Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Medicine Year 1 > Week 102 Swollen Finger > Flashcards

Week 102 Swollen Finger Flashcards

1
Q

Examples of Beta Lactams

A

Penicillins Cephalosporins Carbepenems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Examples of Glycopeptides

A

Vancomycin Teicoplanin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Examples of Quinolones

A

Ciprofloxacin Levofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Mechanism of action of Metronidazole?

A

DNA damage by forming reactive intermediates that inhibit DNA (nucleic acid) synthesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Mechanism of action of Rifampicin?

A

Inhibit RNA polymerase to prevent transcription of mRNA (inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Examples of tetracyclines?

A

Tetracycline Doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Examples of aminoglycosides?

A

Gentamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Examples of macrolides

A

Clarithyromycin Erythromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Mechanism of action of chloramphenicol?

A

Inhibits transpeptidaion. Attaches to ribosome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which antibiotics have antimetabolite activity?

A

Trimethoprim Sulphonamides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which Antibiotics disrupt the bacterial cell wall?

A

Beta-Lactams Vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is an antibiotic?

A

A drug used to treat infections caused by bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which antibiotics disrupt nucleic acid synthesis?

A

Quinolones (ciprofloxacin/levofloxacin) Metronidazole Rifampicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which antibiotics disrupt protein synthesis?

A

Tetracyclines Aminoglycosides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which antibiotics have a minimum inhibitory concentration?

A

Trimethoprim Sulphanomides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What factors give antibiotics specificity against bacterial cells only?

A

No human peptidoglycan layer Different sized ribosomes Structurally different enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is meant by the term “ minimum inhibitory concentration “ ?

A

The lowest concentration of an anti bacterial agent that will inhibit the visible growth of a micro organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Name two time dependant antibiotics

A

Beta-Lactams Vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Name two concentration dependant antibiotics

A

Aminoglycosides Quinolones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the method of action of beta lactams?

A

These inhibit cross linking in the bacterial peptidoglycan layer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How do glycopeptides work?

A

They prevent the release of building block units from the bacterial cell membrane, which in turn prevents the production of the peptidoglycan layer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How do quinolones work?

A

They inhibit the DNA Gyrase enzyme to prevent supercoiling of bacterial DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How does metronidazole work?

A

Damages bacterial DNA, forming reactive intermediates that inhibit DNA synthesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the method of action of Rifampicin?

A

Inhibits RNA polymerase to inhibit the transcription of mRNA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the method of action of tetracyclines?

A

Binds to the 30s subunit of the ribosome, actively with competing with tRNA for the binding site.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the method of action of aminoglycosides?

A

Enter bacterial cells via OXYGEN DEPENDENT transport system, binds to 30s subunit of the ribosome, causing misreading of mRNA and non functional proteins.

27
Q

How does chloramphenicol work?

A

Inhibits Transpeptidation.

28
Q

How do macrolides work?

A

Binds to 50s sub unit and inhibits translocation.

29
Q

How do sulphonamides work?

A

They inhibit dihydrofolate synthase, thereby preventing folate synthesis.

30
Q

How does trimethoprim work?

A

This inhibits dihydrofolate reductase.

31
Q

What type of MHC would a CD+8 (natural killer T cell) attach to?

A

MHC1

32
Q

When a CD+8 attaches to an infected cell it causes clonal expansion through which cytokine?

A

IL-2

33
Q

CD+8 T cells release cytotoxic granules to cause what in the infected cell?

A

Apoptosis

34
Q

B cells can be activated directly by antigens and also indirectly by ______?

A

T Helper Cells

35
Q

Name some antigen presenting cells.

A

Dendritic cells, macrophages, certain B cells

36
Q

Describe T cell dependent activation of a B cell.

A

B cell receptor interacts with antigen Presents on MHC 2 A Th2 CD4+ cross links with B cell T cell secretes cytokines (IL2, IL4) –> activating B cell. Trigger B cell proliferation and differentiation into plasma cells –> AKA B cell activation

37
Q

What type of receptor does a CD +4 th1 attach to?

A

MH2 (Major histocompatability complex 2)

38
Q

A CD+4 Th1 produces IFN- gamma to signal which cell class?

A

Macrophages

39
Q

A ____ produces IL-4 and IL-2 and provides help for B cells i.. allowing them to proliferate.

A

CD+4 Th2

40
Q

Where does the thoracic duct drain?

A

Left subclavian vein

41
Q

What does the lymph do other than recycle blood plasma? Clue* it’s in the gut.

A

Fatty acid/lacteal transport in the small intestine.

42
Q

In which part of the small intestine would you find the following? What are they called?

A

Peyer’s Patch

43
Q

What makes up Waldeyer’s tonsilar ring?

A

Adenoid tonsil, two tubal tonsils, two palatine tonsils, and the lingual tonsil.

44
Q

What is a PRR?

A

A pettern recognition receptor.

Expressed by cells of innate immune system to identify PAMPs

45
Q

What are PAMPs?

A

Pathogen Associated Molecular patterns, expressed by pathogenic cells.

46
Q

How are mast cells activated?

A

Direct contact

Chemokines

PAMPs

Other proteins released by pathogen

47
Q

What effect does histamine have on capillary endothelial cells?

A

Casodilation and increased vascular permeability.

48
Q

Where are most compliment proteins produced?

A

The liver

49
Q

What are the three compliment pathways?

A

Classical

Lepin Binding

Alternative

50
Q

C3 convertase is an enzyme made from which two pathways?

A

Classical & Leptin

51
Q

What does the alternative pathway require from both the classical and leptin pathways?

A

C4b2a (c3 reductase)

52
Q

What role does C3a have in the innate response?

A

C3 (with C5a) binds to mast cells, stimulating the release of histamine.

53
Q

Other than work with C3, what does C5a do?

A

Binds to macrophages, making it far easier for them to bind (through cr1 receptors) to c3b opsonins on the surface of an antigen cell.

54
Q

What is the most common white blood cell?

A

Neutrophils

55
Q

What important protein do basophils release?

A

Heparin

56
Q

what two things (one a pathogen, one an anooyance!) are eosinophils related to?

A

PArasitic worms

Allergies

57
Q

Which factors inhibit colonisation or bacteria on the SKIN?

A

Dry conditions

acidic pH

Regular shedding of outer layer

Antimicrobial substances

Skin-Associated lymphoid tissue

Presence of commensal organisms

58
Q

Which factors inhibit bacterial colonisation of mucus membranes?

A

Mucin production - removed by cilia or peristalsis

Antimicrobial substances

Secretory immunoglobulin A

Regular turnover of outer layers

Mucosal Associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)

Commensals

59
Q

What bacterium attaches to intestinal and urinary epithelia?

A

E. Coli

60
Q

Which bacteria attaches to Intestinal epithelin?

A

Salmonella Typhimurium

Vibrio Cholerae

61
Q

Which Bacterium adheres to the laryngeal epithelin?

A

Bordetella pertussis

62
Q

How does meningitits disseminate through the body?

A

The circulatory system

63
Q
A

Medicine Year 1 (39 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions