SPRING 2019 WEEK 8 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. According to the Citywide Incident Management System (CIMS), structural collapse is a
    single command event and the FDNY has been designated as the IC for collapse operations.
    Which choice is incorrect concerning incident management at a structural collapse?
    (Sec. 1.2, 2.1, 2.2, 2.3)
    (A) All city agencies, including the Police and Buildings Departments, operate under the
    direction of the FDNY during a structural collapse rescue operation.
    (B) NYPD ESU members, performing life safety rescue operations (digging for buried victims,
    etc.), shall be ordered to stop their operations upon the arrival of FDNY units.
    (C) Personnel from other agencies will be under the control of their superior officer/supervisor,
    who shall report to the Incident Command Post (ICP) for instructions.
    (D) When the rescue and removal of all persons involved in the incident, and stabilization of all
    threats to public safety have been accomplished, the scene becomes the jurisdiction of the
    Department of Buildings and/or the NYS Department of Labor (for buildings under
    construction/demolition).
A

B

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2
Q
  1. First arriving units at the scene of a collapse shall notify the Dispatcher of all of the
    following with the exception of which choice? (Sec. 4.3)
    (A) The address and nature of the incident.
    (B) The need for additional FDNY units or other agency resources.
    (C) Signal 10-60 with appropriate code shall be transmitted for every collapse.
    (D) Location of the ICP for the response of Fire, EMS and PD Supervisors.
    (E) At least one tower ladder shall be special called to every major collapse if none was
    assigned of the initial alarm.
A

C

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3
Q
  1. Safety at the scene of a collapse is the single most important consideration during the
    operation. Choose an incorrect tactic taken. (Sec. 4.4)
    (A) Identify and immediately report any sign of structural defect that could lead to a secondary
    collapse.
    (B) Isolate areas subject to secondary collapse with barrier tape and/or other suitable means.
    (C) Never enter a danger zone.
    (D) At all explosions and major collapses, SOC Units shall ensure the immediate area is
    monitored for the presence of radiological/chemical agents.
A

C

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4
Q
  1. Units arrive on the scene of a complete collapse of a 5 story 25’x50’ OLT, which was in
    the middle of the block with several similar attached buildings on each side. After transmitting a
    10-60 Code 1, which unit was positioned correctly? (Sec. 5.3, 5.4)
    (A) The 1st
    and 2nd arriving engines took separate hydrants on the block.
    (B) The 3
    rd and 4
    th engines took separate hydrants on the cross streets, at a position from which
    they could see the front of the building.
    (C) Two of the 2
    nd alarm ladder companies were used to seal off the ends of the street. The
    LCCs remained near the apparatus, in case the IC requested they be moved.
    (D) The 1
    st arriving Tower Ladder was placed in front of the collapsed structure, outside of the
    collapse danger zone.
    (E) The 2
    nd arriving ladder apparatus, an Aerial Ladder, was positioned near the 1
    st Tower
    Ladder, in front of the collapsed structure.
A

D

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5
Q
  1. BC QUESTION - The IC must ensure that special units are positioned properly for
    effective operations. Which choice is incorrect? (Sec. 5.4, 5.5, 5.6, 5.7, 5.8)
    (A) SOC Support Ladder Companies, whose main apparatus is an aerial ladder, shall position
    their second piece near the front of the building.
    (B) Rescue companies and collapse units should be placed outside of the collapse danger zone
    but as close as possible to the front of the building.
    (C) Ambulances need to be visible from the scene, but out of the way of rescue and firefighting
    operations. Drivers with keys must remain with ambulances at a secure staging area.
    (D) Heavy equipment, such as cranes, front-end loaders and dump trucks must be assured
    access to the site.
    (E) The IC should request the PD to provide tow trucks to remove any vehicles impeding
    operations at the scene, including unattended emergency vehicles. Tow trucks shall be staged
    several blocks away.
A

A

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6
Q
  1. BC QUESTION - The 1
    st arriving Chief Officer at the scene of a structural collapse has
    many duties. Which choice contains only correct points concerning these duties?
    (Sec. 4.6, 6.1, 6.2, 6.5, 6.7, 6.8, 6.9, 6.10)
    (1) Evaluate the previously established ICP, ensuring that it is clearly visible from the
    collapsed structure, located at or in the immediate vicinity of the incident site, and is in an
    area outside the operations site and collapse zone.
    (2) Reevaluate the location of the staging area, and assign the second arriving Chief Officer to
    be the Staging Area Manager until replaced by another BC.
    (3) Interview witnesses/victims using the Collapse Survivor Interview Form. The Battalion FF
    can aid in its completion.
    (4) Establish contact with the Law Enforcement Group or Branch, who can search the area for
    secondary devices if a bombing is suspected.
    (5) Ensure a Hazard Assessment was performed. Assign hazard identification and control to
    the first Haz-Mat Technician Unit on scene.
    (6) All requests for additional assistance shall go through OEM.
    (A) 1,2, 3,4,5,6
    (B) 2,6 only
    (C) 1,3,4,5 only
    (D) 1, 2,4,5,6 only
A

C

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7
Q
  1. Units arriving at the scene of a natural gas explosion that has resulted in a building collapse
    have many things to consider. From highest to least priority, choose the correct actions to take by
    the 1st
    alarm engine companies. (Sec. 7.1)
    (1) Extinguish fire in the affected building
    (2) Protect Exposures
    (3) Extinguish fire in the surrounding debris
    (4) Extinguish burning vehicles within the vicinity of the collapse.
    (A) 1,2, 3, 4
    (B) 1,3, 2, 4
    (C) 1,2, 4, 3
    (D) 2, 1,3,4
A

B

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8
Q
  1. Which operation undertaken by an Engine company at the scene of a building collapse
    should be corrected? (Sec. 7)
    (A) The 1
    st arriving Engine Company may have to take a position within the block for use of
    the apparatus master stream.
    (B) The 1
    st arriving Engine Company should stretch a 2 ’/
    2
    ” handline of sufficient length to
    cover the entire site.
    (C) The 2
    nd arriving Engine Company will assist the 1
    st Engine Company with stretching
    handlines, ensure a 3 */2
    ” supply line is stretched to the 1
    st Tower Ladder, and if necessary
    perform CFR-D duties.
    (D) The 3rd
    and subsequent arriving Engine Companies shall be utilized for void searches.
    (E) The 1
    st and 2
    nd arriving Engine company members shall remain together as a unit unless
    otherwise ordered by the IC.
A

D

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9
Q
  1. The 1st
    and 2nd arriving Ladder Companies perform many vital duties at a building collapse.
    Choose the incorrect choice concerning these duties. (Sec. 7.5)
    (A) The 1
    st Arriving Ladder Company performs reconnaissance, removes surface victims, and
    performs a preliminary void search.
    (B) The 2
    nd arriving Ladder Company, in addition to shutting down the gas, electric, and water
    service, ensures the dispatcher notified the utility company emergency crews.
    (C) When performing preliminary void searches, Ladder Company members may only cut load
    bearing members to save life.
    (D) The 2
    nd arriving Ladder Company may assist with life safety if necessary and augment
    search and rescue efforts.
    (E) The Officer of the 1st
    arriving Ladder Company has the option of splitting the company into
    separate teams to cover more area.
A

C

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10
Q
  1. BC QUESTION - Battalion Chiefs may be called upon to fill several roles at a major
    collapse. Which BC assignment is incorrect? (Sec. 8.6, 8.7, 8.8)
    (A) The Rescue Operations Battalion is designated as a Search and Rescue Branch Director or
    Sector/Group Supervisor.
    (B) The Victim Removal Leader will normally be filled by a Rescue Company Officer until
    relieved by the Rescue Operations Battalion once he or she is relieved as the Search and Rescue
    Branch Director.
    (C) The 2
    nd Arriving BC may be designated as the Fire Branch Director or Fire Sector/Group
    Supervisor.
    (D) The first arriving BC may be reassigned as the Planning Section Chief upon the arrival of
    the first arriving DC.
    (E) The BC designated as the Resource Unit Leader (RESL) will report to the Logistics Section
    Chief. When relieved by the second DC responding on a 10-60 Code 1, the RESL shall report to
    the Logistics Section Chief for reassignment to either a Situation Unit Leader, or a position
    necessary to support the Operation.
A

E

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11
Q
  1. The Street Coordination Manager will prevent needless congestion and repositioning of
    apparatus as an incident escalates. Which choice is incorrect concerning this position?
    (Sec. 8.8)
    (A) Only a Battalion Chief may be assigned as the Street Coordination Manager.
    (B) The Street Coordination Manager operates under the Logistics Section.
    (C) He/she shall establish contact with PD and EMS Officers for traffic flow.
    (D) They shall coordinate the Casualty Collection Point with an EMS Officer.
A

A

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12
Q
  1. An emergency evacuation is necessary when an imminent collapse is obvious, or has
    already happened. Which choice is incorrect concerning the evacuation signaling method used
    by the FDNY? (Sec. 9.1)
    (A) Each lookout, Safety Officer, and member monitoring a transit shall be equipped with
    handheld air horns.
    (B) All Battalions, Divisions, SOC Units and Collapse Rescue Units are equipped with
    handheld air horns.
    (C) 1 Long Blast (3 seconds) indicates that members shall evacuate the area.
    (D) Apparatus air horns may also be used. They may be beneficial after the initial HT
    announcement to evacuate, followed by another HT announcement after the air horns have
    ceased.
A

C

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13
Q
  1. Collapse operations require many precautions to be taken to ensure members’ safety.
    Which choice would be a correct action to take? (Sec. 9.1, 9.4)
    (A) At construction or demolition sites, seek out the Site Safety Manager or Construction
    Manage for information about previous conditions.
    (B) Rotate personnel frequently, at least every hour if possible.
    (C) If terrorism is suspected, use the NYPD to block access to the site. Do not use apparatus,
    as this would place members in danger. Members can be used to search for secondary devices.
    (D) A Rescue Company shall be assigned as the FAST Truck, working in the Logistics Section
A

A

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14
Q
  1. BC QUESTION - The FDNY has several special units specializing in collapse rescues that
    may be automatically assigned or special called to any incident. Which choice is correct
    concerning these units? (Sec. 10)
    (A) At least one Rescue Company should be deployed at each buried victim location, unless it
    is a large scale incident with multiple buried victims. In that case, the IC may assign a Squad
    Company to sites where there is no Rescue Company available.
    (B) If dangerous void entries or tunneling operations are to be made, the IC shall request a 3
    rd
    Rescue Company to respond to the scene to assist in the void entries or tunneling.
    (C) Squad Companies carry all the necessary equipment and are trained to perform tunneling,
    trenching, and shoring.
    (D) If additional lumber is needed, any Chief Officer on scene can request the response of a
    Collapse POD.
    (E) Due to the difficulty in securing the scene of a major collapse, Fire Marshals shall be used
    exclusively for scene security.
A

A

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15
Q
  1. Place the following five stages of a collapse operation in the proper sequence. (Sec. 11.1)
    (1) Search of the voids
    (2) Reconnaissance
    (3) Selected Debris Removal
    (4) General Debris Removal
    (5) Accounting for and removal of the surface victims
    (A) 1,2, 3, 4, 5
    (B) 2,5, 1,3,4
    (C) 2, 1,5, 3, 4
    (D) 3,4, 1,2,3
A

B

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16
Q
  1. Which choice concerning the Victim Accounting Manager is incorrect? (Sec. 11.3, 11.4)
    (A) It must be a Battalion Chief.
    (B) They must keep track of all people removed from the debris, including their name and
    where they were located when the collapse occurred. If time permits, they should ask the victim
    to point out their escape route
    (C) They should note any injuries suffered by removed victims. If the victims were removed
    to a hospital, they should note the hospital and the transporter.
    (D) All information gained about victim location from witness interviews, from EMS or Fire
    Marshal’s canvassing hospitals, from initial units rescuing survivors, as well as security video
    must be relayed to the Victim Accounting Manager.
    (E) In the case of a fire related collapse, the results of unit roll calls must be relayed to the
    Victim Accounting Manager.
A

A

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17
Q
  1. In building collapses, there are four common types of void spaces created that could shelter
    victims. Which one is described incorrectly? (Sec. 11.4)
    (A) In a Lean-to void, there is an excellent chance of survival for persons who were on the
    floor below if they were near the remaining wall.
    (B) In a Lean-to void, the smallest chance for survival is for anyone on the lower floor in the
    vicinity of the failed wall.
    (C) In a V-shaped void, survivors will most likely be found along the remaining walls.
    (D) In a V-shaped void, victims directly below the collapse will have the least chance of
    survival.
    (E) Locating the victims of a pancake collapses is the most difficult of all types of collapse,
    since the victims are likely to be thrown in a random pattern.
A

E

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18
Q
  1. There are many different methods that can be used to locate victims in a collapse. Which
    choice is correct concerning these methods? (Sec. 11.4)
    (A) Hailing, which uses verbal contact, requires a degree of silence that may not be present in
    the early stages of an operation.
    (B) The “Around-the-clock” method entails placing members at various locations around the
    area where a voice is heard. The members shall call out at the same time and determine who is
    closest to the response.
    (C) Thermal imaging cameras are not useful, because everyone in the debris pile is likely to be
    covered in the same exact color of dust.
    (D) Life Detection Systems (Electronic Listening Devices) are located on all Squad and Rescue
    Apparatus, and may be used effectively during the initial stages of a collapse.
A

A

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19
Q
  1. Shoring is the installation of temporary structures to support a load. Choose the incorrect
    point concerning shoring. (Sec. 11.5)
    (A) First arriving units may be forced to perform some emergency shoring using available
    materials on hand to safely reach trapped victims.
    (B) Once a Rescue Company is on scene, the installation of additional shoring should generally
    be left to these units, supported by Squad and SOC Support Ladder Companies.
    (C) When requested by DOB or HPD, the FDNY will install shoring in certain instances.
    However, the FDNY will never shore vacant, unoccupied, or buildings that are going to be
    demolished.
    (D) Once installed, shoring will only be removed when the load is otherwise stabilized, or the
    situation permits the shores to be removed from a safe area.
A

C

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20
Q
  1. BC QUESTION - Which choice is incorrect concerning Selected Debris Removal and
    Tunneling? (Sec. 11.6, 11.6.7)
    (A) Selected debris removal is used to reach specific locations where victims are located or
    suspected to be. It is not a useful tactic if we have no idea where the victims are located.
    (B) The Rescue Operations Battalion should be assigned as the Victim Removal Leader to
    supervise selected debris removal.
    (C) Only collapsed trained members of SOC units are to perform tunneling or trenching
    involving the cutting of potentially load bearing structural members.
    (D) Rotate members out for a rest at frequent intervals, 30 minutes is the recommended
    maximum work time.
    (E) When attempting to remove a victim a single approach should be used. Using more than
    one approach will decrease the chances of success.
A

E

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21
Q
  1. A Rescue Paramedic shall be given access to a patient in all but which one of the following
    choices? (Sec. 10.1.14, 11.6, 11.8.3, 11.9.5)
    (A) If the victim has been pinned for more than one hour or appears to have suffered serious
    injuries, a Rescue Paramedic must be given access to the patient as soon as there is access in
    order to treat for Crush Syndrome.
    (B) As soon as the patient is sufficiently exposed to permit the establishment of an IV, as long
    as the area around the patient is stable.
    (C) As soon as the patient is reached and the space is stabilized.
    (D) Not until the patient is completely extricated and the patient’s entire body is exposed.
A

D

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22
Q
  1. Members drilling on tools to be used at building collapses were incorrect in which choice?
    (Sec. 11.13)
    (A) Jackhammers, concrete cutting saws and torches are required for Class 1 buildings.
    (B) Chainsaws are appropriate at most buildings with wooden floors and roofs.
    (C) Heavy demolition equipment (cranes, bulldozers, etc.) may only be used during the
    Selected Debris Removal stage if there is adequate supervision.
    (D) Once the operations come within reach of the victim, all work should proceed with only
    hand powered tools, unless the object and the victim are visibly clear and injury is not likely.
A

C

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23
Q
  1. Choose the incorrect point concerning General Debris Removal and Demobilization, which
    occur in the latter stages of a collapse operation. . (Sec. 11.12, 12)
    (A) General Debris Removal begins when it is certain there are no other survivors, all voids
    have been searched and the Selected Debris Removal and tunneling demonstrates there is no
    chance for survival of missing victims.
    (B) The General Debris Removal is performed when all other methods have been employed
    and persons are still missing and their location is unknown.
    (C) The Fire Department will maintain a watchline as long as there are personnel operating in
    the debris pile for search or investigative purposes.
    (D) Tools shall not be considered expendable. Members may enter hazardous areas to retrieve
    tools if they are supervised.
A

D

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24
Q
  1. A Con Edison Vacuum Truck responds on a 10-60 signal. Which choice concerning the
    Vacuum Truck is incorrect? (Add. 4 Sec. 1,2,3,4)
    (A) Tubing 8” wide can be connected up to 150 feet. 4” tubing can be added for an additional
    50 feet.
    (B) The Vacuum Truck has the ability to remove liquid, sludge, dirt, sand, grain, store stock,
    cans, bottles and building debris.
    (C) The size of the hose limits the size of the material that can be used. Material that clogs the
    hose can be easily removed and operations can be resumed.
    (D) FDNY members shall always operate the Vacuum Truck.
    (E) FDNY members shall always operate the suction hose at the extrication site.
A

D

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25
Q
  1. While conducting a search at a large collapse site, you come across this marking at an
    opening in a collapsed structure. Which choice is correct concerning this marking?
    (Sec. 1.6, 2,3,4)
    (A) It should be made using lime-yellow paint and a square box should be drawn around the
    2” x2” marking.
    (B) The markings are made at the point that Lad-14 exited the area.
    (C) The Top Quadrant indicates that Lad-14 entered the structure at 1400 hours November
    11,2002.
    (D) The Bottom Quadrant indicates that there are 2 live and 3 expired victims still inside the
    structure.
    (E) The “X” marking, using two slashes, shall be made in one operation prior to entering the
    structure.
A

D

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26
Q
  1. When using the Search Assessment Marking System, there are several key points to
    remember. Which one is incorrect? (Sec. 1, 1.2, 1.4, 1.5 Sec. 4 Note)
    (A) At large scale events, a unit that sees a void or area that has already been searched should
    move on to other areas that have not yet been searched.
    (B) The markings are used when searching multiple buildings, large areas of buildings, or
    large debris piles at collapse sites.
    (C) The markings indicate a search is in progress or has already been completed.
    (D) Markings shall never be crossed out.
    (E) Markings are made specific to each area of entry or separate part of the building.
A

D

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27
Q
  1. Which point concerning the Victim Location Marking above is incorrect?
    (Add. 2 Sec. 5)
    (A) The “V” approximately 2’ in height is painted near the location of a known or potential
    victim.
    (B) The arrow is added next to the “V” pointing towards the victim’s location if not clearly
    visible or if not immediately nearby.
    (C) A circle is painted around the “V” when the location of a potential victim has been
    confirmed, whether visually, vocally, or by hearing sounds that indicate a high probability of a
    victim.
    (D) The horizontal line shall be painted through the “V” when the victim is confirmed
    deceased.
    (E) The vertical line painted through the confirmed victim mark indicates the secondary search
    is complete.
A

e

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28
Q

PART II - EMERGENCY PROCEDURES NATURAL GAS ADDENDUMS
Addendum 1 - Con Ed Gas Transmission System Repair
1 BC QUESTION - When Con Ed performs repair work on their Gas Transmission System,
they notify the Borough Dispatcher. Which choice is incorrect concerning FDNY actions to take
upon this notification? (Sec. 2.1, 2.2)
(A) The nearest available Battalion and Engine or Ladder Company shall be assigned for an
administrative assignment.
(B) The assigned units shall respond in emergency mode.
(C) Upon completion of the familiarization, the BC shall notify the DC and 1
st alarm
companies of the location and relevant aspects of the planned repair work.
(D) If deemed necessary, the BC shall schedule units for additional familiarization visits.

A

b

29
Q

Addendum 2 - MSA Altair Digital Gas Meter
2. The Altair Digital Gas Meter has been issued to all Engine and Ladder Companies. Which
choice is incorrect concerning this meter? (Sec. 1.2, 2.1,2.3) 4 5e<. C
(A) Although the meter is calibrated to methane, it can be used to accurately detect many other
types of combustible gases.
(B) Before turning the meter on, the member must be in an area free of contamination.
(C) During the self-check test, which takes approximately 40 seconds, the meter will
momentarily activate all three alarm types (audible, visual and vibrating) and the display will
scroll through several LCD screens.
(D) The Fresh Air Setup (FAS) is used to “zero” the LEL sensor to ambient air. Not
performing FAS may affect the accuracy of the readings.
(E) While air monitoring, the meter will emit a vibrating pulse and flashing green LED light
every 30 seconds.

A

a

30
Q
  1. While using the Altair Meter, the Officer notices that it appears to not be working properly.
    The Officer would be correct to take which action? (Sec. 3, 6.1)
    (A) The Officer called Haz-Mat Operations and requested a replacement meter.
    (B) The Officer sent the meter through the bag for the Division Messenger to deliver the meter
    to Haz-Mat Operations.
    (C) When the unit received the replacement meter, the Unit Number was marked on the meter.
    (D) The meter requires monthly recalibration, which should be performed prior to placing the
    meter out of service.
    (E) Questions concerning the operation of meter or operational procedures at natural gas
    incidents shall be directed to Technical Services.
A

a

31
Q
  1. The Oxygen sensor was included on the Altair Digital Gas Meter since the LEL sensor
    requires oxygen to function properly. Choose the incorrect point concerning this sensor.
    (Sec. 5)
    (A) The normal oxygen reading on the meter is 20.8%. The low oxygen level alarm is set at
    19.5%, and the high oxygen sensor will alarm at 23.5%.
    (B) Upon activation of the oxygen sensor, members shall don their SCBA facepiece and notify
    the IC of abnormal oxygen readings on the Altair meter.
    (C) Upon activation of the oxygen sensor, notify the Dispatcher of conditions, and have the
    utility company respond and request an ETA.
    (D) A series of 3 large “+” along the screen under the 02 icon indicates that the atmosphere is
    at 25% oxygen.
A

d

32
Q

Addendum 3 Sensit TKX Combustible Gas Detector
6. The Sensit TKX Combustible Gas Detector is a combustible gas detector carried by
Battalions, Haz Mat Co. 1, HMTU, Rescue and Ladder Companies. Which choice is incorrect
concerning this meter? (Sec. 1, 2, 4)
(A) It provides a “Geiger Counter” like ticking sound that increases in frequency when a gas
source as low as 20 ppm of Methane is detected.
(B) The meter may be used in any situation where combustible gas, vapor, or residues need to
be located, including Carbon Monoxide.
(C) The Sensit Meter can be used at gas line and pipes, fuel in marine bilges, exhaust and fuel
leaks, and manholes.
(D) The Altair Meter must be used in conjunction with the Sensit Meter when surveying for
leaks.

A

b

33
Q
  1. Ensuring that the Sensit Meter has a working battery is extremely important. Choose an
    incorrect procedure concerning the battery. (Sec. 3, 5)
    (A) Turn the detector off before recharging. A recharge takes 2 to 5 hours and the LED will
    illuminate green to indicate a fully charged battery.
    (B) A fully charged battery supplies approximately 20 hours of continuous use.
    (C) If the LED blinks green or does not illuminate, the battery needs to be recharged.
    (D) If recharging does not produce a solid green LED after 5 hours, notify Haz-Mat Operations.
    (E) If it appears the battery is not retaining a charge, members shall replace the Lithium Ion
    Battery Pack with the assigned spare.
A

e

34
Q
  1. An incorrect operation of the Sensit Meter is shown in which choice? (Sec. 4)
    (A) Turn the tick adjust dial fully counterclockwise, and turn the meter in a non-contaminated
    atmosphere. The green LED will illuminate.
    (B) Rotate the tick adjust dial in a clockwise direction until a uniform ticking sound is heard.
    The red LED will begin to flash.
    (C) Approach the area of the suspected leak with the sensor until the ticking sound begins to
    increase. When the ticking increases, rotate the tick adjust dial counterclockwise and continue to
    approach the suspected area of the leak.
    (D) A decrease in the ticking sound and flashing of the green LED indicates that you are
    approaching the leak.
A

d

35
Q

Tools 24 - Chain Saw Operations
1. Which point concerning the use of chain saws is incorrect? (Sec. 2.1, 3.1.2,
3.2, 3.5.3, 3.5.6, 3.7, 7.7)
(A) The chain saw is not to be used for the ventilation or overhauling of any structural fires.
(B) When starting and operating the saw, always keep the body to the left of the chain.
(C) Do not attempt cutting above chest height. Never overreach or operate the saw above your
shoulders.
(D) When operating on slopes, the chain saw operator must always stand on the uphill side of
the tree/log when cutting.

A

a

36
Q
  1. Members can cut downward or upward with the chain saw. Which choice is incorrect
    concerning these operations? (Sec. 3.10, 3.11)
    (A) When cutting downward you will experience a pulling reaction. Pull-in occurs when the
    chain on the bottom bar is suddenly stopped.
    (B) Pull-in frequently occurs when the bumper spike of the saw is not held securely against the
    tree or limb and when the chain is not rotating at full speed before it contacts the wood.
    (C) During upward cutting a pushing reaction will be felt. Pushback occurs when the chain on
    the top of the bar is suddenly stopped.
    (D) To avoid pushback, do not cut more than 3 logs at a time.
A

d

37
Q
  1. Which choice concerning cutting operations is incorrect? (Sec. 4.4, 4.5, 4.7, 4.8, 4.10)
    (A) A circle of danger of a radius of at least 10’ will be established before the commencement
    of cutting.
    (B) The saw operator, control person, and Officer are the only personnel allowed in the circle
    of danger during cutting.
    (C) Due to the noise level and use of hearing protection, hand signals must be established
    between the operator, control member and Officer.
    (D) Hearing protection devices must be worn during operational and training sessions by
    members within the circle of danger.
    (E) Saw refueling area is to be located outside the circle of danger.
A

b

38
Q
  1. Which choice is incorrect concerning the operational precautions that must be followed
    during chain saw operations? (Sec. 5.2)
    (A) Do not attempt cutting an object which has fallen against a structure and is now supported
    by it.
    (B) If a branch, tree section or other object is hanging, leaning or otherwise damaged, cutting it
    down is not to be attempted.
    (C) Prior to cutting operations, members are to survey area for electrical wires in contact with
    tree. Trees are good conductors of electricity.
    (D) If using the tip of the blade to make a plunge cut, use the upper 90 degree Quadrant.
A

d

39
Q
  1. After a storm, Ladder 411 used the chain saw for several cutting operations. Which one
    was incorrect? (Sec. 6.2.1, 6.6, 6.7, 6.8, 6.9)
    (A) When cutting a log resting on a car that was acting as a fulcrum point, the member made a
    rip cut straight through the log on the overhanging end of the log.
    (B) Wood on the ground under tension was cut on the compression side first. Thereafter the
    cross-cut was finished from the tension side.
    (C) When removing branches from a fallen tree, the saw was not run at full throttle and the
    nose of the bar was not used.
    (D) When cutting a tree that was blown uprooted, the member cut the trunk from the topside,
    working toward the stump.
    (E) When bucking, or cutting a log into sections, the member stood on top of the log to hold
    the log in place with his foot.
A

e

40
Q
  1. Which safety requirement concerning the chain saw is incorrect? (Sec. 7)
    (A) The saw shall not be operated from a ladder, unless it is secured at the butt and tip.
    (B) Carry the saw with the guide bar to the rear when climbing uphill and to the front when
    going downhill.
    (C) Always hold a running saw with two hands.
    (D) When operating a chain saw, secure or remove your Handie-Talkie.
A

a

41
Q
  1. After establishing a schedule for the weekly testing of the chain saw, Capt. Johnson
    discussed the protective equipment required. Which one was incorrect? (Sec. 2.4, 7.3,
    7.3.1,7.3.2,8.13)
    (A) The operator and control person’s PPE shall include a long sleeve shirt or bunker coat,
    helmet, eye protection, ear protection, and bunker boots.
    (B) Members must wear firefighting gloves whenever testing or operating the saw.
    (C) The operator and control person must wear saw protected chaps over either long pants or
    bunker pants.
    (D) Chaps shall never be worn over shorts.
A

b

42
Q

Tools 26 - Hydra Ram
8. After assigning the Forcible Entry position to FF Red, Lt. Happy drilled on the Hydra Ram.
Which point should be corrected? (Sec. 2.2, 2.3, 3.1, 3.3, 4.2)
(A) It can be used to force outward and inward opening doors.
(B) It can provide an opening from the side of a vehicle hood or trunk for placement of an
extinguishing agent.
(C) It can be used under water.
(D) If necessary, it can be struck with a Halligan to make an initial purchase.
(E) It can operate in any position.

A

d

43
Q
  1. Which choice concerning the operation of the Hydra Ram is incorrect? (Sec. 3.2,
    3.4, 4.1, 4.3)
    (A) Always position yourself in a fashion that would protect you in the event that the tool slips
    out from the work.
    (B) Always maintain control of the door being forced.
    (C) When bleeding the tool at the conclusion of operations, if the working piston does not
    retract by itself, apply steady pressure.
    (D) When the Hydra Ram reaches its maximum opening of 4 inches and resistance is felt, it
    will be necessary to force the door conventionally with an axe and halligan.
    (E) Use full firefighting gear with eye shields down or safety goggles when operating the
    Hydra Ram.
A

d

44
Q
  1. Proper maintenance of the Hydra Ram is necessary to ensure proper performance. Which
    choice is incorrect concerning the maintenance of this tool? (Sec. 5)
    (A) After each use, the tool should be inspected for damage, tested for leaks, cleaned and
    lubricated.
    (B) The Ram does not use Hydraulic Fluid, but rather Propylene Glycol, which will not cause
    injury to skin. The Ram requires no replenishment of fluids.
    (C) The tool shall be cleaned and lubricated in 3 locations. Only use “3 in 1” oil to lubricate
    the tool.
    (D) The tool can only be stored on the floor of the apparatus near heating vents if it is in the
    storage case.
A

d

45
Q
  1. Thermal Imaging Cameras (TICs) detect infrared energy, which is unaffected by smoke,
    and electronically processes it and displays it into a viewable image. The image on the TIC is a
    pictorial representation of temperature differences. Which point concerning the TIC is incorrect?
    (Sec. 2.3)
    A) Black indicates the presence of the least amount of heat or the coolest object in the scene.
    (B) White images will only appear when something is on fire.
    (C) Black and white images are relative to the overall image being viewed.
    (D) Shades of gray represent the temperature range between black and white. These shades of
    white, black and gray and their differences in colorization are known as Thermal Contrast.
A

b

46
Q
  1. The more heat present, both generated and subsequently absorbed by objects, the clearer
    and sharper the image will usually appear on the TIC. Which choice is incorrect these contrasts?
    (Sec. 2.6,2.7,2.8,2.9,2.10)
    (A) When the area reaches the point of thermal saturation, everything in the viewing area is
    heated to temperatures beyond the capabilities of the TIC, and the overall area being viewed will
    appear white and featureless.
    (B) Changing thermal contrast is when the conditions change from cooler to hotter back to
    cooler, the image on the TI will change. Changing thermal contrast may be an indication that the
    fire is in close proximity.
    (C) When using the TIC, convected heat movement will appear as White swirling waves or
    smoke. When this is detected, the TIC cannot be used to locate the fire.
    (D) When searching for fire with the TIC, walls or multiple layers and thickness of materials
    such as drop ceilings and insulation may conceal fire.
    (E) When searching for life with the TIC, furniture or layers of blankets, sheets and clothes
    may conceal a person.
A

c

47
Q
  1. The TIC shall be carried and used at all structural responses by all units equipped with the
    TIC. Which choices concerning the use of this tool is incorrect? (Sec. 3, 3.3, 3.9, 3.10, 4.3)
    (A) Operators of the TIC shall utilize the carrying strap to allow them to have both hands
    available to perform search, rescue and firefighting operations.
    (B) Operators should stay low and slowly scan the area, beginning at the ceiling and using a
    slow side-to-side scanning motion, slowly working their way to the floor area.
    (C) The TIC can be used to locate a person under water.
    (D) The TIC can be used to determine liquid levels in containers.
A

c

48
Q
  1. Choose the incorrect point concerning the TIC. (Sec. 4.1,4.2, 4.7, 4.8, 5.4.3)
    (A) Thermal imaging does not see through clear glass or plastic. These act as a mirror to
    infrared energy.
    (B) Shiny surfaces, such as glass, waxed floors, tiled walls, some painted or polished surfaces
    or water on the floor, will reflect infrared energy creating a mirror effect. The actual source of
    the image may be opposite the reflected surface.
    (C) If there is fogging or condensation build up on the SCBA facepiece, wiping the SCBA
    facepiece, and also the display screen and camera lens of the TIC, will greatly improve the
    clarity of the image.
    (D) Thermal imaging cameras are not rated as intrinsically safe.
    (E) TICS are waterproof, and can be submerged in water if absolutely necessary.
A

e

49
Q
  1. Engine 32 and Ladder 75, housed in a newly constructed firehouse with an open apparatus
    floor without a dividing wall, receive a response for a fire in a Private Dwelling. Engine 32 is
    assigned 3
    rd due, and Ladder 75 is assigned 1
    st due. Which choice is correct concerning their
    response? (Sec. 11.1.12)
    (A) Ladder 75 shall leave quarters first, unless circumstances make it impracticable.
    (B) Engine 32 shall leave quarters first, unless circumstances make it impracticable.
    (C) Ladder 75 shall always leave quarters first.
    (D) Engine 32 shall always leave quarters first.
A

B

50
Q
  1. Lt. Smith is responding with Tower Ladder 100, driven by FF Jones, to the scene of a
    major building collapse. Which communication from Lt. Smith to FF Jones while responding is
    not in accordance with the Regulations? (Sec. 11.1.13)
    (A) Sensing that FF Jones is overeager, Lt. Smith instructs him to slow down.
    (B) Aware that it is FF Jones first time driving the apparatus to a response, Lt. Smith reminds
    him to ensure that the apparatus is in an optimal position before setting the jacks and outriggers.
    (C) Familiar with the traffic in the area, Lt. Smith directs FF Jones to take Utah Avenue, which
    is the most direct route.
    (D) When the Dispatcher notified Tower Ladder 100 that there was an explosion, Lt. Smith
    relayed this information to FF Jones.
A

B

51
Q
  1. When turning comers, no apparatus shall be driven in excess of mph.
    (Sec. 11.1.17)
    (A) 15
    (B) 20
    (C) 25
    (D) 30
A

A

52
Q
  1. Lt. Green discussed several guidelines with the Chauffeur of Ladder 99. Which one was
    incorrect? (Sec. 11.1.17)
    (A) When responding to an alarm, drivers may proceed past a steady red signal, a flashing red
    signal, or stop sign, but only after slowing down as may be necessary for safe operation.
    (B) When responding to alarms, use one-way streets against traffic for more than one block
    only when absolutely necessary.
    (C) When responding on a one way street against traffic, a full stop shall be made before
    entering an intersection.
    (D) Parkways or express highways shall not be used by apparatus responding to alarms.
A

D

53
Q
  1. When performing a secondary search of the apartment directly above the fire apartment in
    an OLT, a member of Ladder 200 finds a diamond ring on the floor and gives it to her Captain.
    What would be an incorrect action to take? (Sec. 11.3.15)
    (A) The Captain gave the ring to the 1
    st arriving BC, who was the IC due to the DC leaving the
    scene after placing the fire “Under Control”
    .
    (B) The IC gave the ring to a woman who stated that she lived in the apartment, after first
    checking her Driver’s License to confirm she was the occupant. A receipt was obtained.
    (C) After determining that the occupant of the apartment was not present, the ring was given to
    the occupant of the apartment next to the fire apartment, after evaluating his ability to provide
    adequate security. A receipt was obtained.
    (D) After determining that the occupant of the apartment was not present, the BC gave the ring
    to a Police Officer on scene, and obtained a receipt.
A

C

54
Q
  1. After extinguishing a car fire where a 10-18 signal was transmitted and the BC did not
    arrive on scene, a Captain working in an Engine Company discussed the proper procedure to take
    with the Lt working in the Ladder Company. Which choice is correct? (Sec. 11.3.15)
    (A) He shall attempt to notify the owner in all cases.
    (B) He shall attempt to notify the owner, unless the vehicle was an ADV.
    (C) He shall not attempt to notify the owner under any circumstances. This is the responsibility
    of the Police Department.
    (D) If the vehicle is not an ADV, and a 10-41 Code 3 was not transmitted, he shall attempt to
    notify the owner. If unable to notify the owner, he shall relay the make, model, license number
    and location of the vehicle to the Dispatcher.
A

D

55
Q
  1. Upon completion of operations at a 5-7 signal for a Carbon Monoxide detector activation in
    a Private Dwelling, the occupant tells you that her watch is missing from her kitchen table. She
    states that the watch was on the table prior to the units’ arrival, but does not allege that any FD
    members took the watch. Which is a correct action to take? (Sec. 11.3.16)
    (A) You immediately direct members to conduct a thorough search of the dwelling.
    (B) You immediately request the response of a Battalion Chief.
    (C) You interview all witnesses that you can locate at the scene.
    (D) You notify the Inspector General’s Office only.
    (E) You notify the Fire Marshal and the Inspector General’s Office.
A

A

56
Q
  1. While working in Ladder 88, you are arrive at a 2
    nd alarm fire in a Rowframe that has
    extended to an adjoining building. The IC orders you to take your unit to the roof of the fire
    building. Which tools are required to be taken to the roof? (Sec. 11.3.23)
    (1) Life Saving Rope
    (2) Hose Roller
    (3) KO Curtain
    (4) Search Rope
    (5) Utility Rope
    (6) Life Belt
    (A) 1,2, 3, 4, 6
    (B) 1,2, 5, 6
    (C) 1,2, 3, 4, 5, 6
    (D) 4,5,6
A

B

57
Q
  1. Officers of units reporting to the Command Post shall report in alone, after instructing their
    members to stand by at leastfrom the Command Post. (Sec. 11.3.25)
    (A) 10 feet
    (B) 25 yards
    (C) 25 feet
    (D) 50 feet
A

C

58
Q
  1. BC QUESTION - When you receive a ticket in quarters to respond to a 3
    rd alarm, you
    notice the Suffix P on the ticket as your designation. You would know which choice to be
    correct concerning this assignment? (Sec. 11.3.26, Comm. Ch. 2 p. 2-37)
    (A) All responding units and Chief Officers assigned on the 3
    rd alarm shall report to the Staging
    Area. You should contact the Dispatcher by radio to verify the identity of the units assigned on
    the 3rd
    alarm.
    (B) The Staging Area shall be co-located with the RAC Area.
    (C) If a 10-66 is also transmitted, all units assigned on the 10-66 shall respond to the Staging
    Area.
    (D) At the Staging Area, all communications to the Command Post shall be via the Apparatus
    Radio.
    (E) Your vehicle shall be used as the focal point to identify the Staging Area.
A

E

59
Q
  1. BC QUESTION - After supervising two Engine Companies and two Ladder Companies to
    extinguish a fire in a small shed, the 1
    st Engine Officer tells you that his Nozzle FF and Backup
    FF are experiencing difficulty breathing and are being evaluated by EMS. The Officer tells you
    that both members were operating with donned SCBA facepieces. Choose the incorrect action to
    take. (Sec. 11.3.29)
    (A) You immediately request the response of a Medical Officer to the scene.
    (B) You impound the members SCBAs and cylinders, and forward them with the related mask
    record cards to the Bureau of Safety.
    (C) You direct their Officer to conduct an investigation and forward a report to the Chief of
    Department.
    (D) You conduct an investigation and forward a report to the Bureau of Operations with a copy
    to the Bureau of Health Services and Bureau of Safety.
A

C

60
Q
  1. BC QUESTION - As the IC at an incident where a member is receiving CPR or rescue
    breathing, you would be incorrect to take which action? (Sec. 11.3.34)
    (A) Immediately notify the Dispatcher to summon EMS, the nearest FDNY unit carrying
    oxygen if none is on scene, and notify the Medical Officer.
    (B) Upon learning that there will be a delay in the arrival of an ambulance, you transported the
    member to the hospital in the Battalion apparatus.
    (C) You ensured first aid was given while the member was enroute to the hospital.
    (D) Ensured that the member was transported to the hospital in a certified ambulance in all
    cases.
A

D

61
Q
  1. In which choice was the correct action taken? (Sec. 11.3.36)
    (A) A member’s boots were placed out of service after the member suffered a minor contusion
    to their foot when they dropped an axe on it while wearing their bunker pants and boots. The
    member did not request medical treatment.
    (B) A member’s helmet was placed out of service when the member suffered a loss of
    consciousness when struck in the head by a ceiling while overhauling. The member was
    transported to the hospital and placed on medical leave.
    (C) A member’s bunker coat was placed out of service when the member suffered a 1
    st degree
    bum on their arm, and the Officer recorded a Minor Injury in CIRS. The coat showed no
    damage and the member did not request medical leave.
    (D) A member’s helmet was placed out of service when the member suffered an abrasion to
    their cornea while cutting a roll down gate with their eye shields in the “up” position. The
    member was placed on medical leave.
A

B

62
Q
  1. Which choice is incorrect concerning operations after fires are under control?
    (Sec. 11.4.6, 11.4.7, 11.4.12)
    (A) When it is necessary to remove a refrigerator from the premises, the refrigerator door must
    be removed in all cases.
    (B) Officers with ladder companies last to leave the scene of operations shall place fire escape
    drop ladders and counterbalanced stairways in the proper position.
    (C) No one shall be permitted to climb an aerial ladder with the top of the ladder in an
    unsupported position, except in an emergency where operations cannot otherwise be
    accomplished.
    (D) In the event that a ladder pipe becomes temporarily inoperable from the base, the ladder
    may not be climbed under any circumstances. The ladder must be bedded and the problem
    resolved.
A

D

63
Q
  1. At a fire in a large food processing plant, your unit is ordered to operate an emergency
    ammonia mixer. Choose the incorrect action taken. (Sec. 11.5.17)
    (A) Hose lines were connected to the Siamese connection provided for water supply to the
    mixer.
    (B) Al % inch to 2 Z? inch pipe from the Siamese to the mixer required a volume of 100 to 700
    gallons of water per minute.
    (C) As the Officer, you determined the pressure necessary to provide the required volume of
    water.
    (D) The Control valve box was opened by a FD alarm box key.
    (E) The ammonia valve was opened prior to starting water, and was shut down after the water
    was shut down.
A

E

64
Q

PART V - EVOLUTIONS #21A
1. Due to the tight street conditions preventing access for the 2
nd arriving Ladder Company
which is a Tower Ladder, the Deputy Chief ordered Ladder 232, a rear mount aerial ladder, to set
up their ladder pipe. Which action taken should be corrected? (Sec. 3.1, 3.2, 3.5, 3.7)
(A) The LCC placed the apparatus 25’ to 30’ from the building with the turn table centered for
maximum coverage.
(B) The LCC chocked the rear wheel on his side of the apparatus.
(C) One halyard clip was attached to the ladder pipe handle. The other halyard clip was
attached to the collar of the ladder pipe.
(D) Realizing that the fire was on the same side of the apparatus as the hose crib, two members
walked the hose supplying the ladder pipe around the front of the apparatus.

A

D

65
Q
  1. Which guideline concerning the use of the Ladder pipe is incorrect? (Sec. 3.9, 4 - Notes)
    (A) Salt water shall never be used, either during operations or drills.
    (B) One member controls the vertical direction of the stream with the halyards. The halyards
    shall be tied to the turntable when the ladder pipe is to remain in a fixed position.
    (C) The portable ladder pipe is clamped to the center of the top two rungs of the top sliding
    section of the aerial ladder.
    (D) A hose strap is secured just below the swivel of the ladder pipe, taking care to attach it only
    to the top sliding section.
A

A

66
Q
  1. There are several numbers to remember when performing this evolution. Which one is
    incorrect? (Sec. 4 - Notes)
    (A) When the street has a severe crown, allowances must be made to insure the ladder angle
    does not exceed 70 degrees.
    (B) The maximum extension of the ladder with 1 ’A” tip is 100 feet.
    (C) The maximum nozzle pressure is 90 psi for a solid stream nozzle.
    (D) The recommended procedure is to supply the Siamese supplying the Ladder pipe from two
    separate sources of water (pumper, fireboat).
A

B

67
Q

COLLAPSE OPERATIONS
Incident Command
• Structural Collapse is defined as any incident where a building or a portion of a building,
including walls, floors, ceilings, partitions, or structures such as bridges, scaffolds, signs,
construction sites, banners or other items have collapsed or are in danger of collapsing.
• According to CIMS, Structural Collapse is a single command incident and the FDNY has
been designated as the IC for collapse operations.
• Search and Rescue is a FD core competency - FD directs search and rescue operations.
• Both the FD and PD will dispatch resources to the scene. The 1
st arriving resources capable
of performing rescue activities will initiate life safety operations. Life safety operations will
not be disrupted or suspended because of the arrival or transition of Command.
• 1
st arriving FDNY Officer assumes the role of IC for all Structural Collapses that produce
casualties or threaten public safety. This member will remain as IC until relieved by a
superior Fire Officer.
• When the rescue and removal of all people involved in the incident, and stabilization of all
threats to public safety have been accomplished, the scene becomes the jurisdiction of DOB
and/or NYS Dept, of Labor (for buildings under construction/demolition).

First Arriving Units General Considerations
• Apparatus Placement
• Designate initial staging area
Notify Dispatcher of “ANNI10-60”
A - Address
N -Nature of Incident
N - Need for additional FDNY Units or other agency resources
I - ICP location
10-60 - Transmit signal 10-60 with appropriate code, WHEN NECESSARY, and if conditions
warrant, an additional alarm
Note: At least one TL shall be special called to every MAJOR collapse if none was assigned on
the initial alarm.

A

DUTIES OF 1st ALARM UNITS AT BUILDING COLLAPSES
In order of Highest to Least Priority, 1st
alarm Engine companies are to:
(1) Extinguish active fire in the affected building and surrounding debris.
(2) Protect exposures.
(3) Extinguish burning vehicles within the vicinity of the collapse.
• At scenes where there is no active fire, stretch and charge precautionary 2 V2” lines in
sufficient number and length to cover the entire operation. Additionally, a 3 V2” line shall be
stretched and charged to supply the 1st
arriving TL.
• At a suspected terrorist event, 2 V2” hoselines should be located between two apparatus, or
other substantial shielding, to protect personnel from secondary blasts.
1
st Engine Company - Water supply. Stretch a 2 !6” handline of sufficient length to cover the
entire site, and consider stretching a 3 Vi” line to supply a TL.
2
nd Engine Company - Ensure a 3 V2” supply line is stretched to the 1
st TL. Assist 1
st engine
with stretching handline and TL supply. May perform CFR- D if necessary.
3
rd and subsequent Engines - fire control, stretch additional lines, augment water supply, CFR�D, assist in the removal of lightly buried victims.
1
st
Ladder Company
• Recon
• Remove Surface Victims
• Perform Preliminary Void Search - Visually search voids - DO NOT cut, lift or remove load
bearing members.
2
nd Ladder Company - Utilities - The major priority is controlling the gas, electric and water
services. - Assist with life safety if necessary - Augment search and rescue.
3
rd and subsequent Ladder Companies - Search additional line-of-sight void spaces or
exposures - assist with control of utilities if necessary - perform debris removal - assist with
victim removal - cut timbers for shoring as directed.

68
Q

REGULATIONS CHAPTER 11
Officer shall not converse with chauffeurs while responding except for - “SIR”
S - Speed - To regulate the speed of the apparatus
I - Information - To relay information received by radio
R - Route - To determine the route to be taken
Safeguarding Property (Valuables) - “OPRA”
When members find articles of value at operations, they shall turn them over to their immediate
supervisory Officer, who shall deliver them to the IC. Shall be turned over to “OPRA”
O - Owner, upon proper ID.
P - PD if the owner is not available
R - Representative - Authorized Representative of the owner upon proper identification
A - Always get a receipt - In all cases a Receipt shall be obtained.
Security or Safeguarding premises - “POOR”
P-PD
O - Owner
O - Occupant
R - Responsible person - IC must evaluate the ability of that person to provide adequate
security.
Officers in Ladder Companies responding to 2
nd and greater alarms who are ordered to the roof
of the fire building, or to the adjoining or adjacent roof shall ensure inclusion of “HULL” in
tools brought to roof.
H - Hose Roller
U - Utility Rope
L - Life saving rope
L - Life Belt
If a fire occurs in a vehicle, other than an ADV or one for which a 10-41-3 has been transmitted
- the IC shall attempt to notify the owner. If this is not possible, the Dispatcher shall be
requested to inform the PD Communications Bureau of “MLML”
M - Make
L - License #
M - Model
L - Location of vehicle

A

EVOLUTION 21 A
Rear mount Aerial Ladder Used as a Water Tower
70-80-90
70 - When the street has a severe crown, insure the ladder angle does not exceed 70 degrees.
80 - Maximum extension of ladder with 1 ‘A” tip is 80 feet.
90 - Maximum nozzle pressure is 90 psi with solid stream nozzle.
• Salt water shall never be used in drills.
• Horizontal movement of stream is controlled by moving the turntable
• Vertical movement of pipe is controlled by halyards.
• Halyards shall be tied to the turntable when the ladder pipe is to remain in a fixed position.
Regulations Chapter 11 Sec. 11.4.12
• Ladder pipes shall be controlled from the base of the ladder. In the event that the ladder pipe
becomes temporarily inoperable from the base, the ladder may be climbed in order to correct
the position of the ladder pipe, provided that the aerial ladder is adjusted to the proper angle.
With water flowing and a man climbing the ladder, the correct angle of the ladder will be that
when the horizontal distance between tip of ladder and center or turntable is between 15
feet to 25 feet (70 to 80 degree angle).

69
Q

SLIDE #2
STREET COORDINATION
• If possible, both 1
st and 2
nd engines on separate hydrants outside the block, each on separate
mains.
Note: At times, it may be necessary for the 1
st arriving Engine to take a position within the
block for use of the apparatus master stream for fire control or exposure protection.
• 3
rd
and 4th
engines on separate hydrants, each on separate main, at the rear of the structure.
• Two of the 2
nd alarm engines should be used to seal off the ends of the street. ECCs of these
engines must remain in cab to move apparatus if directed by IC.
• Remaining Engines positioned well away from scene.
• Tower ladders should be placed in front of the collapsed structure, outside of the collapse
danger zone.
• Initially the 1
st arriving TL should be the only unit in front of the collapse building, unless
there is a specific need for additional units. Subsequent TLs should be positioned to reach
and protect a different exposure.
• TLs are limited in size to 95’. At incidents involving tall/long buildings, consider placing
several units around the collapse, or using Aerial Ladders (100’ reach) if needed.
• Aerial Ladders should be kept away from the front of the building in a secondary staging
area, unless needed for specific rescue purposes.
• SOC Support Ladder companies shall position the same as other ladder apparatus, with their
2
nd pieces located near the main apparatus.
• Rescue Companies and Collapse Units should be placed outside of collapse danger zone but
as close as possible to the front of the building. Due to the weight of their equipment, access
to the collapse site for at least the 1
st arriving Rescue as well as one Collapse Rescue Unit
must be ensured.
• Ambulances need to be visible from the scene, but out of the way of rescue and FF
operations.
• The IC shall request PD to provide tow trucks to remove any vehicles impeding operations at
the scene. They shall be staged several blocks away. They may have to move unattended
emergency vehicles impeding operations.

A

REGS 11.3.16
- When allegations of lost, missing or possibly stolen private property are
received the IC must immediately direct a thorough search of the premises from
which the property is missing. If the property is not found, and the
complainant alleges that the property was at the scene prior to the arrival of the
FD, the IC must obtain from the complainant, info required by Form BF-26. If
the IC is not a Chief Officer, the dispatcher must be immediately notified to
have a BC respond. Neither Officer should make any further independent
investigation beyond ascertaining the info required to complete BF-26. The IC
should not interview witnesses but must immediately make the following
notifications when it is alleged that private property had been stolen or is
missing from the scene of a Department operation.
A. If it is alleged that the property was taken by a FD employee, notify the
IG.
B. If the fire has been designated a 10-41 (all codes), notify the Fire Marshal
and IG.
C. If the complainant does not fall within items A or B above, advise the
complainant to notify the PD.
When information involving lost private property is received after the Dept, leaves
the scene of an operation, the BC on duty in the Battalion responsible for the report
of the operations shall be notified. This Chief shall immediately comply with the
notification procedures outlined above and complete and forward Form BP-26.
11.3.17 - Theft from Quarters: If there is no illegal entry of quarters and a Dept,
employee is suspected, immediately notify the IG and forward a report
with full particulars to the Chief of Ops.
- Theft of property in connection with illegal entry of quarters must be
reported immediately to the PD. Illegal Entry of Quarters Report BP-153
NOTES