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Internal Medicine > Week 7- Infectious Disease 2 > Flashcards

Week 7- Infectious Disease 2 Flashcards

1
Q

True or false: Most infectious diseases are not confined to specific organ systems

A

False

(are confined)

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2
Q

Types of infectious diseases

A

-Bacterial
-Viral
-Miscellaneous infectious diseases

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3
Q

Bacteria are _______ celled microorganisms with well-defined __________ that can grow independently on artificial media without the need for other cells

A

Single
Cell walls

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4
Q

Bacteria can be classified according to ________

A

Shape

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5
Q

Spherical bacterial cells

A

Cocci

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6
Q

Rod-shaped bacteria

A

Bacilli

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7
Q

Spiral-shaped bacteria

A

Spirilla/spriochetes

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8
Q

Bacteria can also be classified according to…

A

-Response to staining (gram-positive, gram-negative, or acid-fast)
-Motility (motile or nonmotile)
-Tendency toward capsulation (encapsulated or nonencapsulated)
-Capacity to form spores (sporulating or nonsporulating)
-Aerobic: oxygen is needed to replicate and develop
-Anaerobic: they can sustain life in an oxygen-poor (anaerobic)

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9
Q

True or false: Bacteria have a lack of a true nuclear membrane

A

True

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10
Q

Bacteria require a nourishing __________ (amino acids, sugars, and other) to provide ____________ to maintain function

A

Medium
Metabolic substrates

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11
Q

True or false: Bacteria multiply, competing with host (human) cells for essential nutrients

A

True

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12
Q

Bacteria may directly harm human cells by releasing __________

A

Toxic substances

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13
Q

Bacteria may cause an __________ response that will ultimately damage human tissues along with invading bacteria

A

Immune

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14
Q

True or false: All bacteria in the human body are harmful

A

False

(not all)

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15
Q

List of bacterial infections

A

-Enterobacteriaceae
-Clostridioides difficile infections
-Staphylococcal infections
-Streptococcal infections
-Streptococcus pneumoniae
-Clostridial myonecrosis (Gas Gangrene)
-Psuedomonas

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16
Q

Clostridium

A

-Spindle

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17
Q

Staphylo

A

Shapes that resemble clusters

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18
Q

Name that infection!

-Anyone but person 65+ years are greater at risk
-Diarrhea after antibiotic consumption
-GI system
-Fecal oral route

A

Clostridioides dififcile infections (CID)

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19
Q

Name that infection!

-Individuals with chronic skin lesions, surgical/burn patients
-Burns, surgical wounds, arthritis, food poisoning
-Integumentary

A

Staphylococcal infections

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20
Q

Name that infection!

-Strep throat
-Group A streptococci (GAS) via respiratory droplets; Group B (GBS) via neonatal pneumonia, meningitis, and sepsis

A

Streptococcal infections

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21
Q

The death of body tissue, usually associated with loss of vascular (nutritive, arterial circulation) supply and followed by bacterial invasion and putrefaction

A

Gangrene

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22
Q

3 major types of gangrene

A

Dry
Moist
Gas gangrene

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23
Q

These forms of gangrene result from loss of blood circulation due to various causes

A

Dry and moist

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24
Q

Gas gangrene occurs in wounds infected by ________ bacteria, leading to gas production and tissue breakdown

A

Anaerobic

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25
Q

Name that infection!

-Anaerobic conditions are necessary
-Integumentary system

A

Clostridial myonecrosis (Gas Gangrene)

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26
Q

Name that infection!

-Most common in hospitals and nursing homes
-Integumentary, circulatory, respiratory

A

Pseudomonas

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27
Q

Factors in picking an antibacterial drug

A

Patient tolerance, bacterial resistance, physician preference

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28
Q

Drugs that are effective against a variety of bacteria

A

Broad-spectrum agents

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29
Q

Drugs in which their spectrum of activity is relatively narrow

A

Specific agents

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30
Q

Drugs that typically kill or destroy bacteria

A

Bactericidal

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31
Q

Drugs that do not actually kills bacteria but limit their growth and proliferation

A

Bacteriostatic

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32
Q

The classification of bacterial drugs may depend on the drug _________

A

Dosage

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33
Q

Basic mechanisms of antibacterial drugs

A

-Inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis and function
-Inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis
-Inhibition of bacterial DNA/RNA synthesis and function

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34
Q

Protein-polysaccharide structures that make up the rigid and firm bacterial cell wall

A

Peptidoglycans

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35
Q

True or false: Drugs do not cause inadequate production of peptidoglycans or other structural components within the cell wall

A

False

(they do)

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36
Q

Some drugs directly punch ________ in the bacterial cell membrane, destroying the selective permeability and separation of internal from external environment

A

Holes

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37
Q

Drugs act as __________ that break apart the phospholipid bilayer, creating gaps and leaks in the bacterial cell membrane

A

Detergents

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38
Q

Drugs that inhibit bacterial protein synthesis enter the bacterial cell and bind to specific ___________ subunits

A

Ribosomal

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39
Q

Binding of the drug to the ribosome either blocks ____________ or causes the ribosome to misread the messenger ________ code

A

Protein synthesis
RNA

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40
Q

__________ serves as an enzymatic cofactor in several reactions, including synthesis of bacterial nucleic acids and certain essential amino acids

A

Folic acid

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41
Q

Drugs inhibit bacterial nucleic acid synthesis by inhibiting the production of __________

A

Folic acid

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42
Q

True or false: Certain bacterial strains have a natural or acquired defense mechanism against specific anti-bacterial drugs

A

True

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43
Q

True or false: A bacteria’s defense mechanism enables the strain to survive the effects of the drug and continue to grow and reproduce similar resistant strains, representing a genetic selection process in which the only resistant strains survive the drug

A

True

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44
Q

States that antibacterial drugs should be used carefully and not overused

A

Antibiotic stewardship

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45
Q

Identifying the specific pathogenic bacteria leads to the use of more _________

A

Selective agents

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46
Q

True or false: Administering broad spectrum antibiotics may help attenuate and kill resistant strains more effectively

A

False

(Selective agents)

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47
Q

Common side effects of antibacterial drugs

A

-Hypersensitivity reactions (skin rashes, itching, respiratory difficulty/wheezing
-GI problems (nausea, vomiting, diarrhea– usually not serious but may be bothersome if they continually interrupt therapy)

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48
Q

True or false: PTs may have to alter the time of the treatment session to work around side effects of antibacterial drugs, especially if GI and similar side effects tend to occur at a specific time of the day

A

True

49
Q

Subcellular organisms made up of only an RNA or a DNA nucleus covered with proteins

A

Viruses

50
Q

Viruses are the _______ known organisms, visible only through an _________

A

Smallest
Electron microscope

51
Q

True or false: Viruses are independent on host cells

A

False

(completely dependent)

52
Q

True or false: Viruses cannot replicate unless they invade a host cell and stimulate it to participate in the formation of additional viruses particles

A

True

53
Q

True or false: Viruses are susceptible to antibiotics

A

False

(not susceptible)

54
Q

True or false: Antiviral medications can mitigate (moderate) the course of the viral illness

A

True

55
Q

True or false: Antiviral medications do not mitigate the course of viral illnesses

A

False

(they do)

56
Q

True or false: Viruses contain cellular components (ex: ribosomes, endoplasmic reticulum) to replicate itself or synthesize proteins and other macromolecules

A

False

(do not contain those cellular components)

57
Q

Viruses contain only the __________ that will produce additional viruses

A

Genetic code

58
Q

To replicate, the virus must rely on the ___________ of the host cell

A

Biochemical machinery

59
Q

How does viral replication work?

A

Virus invades the host cell, takes control of the cell’s metabolic function, and uses its macromolecular synthesizing apparatus to crank out new viruses

60
Q

A virus often __________ the infected cell so that the infected cell cannot carry out its normal physiological activities

A

Incapacitates

61
Q

A virus is released by the process of __________, leaving the host cell relatively intact (although still infected with the original virus)

A

Exocytosis

62
Q

True or false: The host cell may be simply be destroyed (undergo lysis), thus releasing the viral offspring

A

True

63
Q

__________ of the host cell results in the release of the virus and the death of the cell and may stimulate the production of inflammatory mediators which create a _____________ response

A

Lysis
Hypersensitivity

64
Q

HBV, HVC, and HIV are these types of viral infections

A

Bloodborne viral pathogens

65
Q

Varicella-Zoster, Infectious Mononucleosis, and Cytomegalovirus are these types of viral infections

A

Herpesviruses

66
Q

Influenza and COVID-19 are these types of viral infections

A

Viral respiratory infections

67
Q

HBV can be transmitted to HCWs via percutaneous injuries or by direct or indirect contact with __________

A

Blood

68
Q

True or false: Pre-exposure HBV vaccination of HCWs who are at risk is not recommended

A

False

(it is recommended)

69
Q

Accidental percutaneous injuries are the highest risk vehicle for transmission to HCWs from people with acute or chronic ______

A

HCV

70
Q

The incubation period for HCV is ________ weeks, and nearly all individuals with acute infection will have chronic HCV infection

A

6-7

71
Q

More than _____% of all people with HCV develop chronic hepatitis

A

75%

72
Q

True or false: There is a vaccine against HCV available

A

False

(nope lol)

73
Q

True or false: Strict adherence to handwashing and standard precautions is critical to prevent transmission of hepatitis-contaminated body fluids

A

True

74
Q

Derived from the Greek word herpein (“to creep”)

A

Herpes

75
Q

The known human herpesviruses (HHVs) are divided by genomic and biologic behavior into _______ types

A

Eight

76
Q

Approximately 70% of Americans older than 12 years harbor ______ , which is usually responsible for ________ ; 20% older than 12 years have _______

A

HSV-1
Cold sores
HSV-2

77
Q

True or false: Infants born to women with genital herpes can be infected with HSV when they pass through an infected birth canal

A

True

78
Q

Primary infection of herpesviruses occurs through a break in the _________ of the mouth, throat, eye, or genitals or via minor abrasions in the skin

A

Mucous membranes

79
Q

Primary _______ typically affects the mouth and oral cavity, causing vesicles in the mouth, throat, and around the lips

A

HSV-1

80
Q

HSV-2 is most often acquired through __________________

A

Sexual contact

81
Q

Primary HSV-2 causes vesicles to form in the _______________ tract

A

Genitourinary

82
Q

Systemic symptoms of herpesviruses include…

A

Headaches
Malaise
Myalgias
Fever

83
Q

True or false: Primary infection of herpesviruses can be asymptomatic

A

True

84
Q

_________________ reduces the risk of neonatal herpes in mothers known to be shedding the virus

A

Cesarean section

85
Q

Recurrent disease of the __________ is best treated with acyclovir, and recurrent genital disease requires _______ precautions during sexual activity in addition to medication

A

Herpes simplex virus
Barrier

86
Q

True or false: HCWs do not need to protect themselves from acquiring HSV

A

False

(they need to)

87
Q

How HCWs protect themselves from acquiring HSV

A

Adhering to standard precautions and handwashing before all client contact and by the use of appropriate barriers such as a mask, gloves, or gauze dressing to prevent hand contact with the lesion

88
Q

True or false: Varicella is highly contagious

A

True

89
Q

The period of communicability for the varicella zoster virus extends from 1 to 2 days before the onset of the _______ through the first ________ days or until all lesions have formed crusts

A

Rash
4-5

90
Q

VZV is ________ and is known as chickenpox or ________

A

HHV-3
Shingles

91
Q

Approximately ________% of the population develops the secondary, or reactivation, form of VZV, resulting in herpes zoster or shingles

A

10-20%

92
Q

Adults older than _____ years and anyone who is ___________ (e.g., HIV infection, chemotherapy, corticosteroid therapy, or cancer) are at greatest risk for varicella

A

50
Immunocompromised

93
Q

An acute infectious disease caused by Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

A

Herpesvirus type 4

94
Q

Herpesvirus type 4 primarily affects this population

A

Young adults and children

95
Q

Infection with EBV is common in the US, with _____% of people between the ages of 35 and 40 years having been infected

A

95%

96
Q

True or false: When an adolescent or young adult becomes infected with EBV, 35% to 50% of the time the individual will develop infectious mononucleosis. Both genders are affected equally.

A

True

97
Q

Transmission of herpesvirus type 4 is through contact with…

A

Oral secretions
Blood
Transplanted organs infected with the virus

98
Q

True or false: Infectious mononucleosis is not contagious before symptoms develop until the fever subsides and the oral and pharyngeal lesions disappear

A

False

(probably)

99
Q

True or false: The person with infectious mononucleosis should be cautioned against engaging in excessive activity, especially contact sports, which could result in splenic rupture or lowered resistance to infection

A

True

100
Q

The guideline for infectious mononucleosis is appropriate for a period of at least…

A

1 month

101
Q

__________ causes annual outbreaks of pneumonia, bronchiolitis, and tracheobronchitis in infants and very young children and is the main cause of hospitalization for a respiratory illness in this group

A

Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

102
Q

Usually people shed RSV for 3-8 days, but young infants may shed the virus for as long as…

A

3-4 weeks

103
Q

True or false: Rapid diagnosis of RSV may be made by viral antigen identification of nasal washings using an ELISA or immunofluorescent assay (IFA)

A

True

104
Q

Treatment for RSV consists of…

A

Hydration
Humidification of inspired air
Ventilatory support

105
Q

Influenza is caused by the _______ and occurs in epidemics between late ______ and early _______

A

Influenza viruses A or B
Fall, spring

106
Q

True or false: The onset of influenza is usually abrupt, with high fever, chills, malaise, muscular aching, headache, sore throat, nasal congestion, and nonproductive cough

A

True

107
Q

The fever (influenza) lasts about 1-7 days but it is usually _____ days

A

3-5

108
Q

Influenza can progress rapidly in the first few days, causing ________ and _________, particularly in high-risk groups

A

Pneumonia
Respiratory failure

109
Q

True or false: Secondary bacterial pneumonia may also develop after the first few days of influenza, usually 5 to 10 days after the onset of viral symptoms, particularly in the older adult

A

True

110
Q

An early diagnosis of influenza can result in the use of ___________ to minimize the intensity and duration of symptoms, especially in those at high risk for complications

A

Antivirals

111
Q

True or false: In younger patients, rare inflammatory syndromes are sometimes associated with COVID-19

A

True

112
Q

A viral disorder generally characterized by high FEVER; COUGH; DYSPNEA; CHILLS; PERSISTENT TREMOR; MUSCLE PAIN; HEADACHE; SORE THROAT; a new loss of taste and/or smell (see AGEUSIA and ANOSMIA) and other symptoms of a VIRAL PNEUMONIA

A

COVID-19

113
Q

True or false: In all cases, a myriad of coagulopathy associated symptoms often correlating with COVID-19 severity is seen (e.g., BLOOD COAGULATION; THROMBOSIS; ACUTE RESPIRATORY DISTRESS SYNDROME; SEIZURES; HEART ATTACK; STROKE; multiple CEREBRAL INFARCTIONS; KIDNEY FAILURE; catastrophic ANTIPHOSPHOLIPID ANTIBODY SYNDROME and/or DISSEMINATED INTRAVASCULAR COAGULATION)

A

False

(severe cases)

114
Q

True or false: Viral resistance, like bacterial resistance, is not a growing concern

A

False

(it is)

115
Q

True or false: Viruses can mutate and alter their structural or functional characteristics so that previously effective drugs will be unable to control specific viral infections adequately

A

True

116
Q

Efforts should be made to limit the __________ or ____________ use of antiviral drugs

A

Indiscriminate
Inappropriate

117
Q

True or false: Viral infections may produce pain and other symptoms that can be treated by PT

A

True

118
Q

True or false: Currently, many drugs can effectively resolve viral infections in humans

A

False

(only a few)

119
Q

__________ research is a very dynamic and rapidly changing area of pharmacology

A

Antiviral drug

Internal Medicine (25 decks)

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