correct.
B. 1 and 2 are correct.
C. 2 and 3 are correct.
D. 1 and 3 are correct.
E. 3 and 4 are correct.
A
D
54
Q
- During a study group each member made a point about the portable power saw. Which
point was not entirely correct? 4.13, 5.7
A. Side pressure or twisting of the blade when operating should be avoided. If too much
pressure is applied to the blade, the hazard of the blade breaking with the aluminum oxide or
silicone blade or the blade shattering with the carbide tipped blade is increased.
B. When cutting with the carbide tipped blade members should rev up the saw, lean forward,
and squeeze the throttle to bring the blade up to full RPM before contacting the surface with the
blade. Let the blade lower itself into the material to be cut. A slight back and forth motion of
the saw will widen the cut and help prevent binding of the blade. Maintain the saw at full RPM
while cutting.
C. When cutting with an abrasive disk, when the disk is brought into contact with the material
to be cut the engine is run at low speed and the speed is gradually increased as the disk cuts into
the material. This provides guidance for the disk. Then work at full throttle and regulate engine
speed by varying pressure on the material.
A
A
55
Q
- Please read the following statements and indicate which ones are true statements.
4.14.1,5.5,5.9 - The saw is designed for use on a horizontal surface at ground or foot level. Operation
becomes particularly dangerous as the surface angle approaches the vertical. Accordingly,
whenever the saw is used on other than a Hat horizontal surface at foot level, the blade
guard should be moved and secured to protect the operator. The saw shall be used in
horizontal position only under the direct supervision of an officer. - The stance for normal cutting should be the boxer stance. The operator draws the saw
toward the space between his feet, which is approximately 18” to 20”. - When a cut has been completed, stop the blade by lifting the spinning blade from the cut,
releasing the trigger, and let the blade spin freely until it stops spinning. Placing a spinning
blade on a roof surface to stop the blade from spinning will shorten the life of the blade
unnecessarily.
A. All statements are
true.
B. All statements are
false.
C. Only #2 is true.
D. 1 and 3 are true.
E. 2 and 3 are false.
A
C
56
Q
- In all fires, it is still of paramount importance to provide rapid initial ventilation like the
windows, skylights, etc. before getting involved in the slower work of cutting the roof. Which
point below about roof cutting is not correct? 6.1.6, 6.1.7, 6.1.8, 6.1.9
A. A 10’ hook brought to the roof of a taxpayer can be used efficiently to push down double
ceilings, open returns, etc.
B. If excessive resistance to the saw is encountered, the cut may be on the beam. Sparks are a
good indication that the cut is on a beam. Move the saw to the outside of the cut, permitting a
cut clear of the beam.
C. If resistance is met when cutting perpendicular to the roof beams, lift the saw, continue to
cut, but avoid a deep cut into the beams.
D. Fresh smoke coming from the area of the saw blade and a slowing of the blade usually
indicates too deep a cut through heavy material. When this occurs, remove the saw from the cut,
rev the saw up to maximum RPM, and begin a slightly shallower cut.
A
B
57
Q
- Members of Squad 9 were discussing making a coffin cut on the roof of a six story old law
tenement. Which point(s) made was/were not entirely correct?
A. A coffin cut is approximately 3’ x 6’ and can be expanded as necessary. When making a
coffin cut, the second cut is called the knockout cut.
B. There are seven cuts in the sequence when making a coffin cut. Five of these cuts will be
3’ in length.
C. Cut number three is 6’ long and is the longest cut in the sequence.
D. The preferred way to examine the cockloft is by making a coffin cut and observing the
conditions in the cockloft.
E. As soon as the knockout cut is made, additional members should start to pull open the
coffin cut.
A
D,E
58
Q
- Since there is very little visual or physical difference between the aluminum oxide and
silicon carbide blades it is a good practice to paint them so that they are easily recognizable.
Please choose the correct point below. TB Tools 9 Appendix C
A. The silicon carbide blade shall be painted yellow and both sides should be painted. The
aluminum oxide blade shall remain unpainted.
B. The silicon carbide blade shall remain unpainted. The aluminum oxide blade shall be
painted yellow and both sides should be painted.
C. The silicon carbide blade shall be painted orange and both sides should be painted. The
aluminum oxide blade shall remain unpainted.
D. The silicon carbide blade shall remain unpainted. The aluminum oxide blade shall be
painted orange and both sides should be painted.
A
A
59
Q
- Each roof carry sling comes as a three piece Husqvarna kit and includes a handle
attachment and its modified D-ring, the saw sling, and the blade guard sling attachment. Which
point about the sling and its part is not correct? TB Tools 9 Appendix 9
A. An adjustable roof saw carry sling has been issued to all ladder companies. The sling is
designed to aid members in carrying the roof saw at FDNY operations in a hands free manner.
B. Inspection of the sling for serviceability must be a normal part of saw maintenance. The
sling must be removed from the saw before starting.
C. When the saw is stored on the apparatus, the sling should be adjusted for a proper fit to the
user upon assignment of a position.
D. The saw sling has a breaking strength of 1,000 lbs. while the handle and the blade guard
sling attachments have a breaking strength of 5000 lbs.
A
D
60
Q
- FF Carter has decided to go back to school to get his nursing license and is thinking about
applying for a school attendance variance. Lt. Smith was explaining the procedure to FF Carter
and was mistaken in which choice below? 3.1, 3.2, 3.4, 3.4.2, 3.4.6
A. Mutual exchange of tours shall be the primary medium for arranging necessary time off to
attend scheduled classes. If mutual exchanges are unavailable, members may use compensatory
time due for Memorial or Veterans Day, their adjusted tour, or any other compensatory time due.
B. Whenever a member is attending any type of school program and is unable to make mutual
exchanges of tours or is lacking time owed, the member may be permitted excusal time up to a
maximum of 48 hours
C. Members shall repay excusal time as soon as possible, at their convenience. No time
limitations for repayment shall be imposed as long as the member is enrolled. However, when a
member owes 36 hours of excusal time for a period of 30 or more days, no further excusal time
shall be allowed.
D. Member must repay excusal time by working the same number of hours excused.
Members accepting regularly offered minimum manning overtime cannot credit such time
against excusal time.
A
B
61
Q
- When a member is using a mutual exchange of tours to arrange for the necessary time off
to attend school classes, there are certain rules and restrictions that must be adhered to. Which
choice below is in accordance with the rules and restrictions? 3.9, 3.1.1
A. Members can pre pay time for the purpose of accumulating time as a bank for future leaves.
B. Mutual exchange of tours may be made between members assigned to the same borough.
C. Part tour mutuals shall be not less than one hour and not more than six hours.
D. All part tour mutuals shall begin or end at 0900 hours only, similar to vacations.
A
C
62
Q
- Capt. Myster is working a day tour in E-289 and after lunch FF O’Duff, the senior
member of E-289, comes into the office and tells Capt. Myster that he wants to put his next
mutuals in the Unit Staffing Log. Capt. Myster hands FF O’Duff the Unit Staffing Log, FF
O’Duff records his next two mutuals in the Unit Staffing Log, and hands the Log back to
Capt. Myster. Do you agree or disagree with Capt. Myster’s and FF O”Duffs actions?
PA/ID 6/72 2.1
A. Agree or D. Disagree
A
D
63
Q
- FF O’Duff was talking with the proby about mutuals and gave the proby the following
points of information. Which point of information listed below is not entirely correct?
PA/ID 6/72 Section 1 and 5
A. Under normal circumstances, members should not owe or be owed more than 8 mutual
exchange of tours. This includes self-mutuals.
B. Mutual exchanges of tours shall be completed within a 30 day period subsequent to first
date involved.
C. Any member who owes or is owed 8 or more mutual exchange of tours, as reflected on
three 3 consecutive bi-weekly printouts, will be prohibited from making any additional mutual
exchange of tours.
D. Approved mutual exchange of tours shall be voided if either member will be on any type of
leave or detail for which the member has been notified more than 5 days prior to first date of
mutual.
A
A
64
Q
- An often confusing topic in regards to mutuals is when mutuals are incomplete. Which
point about an incomplete mutual is incorrect? Section 4
A. If member A works a tour for member B, then member A is owed the tour. If the tour is
interrupted by a line of duty medical leave then member A is owed a tour equal to that which the
member would have received if the mutual had been completed.
B. If a member received a tour off in a mutual, and subsequently is unable to work the
scheduled payback tour due any type of medical leave, the member is not required to pay back
the required tour.
C. Time due the Fire Department or a member, as a result of an incomplete MX shall be
cleared up within thirty (30) days after the member becomes available. Company Commanders
shall ensure compliance.
D. Tours owed because of an incomplete mutual, shall be repaid with a similar tour (e.g. if
member was not able to repay a 6x9 tour he/she shall owe a 6x9 tour).
A
B
65
Q
A
