Week 2 Quizzes Flashcards

1
Q

You are a veterinarian licensed in three States. Once you have been authorized to perform regulatory duties in one state. Are you able to perform accredited duties in the other two states where you are licensed?

a. Yes
b. No

A

b. No

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2
Q

Which is NOT a requirement to be accredited and able to perform a tuberculosis test on a cow in California?

a. Receive authorization from California’s AVIC
b. Receive authorization from the American Veterinary Medical Association (AVMA)
c. Completion of Initial Accreditation Training (IAT)
d. Graduation from veterinary school and a license to practice in California
e. Attendance at Orientation lecture by Federal and State Animal Health Officials

A

b. Receive authorization from the American Veterinary Medical Association (AVMA)

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3
Q

Which of the following is an activity performed only by accredited veterinarians (AVs)?

a. Report suspected cases of reportable animal diseases
b. Call the Federal veterinarian, i.e., Area-Veterinarian-in-Charge (AVIC)
c. Ship animals internationally without inspecting them
d. Perform certain tests on animals on behalf of USDA-APHIS
e. Perform and charge for performing surgeries

A

d. Perform certain tests on animals on behalf of USDA-APHIS

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4
Q

True or False: All veterinarians need to be accredited to practice veterinary medicine.

A

False

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5
Q

You are a Category 1 accredited veterinarian. The owner of a dog and cockatiel is flying with her pets from New York to Los Angeles. The airline requires a health certificate for each one. Can you provide her with these documents? (Make the answer and reason are both correct).

a. Yes, Category 1 veterinarians can do all veterinary accredited work on all species.
b. Yes, since the limitation for Category 1 veterinarians is that they can only write health certificates this would fall within your authorization. You would not be able to do surveillance and/or testing Program Diseases, you would need Category 2 authorization for those activities.
c. No, as a Category 1 veterinarian you cannot write health certificates.
d. No, as a Category 1 veterinarian you could write the health certificate for the dog but you cannot write one for the bird.

A

d. No, as a Category 1 veterinarian you could write the health certificate for the dog but you cannot write one for the bird.

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6
Q

You are planning to do a lot of horse work when you graduate. What type of accreditation would be best for you to fully serve your clients?

a. Category 1
b. Category 2
c. Horses require very little accreditation work, therefore, you do not need to be accredited

A

b. Category 2

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7
Q

Which of the following activities does not require a veterinarian to be accredited by USDA’s National Veterinarian Accreditation Program, i.e. an accredited veterinarian (AV)?

a. Performing surgery on any species
b. Vaccinating cattle for brucellosis
c. Completing certificates of veterinary inspection for animals moving across State lines
d. Performing and charging for administering and reading a bovine tuberculosis.
e. Drawing and submitting blood samples for equine infectious anemia (EIA)

A

a. Performing surgery on any species

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8
Q

What is the mission of the USDA’s National Veterinary Accreditation Program (NVAP)?

a. To lead the veterinary profession by advancing the science and practice of veterinary medicine to improve animal and human health.
b. To protect human health and the environment by ensuring all Americans are protected from significant risks to human health and the environment where they live, learn, and work.
c. To provide private veterinary practitioners with the information they need to ensure the health of the Nations’ livestock and animal population and to protect the public health and well-being.
d. To protect the public health by assuring the safety, efficacy and security of human and veterinary drugs, biological products, medical devices, our nation’s food supply, cosmetics, and products that emit radiation.

A

c. To provide private veterinary practitioners with the information they need to ensure the health of the Nations’ livestock and animal population and to protect the public health and well-being.

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9
Q

Which agency manages activities of veterinary accreditation?

a. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
b. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
c. USDA-APHIS-VS
d. American Veterinary Medical Association (AVMA)

A

c. USDA-APHIS-VS

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10
Q

The primary resource that provides detailed instructions for animal health emergency management, interstate movement regulations, health certificates, vaccinations, reportable diseases, and regulatory form selection and completions for accredited veterinarians is:

a. USDA-APHIS Veterinary Services website
b. NVAP Reference Guide
c. Code of Federal Regulations (CFR)
d. Fellow veterinarians
e. Your State Department of Agriculture/Board of Animal Health

A

b. NVAP Reference Guide

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11
Q

What is the NVAP Reference Guideline?

A

A resource created by APHIS that summarizes important regulations (an overview of how to follow the law) important to accredited veterinarians. Helps accredited veterinarians know how to perform accredited duties.

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12
Q

What are the Program Standards?

A

This resource provides the specifics of how to follow the law. Contains details on APHIS-approved methods and requirements (e.g. tests to run and how often) for a specific Program Disease.

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13
Q

What is the Code of Federal Regulations?

A

A comprehensive “law book” that contains all the current Federal regulations.

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14
Q

You are a Category 2 accredited veterinarian. How many supplemental training modules (similar to CE requirements) are you required to complete in a three-year cycle for renewal of your Category 2 accreditation?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 6
d. 9

A

c. 6

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15
Q

Following graduation, you successfully get your veterinary license, and you apply and receive authorization as a Category 2 accredited veterinarian. The job you accept is with an exclusively dog and cat clinic. Will you be able to sign the health certificates for your dog and cat patients?

a. yes
b. no

A

a. yes

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16
Q

What is a fomite?

a. A type of mite that transmits disease from animal to animal
b. A living creature that acquires a pathogen from one living host and transmits it to another
c. A contaminated inanimate object such as clothing, milking equipment, trucks
d. Body fluids (e.g. blood, nasal secretions) containing infectious agents

A

c. A contaminated inanimate object such as clothing, milking equipment, trucks

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17
Q

It is unknown how West Nile virus entered the U.S. in 1999. Based on what you know about the virus and how it cycles and replicates in various hosts, what would be the most likely source(s) for introduction:

a. Any infected mammal
b. Infected horses
c. Infected humans
d. Infected mosquitoes and birds

A

d. Infected mosquitoes and birds

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18
Q

Which of these types of diseases would be most difficult to prevent from entering and infecting animals in the U.S.? All pose a risk but which would pose the greatest risk?

a. Highly contagious disease of cattle
b. A disease of swine that has a short incubation period and is highly fatal
c. A disease of various species that has wild birds as a reservoir
d. A disease of cattle transmitted by a tick vector

A

c. A disease of various species that has wild birds as a reservoir

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19
Q

A foreign animal disease could enter the United States on/in:

a. A salted dried ham sandwich
b. The boots of a traveler who while traveling internationally walked the footpaths where animals graze
c. An infected human traveler
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

20
Q

Cerebrospinal elaphostrongylosis (CSE) is caused by a nematode Elaphostrongylus rangiferi. The lifecycle of the parasite requires an intermediate host. This disease was introduced to Canadian caribou by reindeer from Norway. What is the most likely way the Canadian caribou became infected?

a. When the reindeer died and the body decomposed, the soil became contaminated with the nematode and the Canadian caribou ingested the parasite from the soil while grazing.
b. Infected reindeer entered Canada and shed the parasite in their feces, local snails ingested the parasite, and were then ingested by the Canadian caribou.
c. Infected reindeer transmitted the disease via nose to nose contact with the native Canadian caribou.
d. Infected reindeer entered Canada and flies mechanically transmitted the parasite from the reindeer to the Canadian caribou.

A

b. Infected reindeer entered Canada and shed the parasite in their feces, local snails ingested the parasite, and were then ingested by the Canadian caribou.

21
Q

There is an outbreak of an infectious agent known to be transmitted directly and transmitted indirectly due to their ability to persist in the environment. Which of the following is a high risk for transmission and something you want to focus on immediately for control?

a. Vertical transmission
b. Transstadial transmission
c. Fomite transmission
d. None of the above. Outbreaks of these types of infectious agents have a low risk of transmission and die out quickly so no route of transmission poses a higher risk than another.

A

c. Fomite transmission

22
Q

African horse sickness is a disease of horses with cardiac and pulmonary signs. It is caused by an orbivirus that is transmitted by biting midges, but cannot be transmitted by casual contact. This is an example of a:

a. Contagious disease
b. Communicable disease
c. Parasitic disease
d. Contagious and communicable disease

A

b. Communicable disease

23
Q

The defining characteristic of reservoir hosts is that they:

a. A biological intermediary, often an arthropod, that carries a disease agent between animals.
b. Transmit infections by aerosol spread or direct contact, but not by indirect contact
c. Serve as a habitat in which the pathogen can survive
d. Almost always show clinical signs of infection

A

c. Serve as a habitat in which the pathogen can survive

24
Q

In a climate with long, freezing winters, an infection which persists in the blackfly population from year to year and disappears from animals after the first frosts is probably maintained by:

a. Direct transmission
b. Horizontal transmission
c. Transovarial transmission
d. Mechanical transmission

A

c. Transovarial transmission

25
Q

If a parasite of cattle requires an intermediate host it:

a. Is infectious after developing for a certain amount of time in the soil
b. Is transmitted from the cow to the calf (vertical transmission)
c. Is transmitted by fomites
d. Is not transmitted directly from bovine to bovine

A

d. Is not transmitted directly from bovine to bovine

26
Q

Mechanisms for the introduction of foreign animal diseases include:

a. Importation of animals and animal products
b. Wildlife movement
c. Humans
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

27
Q

Classical swine fever (hog cholera) can be spread between pigs on a contaminated bucket. This is an example of:

a. Iatrogenic transmission
b. Transmission on fomites
c. Vector-borne transmission
d. Direct transmission

A

b. Transmission on fomites

28
Q

Which of the following is least likely to introduce a foreign animal disease to the United States?

a. A tick that is a biological vector for the disease
b. A house fly that is a mechanical vector for the disease
c. A migratory bird that is a reservoir host for the disease
d. A tick that can transmit the infection transovarially

A

b. A house fly that is a mechanical vector for the disease

29
Q

Lambs born to sheep with contagious agalactia, an OIE listed disease classically caused by Mycoplasma agalactia, can be infected through the colostrum. This is an example of:

a. Indirect contact
b. Vertical transmission
c. Horizontal transmission
d. Vector-borne transmission

A

b. Vertical transmission

30
Q

African swine fever (ASF) was likely introduced into the Caucasus region in discarded food waste (swill) from a ship who sailed to the Caucasus from a country where ASF was endemic. What is it about this virus that makes feeding swill (food waste) to pigs a risk?

a. The virus is present in the meat from not only swine but also cattle and chicken, therefore, it is present in most swill (food waste).
b. The virus is able to withstand high temperatures and is not easily inactivated by heat.
c. It is transmitted by a biological vector, the Ornithodoros spp. tick.
d. The virus can survive in some pork products for long periods of time.

A

d. The virus can survive in some pork products for long periods of time.

31
Q

Which of the following is a salient feature of clinical signs associated with PED?

a. The salient feature of PED is abortion storms. Enteric and respiratory clinical signs are common but resemble other diseases.
b. The clinical signs can vary and resemble many other diseases, e.g. hemorrhagic lesions on the skin (blue ears), bloody diarrhea, mild fever, and decreased production; therefore, there are not any salient features.
c. Vomiting and diarrhea affecting all animals in the herd similarly, i.e. animal age does not affect the severity of clinical signs.
d. Clinical signs include diarrhea and vomiting with very high piglet mortality, up to 100%; however, adults usually recover.

A

d. Clinical signs include diarrhea and vomiting with very high piglet mortality, up to 100%; however, adults usually recover.

32
Q

What did the root-cause investigation by USDA-APHIS suggest was the most likely route of entry of PED into the United States?

a. A cross-species jump from prairie dogs
b. Feral swine from Mexico
c. The feeding of food waste containing undercooked pork (pig swill) from cruise ships to backyard pigs
d. Flexible intermediate bulk containers containing pig feed

A

d. Flexible intermediate bulk containers containing pig feed

33
Q

True or False: Porcine epidemic diarrhea virus is classified as an OIE reportable disease.

A

False - PED is not zoonotic, not a food safety concern, and is not reportable to the OIE

34
Q

Following the 2013 introduction of PED and the 2014 introduction of novel swine enteric coronaviruses in the United States, there was a Federal Order put in place to try and control these viruses. What were the requirements of that Federal Order?

a. Federal order to report all novel enteric coronavirus diseases to government officials
b. Federal order for affected premises to develop herd management plans with a veterinarian
c. Federal order to euthanize all infected animals
d. All of the above
e. A and B only

A

e. A and B only

35
Q

Where was PED first described?

a. United Kingdom in 1971

b China in 1983

c. Belgium 1990
d. Iowa in 2013

A

a. United Kingdom in 1971

36
Q

What animals does the African swine fever virus infect?

a. Pigs
b. Cattle
c. Horses
d. All of the above

A

a. Pigs

37
Q

How is African swine fever transmitted? (Choose the best answer)

a. Direct contact
b. Indirectly via fomites
c. Through vectors
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

38
Q

True or False: Because ASF causes high morbidity but low mortality, the main impact of an ASF outbreak on the swine industry is increased number of days to market.

A

False

39
Q

Which is NOT considered a major risk for introduction and/or spread of African swine fever?

a. Garbage feeding (swill)
b. Feral swine
c. Trucks moving between farms
d. Mosquitoes

A

d. Mosquitos

40
Q

Researchers believe the source of the African swine fever virus introduced into Georgia in 2007 was:

a. Contaminated pig meat imported from Portugal
b. Contaminated swill from sub-Saharan Africa which arrived via international ships and was ingested by swine near the port.
c. Ticks on wild boar from the Ukraine
d. Wild boar migrating from Sardinia

A

b. Contaminated swill from sub-Saharan Africa which arrived via international ships and was ingested by swine near the port.

41
Q

In the United States, the classical swine fever surveillance program targets which swine populations?

a. Sick animals submitted to diagnostic laboratories
b. Swine condemned at slaughter
c. Swine on farms that feed pig swill (food waste)
d. Feral swine
e. All of the above

A

e. All of the above

42
Q

In the classical swine fever (CSF) outbreak in the U.K., what was the probable route of virus introduction into this previously CSF free country?

a. Import of an infected animal/animals
b. Contaminated vaccines
c. Transmission of the virus from an infected insect vector that was accidentally introduced into the U.K.
d. Exposure of pigs to contaminated food discarded by people on a foot path adjacent to a pig farm

A

d. Exposure of pigs to contaminated food discarded by people on a foot path adjacent to a pig farm

43
Q

Which of the following would be the best description of the classical swine fever virus?

a. An RNA virus in the genus Aphthovirus with multiple serotypes and many different strains
b. An RNA virus in the genus Pestivirus with wide strain variability in virulence
c. A single stranded RNA virus in the Coronaviridae family and is often very virulent in young animals and less virulent in older animals
d. A large DNA virus in the genus Asfivirus with wide strain variability in virulence

A

b. An RNA virus in the genus Pestivirus with wide strain variability in virulence

44
Q

In the classical swine fever (CSF) outbreak in the U.K., the virus spread to 16 different sites before it was contained. Transporter delivery of weaned pigs from infected premises explained many of the infected sites. However, some of the sites near the infected grower became infected even though they had not received any pigs from the infected site. What did the officials suspect was the way the virus spread to these neighboring sites?

a. Wildlife scavengers carrying dead infected animals to neighboring farms.
b. Feeding of infected pig swill (food waste)
c. Vectors including mosquitoes and flies
d. Wild boar and feral pig reservoir hosts

A

a. Wildlife scavengers carrying dead infected animals to neighboring farms.

45
Q

How were “dangerous contacts” handled in the CSF outbreak in the U.K.?

a. They were tested and placed under official movement restrictions
b. They were vaccinated, quarantined and monitored for 30 days. If clinical signs developed they were slaughtered.
c. They were blood tested every two weeks and after two consecutive negative tests all movement restrictions were removed.
d. They were slaughtered (depopulated).

A

d. They were slaughtered (depopulated).