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Tyskland NOTES > Voice > Flashcards

Voice Flashcards

1
Q

1 Which international organisation is of particular importance to the aeronautical radio service worldwide?

A ITU

B UNESCO

C IATA

D NATO

A

A ITU

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2
Q

2 What is the legal basis for the setting-up and operation of radio installations in the Federal Republic of Germany?

A Air Traffic Act (LuftVG)

B Convention on International Civil Aviation

C Ordinance on the fitting of aircraft with navigational equipment

D Telecommunication Act (TKG)

A

D Telecommunication Act (TKG)

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3
Q

3 Who is responsible for frequency assignments for the operation of aeronautical stations and aircraft stations in the Federal Republic of Germany?

A Aeronautical Authorities of the Lands (federal states)

B Federal Network Agency (Bundesnetzagentur)

C Federal Minister of the Interior

D Air traffic service (DFS)

A

B Federal Network Agency (Bundesnetzagentur)

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4
Q

4 Who requires an operator’s certificate to conduct radiotelephony communication?

A Sport pilot in Class D airspace

B Student pilot on board a training aircraft in the traffic circuit at an uncontrolled aerodrome

C Operator of an aeronautical station used exclusively for transmitting flight regularity messages

D Student pilot on board a training aircraft in the traffic circuit at a controlled aerodrome

A

A Sport pilot in Class D airspace

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5
Q

5 Who does not need an operator’s certificate to perform radiotelephony communication?

A Operator of a radio station with the call sign “RETRIEVER (RÜCKHOLER)”

B Air traffic controller

C Chief flying instructor at glider sites

D Sport pilot in Class C airspace

A

A Operator of a radio station with the call sign “RETRIEVER (RÜCKHOLER)”

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6
Q

6 Who does not need an operator’s certificate to perform radiotelephony communication?

A Air traffic controller

B Aviation Safety Oversight Officer

C Chief flying instructor at an airfield

D Student pilot in the traffic circuit of aerodromes with controlled/uncontrolled air traffic control

A

D Student pilot in the traffic circuit of aerodromes with controlled/uncontrolled air traffic control

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7
Q

7 The “Radiotelephone Operator’s Restricted Certificate (BZF II)” entitles its holder to perform radiotelephony communication …

A in German language within the Federal Republic of Germany

B for IFR flights

C in English language for VFR flights

D in German and English language at any German aeronautical station

A

A in German language within the Federal Republic of Germany

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7
Q

8 The “Radiotelephone Operator’s Restricted Certificate (BZF II)” entitles its holder to perform radiotelephony communication …

A for IFR flights

B in German language for VFR flights within the Federal Republic of Germany

C in English language for VFR flights within the Federal Republic of Germany

D in any of the ICAO languages for VFR flights

A

B in German language for VFR flights within the Federal Republic of Germany

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8
Q

9 Which operator’s certificate is required to perform radiotelephony communication in German and English during a VFR flight?

A BZF I

B No operator’s certificate required since it is a VFR flight

C BZF II

D No operator’s certificate required if the flight instructor has issued a written flight order

A

A BZF I

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8
Q

10 What is an aircraft station? A station…

A of the aeronautical mobile service on board of an aircraft

B of the aeronautical mobile service at an international airport

C on board an aircraft carrier

D of the aeronautical mobile service at an airfield

A

A of the aeronautical mobile service on board of an aircraft

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8
Q

11 What is an aeronautical station?

A Any station used to exchange radio messages

B Station of the aeronautical telecommunication service located on land or on board a ship for the exchange of radio messages

C Station of the aeronautical fixed telecommunication service

D Land station in the aeronautical mobile service. In certain instances it may be located on board ship or on a platform at sea

A

D Land station in the aeronautical mobile service. In certain instances it may be located on board ship or on a platform at sea

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8
Q

12 What does the term “BLIND TRANSMISSION” mean?

A Transmission of aeronautical information that is not addressed to a specific receiving
station

B Radio message to be repeated by the receiving station

C Transmission of meteorological and flight operational information to aircraft over the high seas or deserts beyond the radio coverage of VHF aeronautical stations

D Transmission of a message to the air traffic service in cases where radio contact cannot be established

A

D Transmission of a message to the air traffic service in cases where radio contact cannot be established

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8
Q

13 What does the term “GENERAL CALL”” mean?

A Transmission of reports on meteorological phenomena which could affect the safety of flight operations, intended for one or more specific stations

B Communication whose receipt has to be acknowledged

C Radiotelephony communication from an aeronautical station to a specific aircraft station

D Stations in the aeronautical mobile service may simultaneously call all stations maintaining listening watch
on a frequency

A

D Stations in the aeronautical mobile service may simultaneously call all stations maintaining listening watch
on a frequency

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9
Q

14 What does the term “HOLDING POINT” mean?

A Marked parking area on the apron of a commercial airport

B A designated position intended to protect a runway, an obstacle limitation surface at which taxiing aircraft and vehicles shall stop and hold, unless otherwise authorised by the aerodrome control tower

C Marked position on a runway where the take-off run is commenced

D Unmarked position in the parking area for general aviation

A

B A designated position intended to protect a runway, an obstacle limitation surface at which taxiing aircraft and vehicles shall stop and hold, unless otherwise authorised by the aerodrome control tower

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9
Q

15 Which abbreviation is used for the term “CONTROL ZONE”?”?

A CZ

B CTZ

C CTR

D CTA

A

C CTR

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9
Q

16 What does the abbreviation “IMC” mean?

A Instrument Meteorological Conditions

B Instrument Flight

C Visual Meteorological Conditions

D Visual flight

A

A Instrument Meteorological Conditions

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9
Q

17 What does the abbreviation “FIR” mean?

A Flight Information Requested

B Flight Information Region

C Flight Information Radar

D Flight Information Received

A

B Flight Information Region

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10
Q

18 What does the abbreviation “H24” mean?

A Continuous day and night service

B No specific working hours

C Sunset to sunrise

D Altitude 2400 ft

A

A Continuous day and night service

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11
Q

19 What does the abbreviation “HX” mean?

A Sunrise to sunset

B Continuous day and night service

C Altitude not specified

D No specific working hours

A

D No specific working hours

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12
Q

20 What does the abbreviation “HJ” mean?

A Sunset to sunrise

B Continuous day and night service

C No specific working hours

D Sunrise to sunset

A

D Sunrise to sunset

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13
Q

21 What does the abbreviation “AIS” mean?

A Airport Information System

B General Information Centre

C Aeronautical Information Services

D All-weather Information System

A

C Aeronautical Information Services

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14
Q

22 What does the abbreviation “SAR” mean?
A Standard Approach Route
B Search and Rescue
C Secondary Approach Radar
D STOP AT THE TAXI HOLDING POINT

A

B Search and Rescue

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15
Q

23 Which abbreviation is used for the term “COORDINATED UNIVERSAL TIME”?
A GMT
B Z time
C UTC
D CUT

A

C UTC

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15
Q

24 What does the abbreviation “ATIS” mean?
A Air Traffic Information Service
B Airport Terminal Information Service
C Automatic Terminal Information Service
D Automatic Information System

A

C Automatic Terminal Information Service

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16
Q

25 What does the Q code “QFE” mean?
A Atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation or at runway threshold
B Atmospheric pressure in reference to a point on the surface of Earth
C Atmospheric pressure in reference to the highest fixed obstacle at an aerodrome
D Altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain elevation when on ground

A

A Atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation or at runway threshold

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17
Q

26 What does the Q code “QNH” mean?
A Atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation or at runway threshold
B Atmospheric pressure measured at the aerodrome reference point
C Altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain aerodrome elevation when on the ground
D Atmospheric pressure in reference to the highest obstacle at an aerodrome

A

C Altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain aerodrome elevation when on the ground

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17
Q

27 If you want the altimeter to indicate the altitude above MSL, which atmospheric pressure shall the altimeter be set to?
A QUJ
B QFE
C QDM
D QNH

A

D QNH

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18
Q

28 If you want the altimeter to indicate the height above aerodrome, which atmospheric pressure shall the altimeter be set to?
A QFE
B QNH
C QDR
D QTE

A

A QFE

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18
Q

29 What does the Q code “QDM” mean?
A Magnetic bearing from the station
B True heading to the station (zero wind)
C True bearing from the station
D Magnetic heading to the station

A

D Magnetic heading to the station

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19
Q

30 What is the Q code for “MAGNETIC HEADING TO THE STATION”?
A QDR
B QDM
C QTE
D QNE

A

B QDM

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19
Q

31 What does the Q code “QDR” mean?
A Magnetic heading to the station (zero wind)
B True bearing/position line from the station
C Magnetic bearing from the station
D True heading to the station

A

C Magnetic bearing from the station

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20
Q

32 What is the Q code for “MAGNETIC BEARING FROM THE STATION”?
A QTE
B QDM
C QFE
D QDR

A

D QDR

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20
Q

33 What are Messages Relating to Direction Finding? Messages which…
A transmit direction finding values to provide navigational assistance
B relate to the failure of radio navigation equipment on board an aircraft
C transmit QNH values
D relate to the failure of radio navigation equipment on the ground

A

A transmit direction finding values to provide navigational assistance

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21
Q

34 In order of priority, which type of message precedes a Flight Safety Message?
A Messages Relating to Direction Finding
B Meteorological Message
C State Telegram
D Flight Regularity Message

A

A Messages Relating to Direction Finding

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22
Q

35 Messages transmitted while performing air traffic control are …
A Flight Regularity Messages
B Messages Relating to Direction Finding
C Urgency Messages
D Flight Safety Messages

A

D Flight Safety Messages

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23
Q

36 A message concerning the safety of an aircraft, any other vehicle or person on board is…
A a Distress Message
B a Flight Regularity Message
C a Flight Safety Message
D an Urgency Message

A

D an Urgency Message

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24
Q

37 A message concerning aircraft parts urgently required is…
A a Flight Safety Message
B a Flight Regularity Message
C an Urgency Message
D an Air Traffic Control Message

A

B a Flight Regularity Message

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24
Q

38 Which of the following messages are authorized in the aeronautical mobile service?
A Messages Relating to Direction Finding
B Messages from aircraft operators
C Administrative Messages from the Aeronautical Authorities of the Lands (federal states)
D Teletype Messages

A

A Messages Relating to Direction Finding

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24
Q

39 A pilot’s message to the control tower “ESTIMATED TIME OF ARRIVAL 1206, PLEASE CALL ME A TAXI” is…
A a Flight Safety Message
B a Flight Regularity Message
C an Urgency Message
D an unauthorized message in the aeronautical mobile service

A

D an unauthorized message in the aeronautical mobile service

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25
Q

40 A pilot’s message to the ATC service “REQUEST RADAR VECTORING TO CIRCUMFLY THE THUNDERSTORM” is …
A an Urgency Message
B a Flight Safety Message
C a Meteorological Message
D a Message Relating to Direction Finding

A

B a Flight Safety Message

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25
Q

41 The clearance “RUNWAY 05, CLEARED FOR TAKE-OFF” is:
A. a Flight Safety Message
B. an Urgency Message
C. an unauthorized message
D. a Flight Regularity Message

A

A. a Flight Safety Message

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26
Q

42 The priority of a pilot’s message “REQUEST QDM” is:
A. lower than “REQUEST QNH”
B. lower than “CLIMB FLIGHT LEVEL 85”
C. higher than “CLEARED FOR TAKE-OFF”
D. same as “RUNWAY 32, CLEARED TO LAND”

A

C. higher than “CLEARED FOR TAKE-OFF”

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27
Q

43 The priority of the instruction “TAXI TO HOLDING POINT RUNWAY 12 VIA C” is:
A. higher than “TRANSMIT FOR BEARING”
B. higher than “CAUTION CONSTRUCTION WORK LEFT OF TAXIWAY G”
C. lower than “CLEARED TO LAND”
D. same as “LINE UP RUNWAY 05 AND WAIT”

A

D. same as “LINE UP RUNWAY 05 AND WAIT”

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28
Q

44 What is the correct way of transmitting the time in the aeronautical radio service if there is no possibility of confusion?
A. Minutes, two digits
B. Hours and minutes
C. Minutes and seconds
D. At discretion

A

A. Minutes, two digits

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28
Q

45 What is the correct way of spelling the call sign DEJFC?
A. DELTA ECHO YULIETT FOX CHARLIE
B. DELTA ECHO JULIETT FOX CHARLIE
C. DELTA ECHO YULIETT FOXTROT CHARLIE
D. DELTA ECHO JULIETT FOXTROT CHARLIE

A

D. DELTA ECHO JULIETT FOXTROT CHARLIE

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29
Q

46 What is the correct way of spelling the call sign DIJYF?
A DELTA YULIETT INDIA JANKEE FOXTROT
B DELTA INDIA JULIETT YANKEE FOX
C DELTA INDIA JULIETT YANKEE FOXTROT
D DELTA INDIA JANKEE YULIETT FOXTROT

A

C DELTA INDIA JULIETT YANKEE FOXTROT

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29
Q

47 What is the correct way of transmitting the altitude 3500 ft?
A three five zero zero feet
B three thousand five hundred feet
C three five hundred feet
D three thousand five zero zero feeet

A

B three thousand five hundred feet

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30
Q

48 What is the correct way of transmitting “QNH 1001”?
A QNH one nought nought one
B QNH one zero zero one
C QNH one thousand one
D QNH one thousand and one

A

B QNH one zero zero one

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31
Q

49 What is the correct way of transmitting the VHF frequency 120.275 MHz?
A one two zero two seven five
B one two zero decimal two seven
C one twenty decimal two seven
D one two zero decimal two seven five

A

D one two zero decimal two seven five

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32
Q

50 What is the correct way of transmitting the time 1318 in order to avoid any error or confusion?
A one three one eight
B thirteen eighteen
C thirteen one eight
D one eight past thirteen hours

A

A one three one eight

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33
Q

51 What is the call sign of an aeronautical station at a controlled aerodrome for air traffic control on the manoeuvring area?
A INFORMATION
B RADAR
C GROUND
D TOWER

A

C GROUND

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34
Q

52 What is the call sign of an aeronautical station at a controlled aerodrome for air traffic control in the traffic circuit?
A. TOWER
B. APRON
C. RETRIEVER (RÜCKHOLER)
D. INFORMATION

A

A. TOWER

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34
Q

53 The call signs of German aeronautical stations at an uncontrolled airfield comprise the name of the airfield plus the term:
A. RADIO
B. AIR SUPERVISION (LUFTAUFSICHT)
C. TOWER (TURM)
D. AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL (FLUGLEITUNG)

A

A. RADIO

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35
Q

54 The call signs of German aeronautical stations at gliding sites comprise the name of the gliding site plus the term:
A. GROUND
B. GLIDER ACTIVITY
C. RADIO
D. INFORMATION

A

B. GLIDER ACTIVITY

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35
Q

55 The call sign the air traffic service uses for the Flight Information Service is:
A. FLIGHT INFORMATION
B. INFORMATION
C. INFO
D. RADIO

A

B. INFORMATION

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36
Q

56 What is obtained from an aeronautical station with the call sign “INFORMATION”?
A. Landing clearances
B. Aerodrome weather
C. Taxiing instructions
D. Take-off clearances

A

B. Aerodrome weather

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37
Q

57 When may the call sign of the aeronautical station be omitted in radiotelephony communication?
A. In any radiotelephony call
B. If confusion with any other aircraft station is ruled out
C. When the aircraft is in the traffic circuit
D. After the establishing of voice communication

A

D. After the establishing of voice communication

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37
Q

58 The call signs of German aircraft stations comprise:
A. the flight number combined with the registration mark
B. the aircraft type designator and the last three characters of the registration mark
C. the letter “D” and another three letters
D. the characters of the registration mark of the aircraft

A

D. the characters of the registration mark of the aircraft

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38
Q

59 An aircraft shall not change the type of its radiotelephony call sign during flight, except temporarily:
A. on the instruction of an ATC unit in the interests of safety
B. at the request of the pilot
C. for powered gliders when changing from powered flight to gliding
D. if the IFR flight plan is cancelled and the flight continues under VFR

A

A. on the instruction of an ATC unit in the interests of safety

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38
Q

60 The abbreviated call sign of an aircraft station comprises:
A. the last two characters of the registration mark
B. the last three characters of the call sign
C. the aircraft type designator combined with the last character of the call sign
D. the first character of the registration and at least the last two characters of the call sign

A

D. the first character of the registration and at least the last two characters of the call sign

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39
Q

61 When shall an aircraft station use its abbreviated call sign?
A. In any radiotelephony call
B. After establishment of radiotelephony contact with an aeronautical station
C. Only for flights in a traffic circuit
D. If it has already been used by the aeronautical station

A

D. If it has already been used by the aeronautical station

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39
Q

62 With which air traffic service can a pilot establish radio contact during a flight in Class C airspace?
A. Air Navigation Service
B. Aeronautical Telecommunication Service
C. Air Traffic Control Service
D. Aeronautical Information Service

A

C. Air Traffic Control Service

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40
Q

63 With which air traffic service can radio contact be established during flight?
A. Flight Information Service
B. Air Navigation Service
C. Aeronautical Telecommunication Service
D. Aeronautical Information Service

A

A. Flight Information Service

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41
Q

64 Which phrase shall be used if the call sign of the calling station is not understood?

A: SAY AGAIN YOUR CALL SIGN
B: VERIFY YOUR CALL SIGN
C: MONITOR YOUR CALL SIGN
D: CONFIRM YOUR CALL SIGN

A

A - SAY AGAIN YOUR CALL SIGN.

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41
Q

65 A message is not completely repeated by a pilot, although this is required by the message type. Which phrase is used to request the pilot to repeat the message?

A: READ BACK
B: GO AHEAD
C: CONFIRM
D: SAY AGAIN

A

A - READ BACK.

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42
Q

66 Which phrase shall be used for “YES”?

A: THAT’S CORRECT
B: AFFIRM
C: ROGER
D: CORRECT

A

B - AFFIRM.

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43
Q

67 Which phrase shall be used for “PERMISSION NOT GRANTED”?

A: FALSE
B: INCORRECT
C: NEGATIVE
D: NO

A

C - NEGATIVE.

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44
Q

68 Which phrase shall be used for “I HAVE RECEIVED ALL OF YOUR LAST TRANSMISSION”?

A: ROGER
B: WILCO
C: AFFIRM
D: WILL COMPLY

A

A - ROGER.

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44
Q

69 The content of a clearly understandable message appears doubtful to you. Which phrase do you use to dispel the doubt?

A: SAY AGAIN
B: CONFIRM
C: READ BACK
D: CORRECTION

A

B - CONFIRM.

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45
Q

70 The altimeter is set to 1013.2 hPa and reads 7500 feet. The aeronautical station requests the current level of the aircraft. What shall be the pilot’s answer?

A: FL 75
B: 7500 ft AGL
C: 7500 ft
D: 7500 ft AMSL

A

A - FL 75.

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45
Q

71 Which phrase shall be used to say “AN ERROR HAS BEEN MADE IN THIS TRANSMISSION”? THE CORRECT VERSION IS …”?

A: QNH 1003 NEGATIVE QNH 1002
B: QNH 1003 I SAY AGAIN 1002
C: QNH 1003 BREAK BREAK 1002
D: QNH 1003 CORRECTION QNH 1002

A

D - QNH 1003 CORRECTION QNH 1002.

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45
Q

72 Which phrase shall be used for “AUTHORIZATION TO PROCEED UNDER CONDITIONS SPECIFIED”?

A: AFFIRM
B: APPROVED
C: CLEARED
D: CORRECT

A

C - CLEARED.

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46
Q

73 Which phrase shall be used to instruct a pilot to set the transponder to a specific mode/code?

A: TRANSPOND
B: RESPOND MODE … / CODE …
C: OPERATE YOUR TRANSPONDER
D: SQUAWK

A

D - SQUAWK.

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47
Q

74 The phrase “WILCO” means:

A: Wait and I will call you
B: I have received all of your last transmission
C: I understand your message and will comply with it
D: I repeat for clarity or emphasis

A

C - I understand your message and will comply with it.

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48
Q

75 The phrase “MONITOR” means:

A: Establish radio contact with (station)
B: Let me know that you have received and understood this message
C: Consider that transmission as not sent
D: Listen out on (frequency)

A

D - Listen out on (frequency).

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48
Q

76 Which phrase shall be used by a pilot to acknowledge the control tower’s instruction: “GO AROUND, RUNWAY BLOCKED”?
A: WILCO
B: AFFIRM
C: ROGER
D: GOING AROUND

A

D - GOING AROUND.

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49
Q

77 Which phrase shall be used by a pilot to acknowledge the instruction “DEKMG HOLD POSITION CANCEL TAKE-OFF, I SAY AGAIN CANCEL TAKE-OFF”?

A: DEKMG HOLDING
B: DEKMG ROGER
C: DEKMG AFFIRM
D: DEKMG CANCEL TAKE-OFF

A

A: DEKMG HOLDING

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49
Q

78 DEHOL receives clearance for take-off on runway 24. How shall the pilot acknowledge the clearance?

A: DEHOL I AM TAKING OFF
B: DEHOL RUNWAY 24 CLEARED FOR TAKE-OFF
C: DEHOL WILCO
D: DEHOL CLEARED FOR TAKE-OFF

A

B: DEHOL RUNWAY 24 CLEARED FOR TAKE-OFF

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50
Q

79 DEKUL has completed take-off preparations. Which phrase shall be used by the pilot to inform the TOWER?

A: DEKUL READY FOR TAKE OFF
B: DEKUL TAKING OFF
C: DEHOL CLEARED FOR TAKE OFF
D: DEKUL READY FOR DEPARTURE

A

D: DEKUL READY FOR DEPARTURE

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50
Q

80 What does the instruction “(call sign) SQUAWK 1352” from an ATC unit mean?

A: Count 1-3-5-2 for radio bearing
B: Request test transmission on frequency 135.200 MHz
C: Switch transponder to Mode/Code 1352
D: Switch to frequency 135.200

A

C - Switch transponder to Mode/Code 1352.

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50
Q

81 If you receive a report from radar control “UNKNOWN TRAFFIC AT TEN O’CLOCK, DISTANCE 4 MILES”, where is the traffic in relation to your cockpit?

A Ahead to the left

B Ahead to the right

C Abeam to the right

D Directly ahead

A

A Ahead to the left

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51
Q

82 When shall an initial call be transmitted?

A Only in emergencies

B On establishing radio contact

C If message has not been understood

D In any radiotelephony communication

A

B On establishing radio contact

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51
Q

83 Which of the following examples is an initial call?

A AACHEN RADIO DELID

B HAMBURG TOWER FROM DEMIL, GO AHEAD

C SAARBRÜCKEN TOWER, THIS IS DIAMK

D GLIDER D2468 FOR WASSERKUPPE, HOW DO YOU READ?

A

A AACHEN RADIO DELID

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52
Q

84 Does a “GENERAL CALL” require acknowledgement?

A Yes, but only by the first pilot called

B Yes, by all pilots in any sequence

C No

D Yes, by all pilots in the sequence called

A

C No

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53
Q

85 Which of the following radiotelephony calls is a “GENERAL CALL”?

A DEKOF, DIEBS, DKARL NÜRNBERG GROUND

B D8765 BERLIN INFORMATION

C ALL STATIONS HAMBURG TOWER … OUT

D LUFTHANSA 123, LUFTHANSA 456

A

C ALL STATIONS HAMBURG TOWER … OUT

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53
Q

86 Which of the following calls is a “MULTIPLE CALL”?

A ALL STATIONS THIS IS DRESDEN TOWER

B DEABC, DGIAL, DHHIA LEIPZIG TOWER

C DIENO DELLW

D DEAMM ERFURT GROUND

A

B DEABC, DGIAL, DHHIA LEIPZIG TOWER

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54
Q

87 Does a “MULTIPLE CALL” require acknowledgement?

A No

B Yes, in the sequence used by the calling station

C. Yes, in any sequence

D Yes, but only by the first calling station

A

B Yes, in the sequence used by the calling station

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54
Q

88 A pilot receives a radiotelephony call but is uncertain whether they have been called. What is the correct procedure to be followed? The pilot shall….

A transmit their own call sign and wait

B transmit their own call sign using the phrase “SAY AGAIN YOUR CALL SIGN”

C wait until the call is repeated

Danswer by using the phrase “SAY AGAIN

A

C wait until the call is repeated

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55
Q

89 What shall be taken into account before radiotelephony communication is commenced?

A The aircraft shall be airbome

B After selecting the correct frequency, the pilot shall ensure that no interference is caused to any on going radiotelephony communication

C A radio check shall have been carried out first

D The distance between the aeronautical station and the aircraft station shall not be less than 30 NM

A

B After selecting the correct frequency, the pilot shall ensure that no interference is caused to any on going radiotelephony communication

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56
Q

90 Before entering Class D (CTR), when is the latest permissible time for establishing radiotelephony communication with the competent ATC unit?

A Immediately after take-off

B 5 minutes prior to reaching the compulsory reporting point

C Upon entering the airspace

D Above 3500 ft AGL

A

B 5 minutes prior to reaching the compulsory reporting point

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56
Q

91 Radiotelephony communication during VFR flights at and above Flight Level 100 is performed in …

A the German language

B any of the ICAO languages

C the English language

D the German or English language

A

C the English language

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57
Q

92 DGIGA receives the instruction to call HAMBURG TOWER on frequency 121.280 MHz. What is the correct confirmation by the pilot?

A DGIGA contact 121.280

B DGIGA will call TOWER DGIGA

C DGIGA changing frequency

D HAMBURG TOWER DGIGA

A

A DGIGA contact 121.280

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58
Q

93 A continuous air-ground voice communication watch shall be maintained during VFR flights in airspace(s):

A E

B E and D

C D only

D C and D

A

D C and D

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58
Q

94 A pilot flies an aircraft under VFR in the traffic circuit of a controlled aerodrome. What shall the pilot always be obliged to do?

A Request a meteorological briefing

B Maintain a continuous air-ground voice communication watch on the aerodrome control frequency

C Transmit a position report at every leg of the traffic circuit

D Always file a flight plan before commencement of the flight

A

B Maintain a continuous air-ground voice communication watch on the aerodrome control frequency

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59
Q

95 Which types of flight do not require maintain continuous air-ground voice communication watch? In the case of VFR flights, …

A at night in Class G airspace (outside RMZ)

B at night in Class C airspace (outside the vicinity of the aerodrome)

Cat night in Class D airspace (outside the vicinity of the aerodrome)

D at night in Class E airspace (outside the vicinity of the aerodrome)

A

A at night in Class G airspace (outside RMZ)

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59
Q

96 Which VFR flights require a pilot to maintain a continuous air-ground voice communication watch on the assigned frequency?

A Flights in Class E airspace (outside RMZ)

B Flights in Class G airspace (outside RMZ)

C Flights in Class F airspace

D Flights in Class C airspace

A

D Flights in Class C airspace

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59
Q

97 A person operating an aircraft on a controlled aerodrome or in its vicinity is obliged, inter alia, to obtain by radio or visual signs prior permission for all movements

A preparatory to take-off and landing

B preparatory to taxiing, take-off and landing

C preparatory to or associated with taxiing, take-off and landing

D preparatory to or associated with take-off and landing

A

C preparatory to or associated with taxiing, take-off and landing

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60
Q

98 A person operating an aircraft under VFR on a controlled aerodrome or in its vicinity shall be obliged to …

A transmit a position report at every leg of the traffic circuit

B always file a flight plan before commencement of the flight

C maintain a continuous air-ground voice communication watch on the appropriate frequency, or, if this is not possible, pay attention to instructions given by light and ground signals or signs

D request a meteorological and an AIS briefing

A

C maintain a continuous air-ground voice communication watch on the appropriate frequency, or, if this is not possible, pay attention to instructions given by light and ground signals or signs

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60
Q

99 In a radio check, what does the message “READ YOU TWO” mean? The radio check is…

A readable but with difficulty

B readable

C readable now and then

D perfectly readable

A

C readable now and then

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60
Q

100 In a radio check, what does the message “READ YOU THREE” mean? The radio check is …

A readable

B readable but with difficulty

C readable now and then

D perfectly readable

A

B readable but with difficulty

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61
Q
  1. In a radio check, what does the message “READ YOU FOUR” mean? The radio check is…

A. Readable.

B. Unreadable.

C. Readable now and then.

D. Perfectly readable.

A

A. Readable

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61
Q
  1. In a radio check, what does the message “READ YOU FIVE” mean? The radio check is…

A. Perfectly readable.

B. Readable now and then.

C. Unreadable.

D. Readable but with difficulty.

A

A. Perfectly readable.

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62
Q
  1. A radio check is “readable”. How is this expressed in radiotelephony communication?

A. Read you three.

B. Read you loud and clear.

C. Read you four.

D. Read you.

A

C. Read you four.

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63
Q
  1. A radio check is “readable but with difficulty”. How is this expressed in radiotelephony communication?

A. Read you two.

B. Read you three.

C. Read you.

D. Read you, GO AHEAD.

A

B. Read you three.

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63
Q
  1. What shall be included in a test communication?

A. The words “TRANSMISSION CHECK”.

B. The words “TEST CHECK”.

C. The words “RADIO CHECK”:

D. The words “CHECK CHECK”.

A

C. The words “RADIO CHECK”.

63
Q
  1. Which message shall a pilot repeat?

A. CLEARED FOR TAKE-OFF

B. CONSTRUCTION WORK LEFT OF RUNWAY.

C. CAUTION OPPOSITE-DIRECTION HELICOPTER.

D. SEVERE THUNDERSTORMS IN THINE VALLEY NEAR MANNHEIM.

A

A. CLEARED FOR TAKE-OFF.

63
Q
  1. Which message shall be repeated?

A. Meteorological messages.

B. Altimeter settings.

C. Traffic information.

D. Messages on runway condition.

A

B. Altimeter settings.

64
Q
  1. Which message shall be repeated?

A. Meteorological messages.

B. Wind direction and force.

C. Information concerning construction work on runways.

D. Frequency in the case of a frequency change.

A

D. Frequency in the case of a frequency change.

65
Q
  1. How shall the receipt of an ATC clearance be acknowledged?

A. By reading back the safety-related parts of clearances.

B. By transmitting one’s own abbreviated call sign.

C. By pressing the microphone switch twice.

D. By pressing the microphone switch three times.

A

A. By reading back the safety-related parts of clearances.

66
Q
  1. DESEL receives the following clearance/instruction: “DEL WHEN AIRBORNE CLIMB STRAIGHT AHEAD ALTITUDE 3000 FEET; THEN TURN RIGHT, WIND 250 DEGREES, 7 KNOTS, RUNWAY 22, CLEARED FOR TAKE-OFF”. What is the correct read back from DESEL?

A. DEL CLEARED FOR TAKE-OFF, RUNWAY 22, WIND 250 DEGREES, 7 KNOTS.

B. DEL CLIMB STRAIGHT AHEAD ALTITUDE 3000 FEET, THEN TURN RIGHT, RUNWAY 22, CLEARED FOR TAKE-OFF.

C. DEL WILCO, RUNWAY 22, CLEARED FOR TAKE-OFF.

D. DEL CLIMB 3000 FEET, CLEARED FOR TAKE-OFF.

A

B. DEL CLIMB STRAIGHT AHEAD ALTITUDE 3000 FEET, THEN TURN RIGHT, RUNWAY 22, CLEARED FOR TAKE-OFF.

66
Q
  1. Which elements of the instructions or information below shall be read back?

A. Runway in use, ground visibility, dew point, take-off clearance, frequency in the case of frequency change.

B. Clearances, taxi instructions, runway-in-use, QNH, SSR codes, level instructions, heading and speed instructions, frequency in the case of frequency change.

C. Clearances, wind direction/speed, heading instructions, QNH, frequency in the case of frequency change.

D. Instructions concerning heading, flight level, speed, altimeter setting, flight visibility, wind direction, take-off clearance and frequency in the case of frequency change.

A

B. Clearances, taxi instructions, runway-in-use, QNH, SSR codes, level instructions, heading and speed instructions, frequency in the case of frequency change.

67
Q
  1. Which VFR flights do usually require the transmission of position reports?

A. All flights in Class E airspace.

B. Night flights in Class G airspace.

C. Entering Class D airspace.

D. Flights above cloud in Class E airspace.

A

C. Entering Class D airspace.

68
Q
  1. VFR flights to controlled aerodrome are governed by the procedures laid down in the “Aeronautical Inforamtion Publication VFR” (VFR AIP). Position reports over compulsory reporting points shall…

A. Not be made. Given the instruction to enter the traffic circuit, no further position reports over compulsory reporting points are required.

B. Be made only if requested by the aerodrome control tower, irrespective of the clearance given.

C. Be made only in the case of special VFR.

D. Be made in all cases, unless expressly stated to the contrary, irrespective of the clearance given.

A

D. Be made in all cases, unless expressly stated to the contrary, irrespective of the clearance given.

69
Q
  1. When, in the case of a daytime VFR flight, shall a pilot transmit position reports to the competent ATC unit?

A. When leaving Class D airspace.

B. Only when flying over radio navigation stations (e.g. VOR, NDB).

C. When flying over compulsory reporting points.

D. When entering Class E or F airspace.

A

C. When flying over compulsory reporting points.

70
Q
  1. A position report normally comprises the radio call sign of the aircraft, position, time of crossing and altitude. Which of these can be omitted under certain conditions in the case of VFR flights?

A. The position provided it is published on the visual operation chart.

B. The flight level if it does now exceed 3500 ft AGL.

C. The time when the message is transmitted at the time of crossing.

D. The call sign if it is a non-commercial flight.

A

C. The time when the message is transmitted at the time of crossing.

71
Q
  1. What data does a position report on flights in the traffic circuit contain?

A. Radio call sign of the aircraft, position, time.

B. Radio call sign of the aircraft, position.

C. Radio call sign of the aircraft, position, altitude.

D. Radio call sign of the aircraft, position, altitude, time.

A

B. Radio call sign of the aircraft, position.

72
Q
A

C: Compulsory reporting point

73
Q
A

A: Non-compulsory reporting point (on-request reporting point)

73
Q
  1. When may the estimated time of arrival instead of a report of arrival be transmitted to the competent ATC unit?

A. At the aerodrome control’s request of the airfield if the landing can be regarded as assumed.

B. If the aircraft is in the traffic circuit and the landing can be regarded as assumed.

C. If the traffic is observed in the traffic circuit.

D. After approval from the aerodrome control of the airfield.

A

B. If the aircraft is in the traffic circuit and the landing can be regarded as assumed.

74
Q
  1. In the case of flight-plan filing and take-off from an uncontrolled aerodrome, the report of departure may be transmitted by radiotelephony. To whom shall it be transmitted in this case?

A. To the radio navigation service for forwarding to the AIS-C.

B. To the competent ATC unit or to the competent FIS for forwarding to the AIS-C.

C. To the Aeronautical Information Service.

D. To the aeronautical station at the destination aerodrome.

A

B. To the competent ATC unit or to the competent FIS for forwarding to the AIS-C.

75
Q

121: Which data shall a report of departure contain if transmitted by radiotelephony?

A: Aircraft identification, departure aerodrome, time of departure
B: Aircraft identification, departure aerodrome, arrival aerodrome
C: Aircraft identification, time of departure, arrival aerodrome
D: Aircraft identification, departure aerodrome, time of departure, arrival aerodrome

A

D - Aircraft identification, departure aerodrome, time of departure, arrival aerodrome.

76
Q

122: When the term “SCATTERED (SCT)” is used in radiotelephony in connection with meteorological conditions, the amount of cloud covering the sky is:

A: 3 to 4 oktas
B: 8 oktas
C: 5 to 7 oktas
D: 1 to 2 oktas

A

A - 3 to 4 oktas

76
Q

123: When the term “BROKEN (BKN)” is used in radiotelephony in connection with meteorological conditions, the amount of cloud covering the sky is:

A: 1 to 2 oktas
B: 8 oktas
C: 5 to 7 oktas
D: 3 to 4 oktas

A

C - 5 to 7 oktas.

77
Q

124: When the term “OVERCAST (OVC)” is used in radiotelephony in connection with meteorological conditions, the amount of cloud covering the sky is:

A: 5 to 7 oktas
B: 3 to 4 oktas
C: 8 oktas
D: 1 to 2 oktas

A

C - 8 oktas.

77
Q

125: What does “3 to 4 OKTAS” in routine meteorological reports mean? The cloud amount is …

A: NO SIGNIFICANT CLOUDS
B: BROKEN
C: OVERCAST
D: SCATTERED

A

D - SCATTERED.

78
Q

126: What does “5 to 7 OKTAS” in routine meteorological reports mean? The cloud amount is …

A: BROKEN
B: FEW
C: OVERCAST
D: SCATTERED

A

A - BROKEN.

79
Q

127: What does “1 to 2 OKTAS” in routine meteorological reports mean? The cloud amount is …

A: BROKEN
B: SCATTERED
C: NO SIGNIFICANT CLOUDS
D: FEW

A

D: FEW

80
Q

128: When the term “CAVOK” is used in a routine meteorological report (METAR), the values of visibility and clouds are:

A: visibility 5000 m or more, no cloud below 5000 ft AGL
B: visibility 10 km or more, no cloud below 1500 ft AGL
C: visibility 10 km or more, no cloud below 5000 ft AGL
D: visibility 5000 m or more, no cloud below 1500 ft AGL

A

C: visibility 10 km or more, no cloud below 5000 ft AGL

80
Q

129: How are the values for flight visibility, ground visibility and runway visual range transmitted?

A: Less than 5 km in metres, above in kilometres
B: In feet and NM
C: Up to 1500 m in metres, above in kilometres
D: In NM only

A

A: Less than 5 km in metres, above in kilometres

80
Q

130: Which of the following ground visibility reports is correct?

A: VISIBILITY APPROXIMATELY NINE THOUSAND FEET
B: VISIBILITY THREE KILOMETRES
C: VISIBILITY THREE THOUSAND METRES
D: VISIBILITY ONE DECIMAL EIGHT NAUTICAL MILES

A

C - VISIBILITY THREE THOUSAND METRES.

81
Q

131: What is VOLMET?

A: Flight Information Service
B: Radio call sign for a unit of the DWD
C: Meteorological broadcasts for aerodrome meteorological reports for airports
D: Call sign of the Air Traffic Advisory Service

A

C - Meteorological broadcasts for aerodrome meteorological reports for airports.

81
Q

132: During a flight a pilot shall request information on the aerodrome weather conditions via …

A: GAFOR
B: AIS-C
C: UHF
D: ATIS

A

D - ATIS.

81
Q

133: ATIS broadcasts serve to provide pilots with information. What information do they contain?

A: Meteorological reports for cross-country flights in VMC
B: Meteorological reports for several airports
C: The true bearing to the aerodrome of destination
D: Arrival and departure information for the safe performance of VFR and IFR flights

A

D - Arrival and departure information for the safe performance of VFR and IFR flights.

81
Q

134: How is SIGMET information disseminated from 0700 (0600 during the summer period) until SS+30?

A: As an aeronautical broadcast on the FIS frequencies every half and full hour
B: As an aeronautical broadcast on the published VOLMET frequencies
C: At the request of the pilot
D: As an aeronautical broadcast on the ATC frequencies

A

A - As an aeronautical broadcast on the FIS frequencies every half and full hour.

82
Q

135 SIGMET messages are for the safety of general aviation flights. What information do they contain?

A: Significant meteorological phenomena, e.g., thunderstorms, turbulence, icing
B: Notification of the cloud base in Classes F and G airspace
C: Routine meteorological reports
D: Meteorological data in chart form, obtainable from aeronautical meteorological offices

A

A - Significant meteorological phenomena, e.g., thunderstorms, turbulence, icing.

82
Q

136 What information shall a distress message contain?

A: Nature of distress, cause of emergency, request to change frequency to 121.500 MHz
B: Nature of distress condition, intentions of the pilot in command, present position, level and heading
C: Nature of distress condition, intention of the pilot, speed
D: Intentions of the pilot, TAS, position, rate of descent

A

B - Nature of distress condition, intentions of the pilot in command, present position, level and heading.

82
Q

137 The distress signal MAYDAY means that …

A: an aircraft is in a difficult situation
B: a passenger on board an aircraft is seriously ill
C: a pilot has made or is about to make an unscheduled landing
D: being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance

A

D - being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance.

83
Q

138 A distress call shall be transmitted …

A: always on the emergency frequency 121.500 MHz
B: on a SAR frequency
C: solely on a FIS frequency
D: on the frequency used or on an emergency frequency

A

D - on the frequency used or on an emergency frequency.

83
Q

139 How shall a distress call be initiated?

A: PAN PAN, emitted preferably three times
B: EMERGENCY, emitted preferably three times
C: MAYDAY EMERGENCY MAYDAY
D: MAYDAY, emitted preferably three times

A

D - MAYDAY, emitted preferably three times.

83
Q

140 Which of the following signals is a distress signal?

A: The word MAYDAY transmitted by radiotelephony
B: The firing of green and red flares
C: The word PAN PAN transmitted by radiotelephony
D: Repeated switching on and off of landing lights or navigation lights

A

A - The word MAYDAY transmitted by radiotelephony.

83
Q
  1. How shall an urgency call be initiated?

A. MAYDAY, emitted preferably three times
B. PAN PAN, emitted preferably three times
C. URGENCY URGENCY
D. ATTENTION, I HAVE AN URGENT MESSAGE

A

B. PAN PAN, emitted preferably three times

84
Q
  1. The radiotelephony signal PAN PAN means that an aircraft …

A. is in imminent, serious danger and requires immediate assistance
B. is in a difficult situation
C. has been hijacked
D. has strayed into a restricted area

A

B. is in a difficult situation

84
Q
  1. Which code shall be selected on an aircraft’s transponder in a distress situation?

A. A 7700
B. A 7600
C. A 7500
D. A 7000

A

A. A 7700

84
Q

144. NOT IN THE QUESTIONARE

A
84
Q
  1. In case of radio communication failure prior to receipt or acknowledgement of a clearance to enter a control zone, the pilot shall …

A. set the transponder code to Mode A 7600, if possible; land at the nearest suitable aerodrome; and report the arrival time by the most expeditious means to the appropriate ATC unit
B. set the transponder code to Mode A 7600, if possible; and find a suitable emergency landing site
C. set the transponder code to Mode A 7600, if possible; and draw attention to the aircraft by performing circles to the left and to the right
D. set the transponder code to Mode A 7600, if possible; make a 180° turn, and return to the aerodrome of departure

A

A. set the transponder code to Mode A 7600, if possible; land at the nearest suitable aerodrome; and report the arrival time by the most expeditious means to the appropriate ATC unit

85
Q
  1. What is a specific feature of a blind transmission?

A. The message shall be transmitted twice
B. At the end of the blind transmission, the aircraft station’s call sign is repeated
C. The message shall be transmitted three times
D. At the end of the blind transmission, the aeronautical station’s call sign is repeated

A

A. The message shall be transmitted twice

86
Q
  1. What is a specific feature of a blind transmission?

A. The message commences with the phrase BLIND TRANSMISSION spoken three
times
B. The time of the next intended transmission is announced
C. At the end of the blind transmission, the aircraft station’s call sign is repeated
D. At the end of the blind transmission, the aeronautical station’s call sign is repeated

A

B. The time of the next intended transmission is announced

86
Q
  1. Which code shall be selected on an aircraft’s transponder in the case of radio communication failure?

A. A 7600
B. A 7500
C. A 7700
D. A 7000

A

A. A 7600

86
Q
  1. What does an aircraft indicate to the aeronautical station when it transmits the transponder code A 7600?
    A. Radio communication failure
    B. Request landing instructions
    C. Emergency
    D. Entering Class C airspace
A

A. Radio communication failure

87
Q
  1. Upon observing a light signal directed towards the aircraft, the pilot shall take the prescribed measures. What shall the pilot take into account?

A. Instructions by radio have priority over signals and signs, with the exception of red
pyrotechnic lights
B. Signals and signs have priority over radio instructions
C. Audio signals can also be given
D. Ground signals have priority over light signals

A

A. Instructions by radio have priority over signals and signs, with the exception of red
pyrotechnic lights

88
Q
  1. Radio instructions have priority over light and ground signals and visual signs. This does not apply to …

A. series of red flashes
B. red pyrotechnic lights
C. steady red lights
D. steady green lights

A

B. red pyrotechnic lights

89
Q
  1. A pilot shall follow, on a priority basis:

A. light signals
B. ground signals
C. instructions by radio
D. flares discharged at intervals of about 10 seconds, which burst into red or green lights
and stars

A

C. instructions by radio

90
Q
  1. Which frequency band is used for radiotelephony communication in the civil aeronautical mobile service?

A. 108.000 kHz - 136.000 kHz
B. 108.000 MHz - 117.975 MHz
C. 117.975 MHZ - 137.000 MHZ
D. 200 - 490 kHz

A

C. 117.975 MHZ - 137.000 MHZ

90
Q
  1. Which channel spacing (frequency band 117.975 MHz - 137.000 MHz) is operated in the aeronautical mobile service in lower airspace?

A. 25 kHz + 8.33 kHz
B. 25 MHZ
C. 25 MHz + 8.33 MHz
D. 8.33 kHz

A

A. 25 kHz + 8.33 kHz

90
Q
  1. Which operating mode is used for radiotelephony communication in the aeronautical mobile service?

A. Full-duplex operation
B. Simplex operation
C. Simplex and duplex operation
D. Duplex operation

A

B. Simplex operation

91
Q
  1. Which designation does the frequency 121.500 MHz have?

A. Inter-pilot air-to-air frequency
B. Information frequency
C. Instruction and training frequency
D. International emergency frequency

A

D. International emergency frequency

92
Q
  1. Which of the frequencies listed below corresponds to that of a German aeronautical station with the call sign “INFO”?

A. 130.780 MHz
B. 121.500 MHz
C. 109.550 MHz
D. 200 kHz

A

A. 130.780 MHz

92
Q
  1. Which frequency is operated in 8.33 kHz channel spacing?

A. 134.555 MHZ
B. 121.500 MHZ
C. 109.550 MHz
D. 200 kHz

A

A. 134.555 MHZ

92
Q
  1. How can a radiotelephony frequency be blocked?

A. Speaking too loudly
B. Speaking too softly
C. Keeping the talk button depressed
D. Switching the radiotelephony unit on and off

A

C. Keeping the talk button depressed

92
Q
  1. How do very high frequency (VHF) waves propagate?

A. The waves travel as ground waves along the surface of Earth and, therefore, also penetrate into valleys, hence they cannot be influenced by topographical obstacles
B. Similar to light, i.e. “quasi optically”
C. The waves are reflected by the ionosphere at an altitude of about 100 km and return
to the Earth’s surface as sky waves
D. Similar to short waves but they are unaffected by atmospheric disturbances

A

B. Similar to light, i.e. “quasi optically”

92
Q

161 Which phenomena can influence the quality of VHF reception in aeronautical radio?
A Altitude of the aircraft and topographical features.
B Ionosphere.
C Day-night effect.
D Atmospherics occurring particularly during thunderstorms.

A

A Altitude of the aircraft and topographical features.

92
Q

162 In which of the following situations is radiotelephony communication between aircraft and the TOWER on frequency 118.250 MHz unlikely to encounter any problems?
A When the aircraft flies at a low altitude in the radio shadow of a mountain, and is far away from the aeronautical station.
B When the aircraft flies at a sufficiently high altitude, and is close to the aeronautical station.
C When the aircraft performs a low-level flight in a valley, in radio shadow in the vicinity of the aeronautical station.
D When the aircraft flies at a low altitude, and is very far away from the aeronautical station.

A

B When the aircraft flies at a sufficiently high altitude, and is close to the aeronautical station.

92
Q

163 What is the maximum distance at which you might expect perfect VHF radio contact over flat terrain at flight level 65?
A Approx. 95 NM.
B Approx. 110 NM.
C Approx. 20 NM.
D Approx. 150 NM.

A

A Approx. 95 NM.

93
Q

164 What Air Traffic Services are there?
A Air Navigation Service, Search and Rescue, and Telecommunication Services.
B Air Traffic Control Service, Alerting Service, Flight Information Service, Air Traffic Advisory Service.
C Alerting, Rescue, Information and Advisory Services.
D Meteorological, Advisory, Search and Rescue (SAR), and Control Services.

A

B Air Traffic Control Service, Alerting Service, Flight Information Service, Air Traffic Advisory Service.

94
Q

165 The Aeronautical Information Service performs the following tasks:
A issue clearances.
B accept and forward flight plans and flight plan following messages.
C distribute meteorological reports.
D organise Search and Rescue (SAR) services.

A

B accept and forward flight plans and flight plan following messages.

94
Q

166 Who is responsible for air traffic control in the Federal Republic of Germany?
A Air navigation provider services authorized by the Federal Supervisory Authority for Air Navigation Services (BAF).
B DFS Deutsche Flugsicherung GmbH.
C Federal Aviation Administration.
D Aeronautical Authorities of the Lands (federal states).

A

A Air navigation provider services authorized by the Federal Supervisory Authority for Air Navigation Services (BAF).

94
Q

167 When is the FIS available to the pilot?
A During the flight but only for flights in Classes C and E airspace.
B During the flight, but only for flights in Class G airspace.
C During the flight.
D Before commencement of a flight.

A

C During the flight.

94
Q

168 Flight preparations are the responsibility of:
A all pilots.
B only pilots of power-driven aircraft.
C inexperienced pilots.
D only pilots performing cross-country flights.

A

A all pilots.

94
Q

169 Meteorological briefing shall generally be requested …
A for commercial flights.
B in the event of uncertain meteorological conditions.
C for flights leaving the vicinity of the aerodrome of departure and for all IFR flights.
D for flights in respect of which flight plans must be filed.

A

C for flights leaving the vicinity of the aerodrome of departure and for all IFR flights.

94
Q

170 The time data used for aviation purposes are always based on …
A Local time.
B Zone time (Z time).
C CET or CEST.
D Coordinated Universal Time (UTC).

A

D Coordinated Universal Time (UTC).

94
Q

171 What is the measurement unit for horizontal speed in aviation?
A Miles per minute.
B Kilometres per hour.
C Metres per minute.
D Knots.

A

D Knots.

94
Q

172 What is the measurement unit for vertical speed in aviation?
A Feet per second.
B Knots.
C Metres per minute.
D Feet per minute.

A

D Feet per minute.

94
Q

173 What is the measurement unit for altitudes in aviation?
A Feet.
B Metres.
C Kilometres.
D Inches.

A

A Feet.

94
Q

174 What is the measurement unit for distances used in aviation for navigation purposes?
A Miles.
B Kilometres.
C Knots.
D Nautical miles and tenths.

A

D Nautical miles and tenths.

94
Q

175 What is the measurement unit for atmospheric pressure in aviation?
A Millibar.
B Hectopascal.
C Atmosphere above atmospheric pressure.
D Millimetre of mercury.

A

B Hectopascal.

94
Q

176 Which minimum height shall be observed over the congested areas of cities for VFR flights?
A 300 m (1000 ft) above ground or the highest obstacle.
B 300 m (1000 ft) above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft.
C 600 m (2000 ft) above the highest obstacle within a radius of 150 m from the aircraft.
D 600 m (2000 ft), if no contact to obstacles.

A

B 300 m (1000 ft) above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft.

94
Q

177 What is the required minimum distance to the highest obstacle for VFR flights over ground or water at an altitude of 150 m (500 ft)?
A 300 m (1000 ft) from the aircraft.
B 1.5 km to the next obstacle.
C 150 m (500 ft) from the aircraft.
D No distance required.

A

C 150 m (500 ft) from the aircraft.

94
Q

178 A power-driven aircraft and a glider are approaching head-on. Who shall give way?
A Both shall turn right.
B The glider.
C The faster aircraft.
D The power-driven aircraft.

A

A Both shall turn right.

95
Q

179 Aircraft towing objects shall have the right of way over …
A power-driven aircraft.
B all other aircraft.
C gliders.
D powered gliders with their engines turned off.

A

A power-driven aircraft.

95
Q

180 A pilot observes a powered glider (engine running) converging at approximately the same level from the left that will cross the pilot’s flight path. Who shall give way?
A The aircraft shall give way to the powered glider.
B The faster aircraft shall give way.
C Both aircraft shall change course.
D The powered glider shall give way to the aircraft.

A

D The powered glider shall give way to the aircraft.

95
Q

181 When an aircraft is in the final stages of an approach to land…

A an aircraft at a higher level shall have the right of way

B an aircraft at a lower level shall make a long landing

C an aircraft at a lower level shall have the right of way

D a multiple-seated aircraft always shall have the right of way

A

C an aircraft at a lower level shall have the right of way

95
Q

182 When shall all aircraft display navigation lights?

A At night

B At night and in low visibility conditions

C From SS+30 to SR

D From SS+30 to SR+30

A

A At night

95
Q

183 All aircraft in flight and fitted with anti-collision lights shall display such lights ….

A from take-off to landing at night in low visibility conditions

B during night only

C during day and night

D by aircraft operating at night and in daytime in low visibility conditions

A

C during day and night

96
Q

184 A horizontal red square panel with two yellow diagonals displayed in the signal area indicates:

A the aerodrome is closed for a short time

B the aerodrome is unusable for a prolonged period

C take-off and landing are prohibited for a prolonged period

D landing is prohibited for a prolonged period

A

D landing is prohibited for a prolonged period

96
Q

185 A horizontal white dumb-bell displayed in the signal area indicates:

A aircraft is required to take off on taxiway

B landing is prohibited for leisure aircraft

C taxiway may not be used for the time being

D aircraft are required to land, take off, and taxi on runways and taxiways only

A

D aircraft are required to land, take off, and taxi on runways and taxiways only

96
Q

186 A white or orange “T” (landing T) which is either illuminated or outlined in white lights at night indicates:

A take-off is prohibited

B aircraft is required to perform take-offs and landings on runway only

C aircraft shall touch down next to the landing T

D take-offs and landings shall be executed parallel to the shaft of the landing T towards the cross arm

A

D take-offs and landings shall be executed parallel to the shaft of the landing T towards the cross arm

96
Q

187 A set of two digits displayed vertically at or near the aerodrome control tower indicates:

A the last two digits of the QNH

B the temperature

C the direction for take-off, expressed in units of ten degrees to the nearest 10° of the magnetic compass

D the direction for landing, rounded off to the magnetic heading

A

C the direction for take-off, expressed in units of ten degrees to the nearest 10° of the magnetic compass

96
Q

188 When displayed in a signal area, or horizontally at the end of the runway or strip in use, a righthand arrow of conspicuous colour indicates:

A taxiing manoeuvres shall be made to the right only

B aircraft shall take off and land to the right of the runway

C turns shall be made to the right before landing and after take-off

D right of way shall be given to aircraft approaching from the right

A

C turns shall be made to the right before landing and after take-off

97
Q

189 What does a steady green light directed toward an aircraft in flight indicate?

A Land at this aerodrome and proceed to apron

B Return to aerodrome of departure

C Cleared to land

D Give way to other aircraft and continue circling

A

C Cleared to land

98
Q

190 What does a steady red light directed toward an aircraft in flight indicate?

A Give way to other aircraft and continue circling

B Do not land, aerodrome unsafe

C Return for landing (clearances to land and to taxi will be given in due course)

D Notwithstanding any previous instructions and clearances, do not land for the time being

A

A Give way to other aircraft and continue circling

98
Q

191 What does a series of green flashes directed toward an aircraft in flight indicate?

A Cleared to land

B Land at this aerodrome and proceed to apron

C Give way to other aircraft and continue circling

D Return for landing (clearances to land and to taxi will be given in due course)

A

D Return for landing (clearances to land and to taxi will be given in due course)

99
Q

192 What does a series of red flashes directed toward an aircraft in flight indicate?

A Continue aerodrome traffic circuit

B Leave aerodrome traffic circuit

C Cleared to land immediately

D Do not land, aerodrome unsafe

A

D Do not land, aerodrome unsafe

100
Q

193 What does a series of white flashes directed toward an aircraft in flight indicate?

A Land at this aerodrome and proceed to apron (clearances to land and to taxi will be given in due course)

B Leave traffic circuit

C Continue traffic circuit

D Do not land at this aerodrome

A

A Land at this aerodrome and proceed to apron (clearances to land and to taxi will be given in due course)

101
Q

194 What does a red pyrotechnic light directed toward an aircraft in flight indicate?

A Danger area! Leave area immediately

B Notwithstanding any previous instructions and clearances, do not land for the time being

C Danger! Leave traffic circuit immediately

D Restricted area! Leave area immediately

A

B Notwithstanding any previous instructions and clearances, do not land for the time being

102
Q

195 What does a steady green light directed toward an aircraft on the ground indicate?

A Stop!

B Cleared for take-off

C Cleared to taxi

D Return to starting point on the aerodrome

A

B Cleared for take-off

102
Q

196 What does a steady red light directed toward an aircraft on the ground indicate?

A Vacate taxiway

B Taxi clear of landing area in use

C Stop!

D Vacate runway

A

C Stop!

103
Q

197 What does a series of green flashes directed toward an aircraft on the ground indicate?

A Cleared for take-off

B Runway clear of obstacles

C Return to starting point on the aerodrome

D Cleared to taxi

A

D Cleared to taxi

103
Q

198 What does a series of red flashes directed toward an aircraft on the ground indicate?

A Stop!

B Cleared for take-off

C Return to starting point on the aerodrome

D Taxi clear of landing area in use

A

D Taxi clear of landing area in use

104
Q

199 What does a series of white flashes directed toward an aircraft on the ground indicate?

A Return to starting point on the aerodrome

B Notwithstanding any previous instructions and clearances, do not taxi and take off for the time being

C Taxi clear of landing area in use

D Cleared for take-off

A

A Return to starting point on the aerodrome

105
Q

200 Aerodrome traffic is

A all aircraft in the aerodrome traffic circuit

B all the traffic on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and all aircraft entering the aerodrome traffic circuit

C all the traffic on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and all aircraft flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome. An aircraft operating in the vicinity of an aerodrome includes but is not limited to aircraft entering or leaving an aerodrome traffic circuit

D all aircraft on the runway

A

C all the traffic on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and all aircraft flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome. An aircraft operating in the vicinity of an aerodrome includes but is not limited to aircraft entering or leaving an aerodrome traffic circuit

105
Q

201: When does an aircraft fly “downwind 16”? When it flies a heading of …

A: 340° and the aerodrome is to the right of the aircraft
B: 160° and the aerodrome is to the left of the aircraft
C: 160° and the aerodrome is to the right of the aircraft
D: 340° and the aerodrome is to the left of the aircraft

A

D: 340° and the aerodrome is to the left of the aircraft

105
Q

202: Changes of direction in the traffic circuit shall normally be made …

A: to the south
B: in turns to the right
C: in turns to the left
D: to the north

A

C - in turns to the left.

106
Q

203: Changes of direction in the approach to landing and after take-off shall normally be made …

A: in turns to the left
B: to the south
C: in turns to the right
D: to the north

A

A - in turns to the left.

106
Q

204: Whose signals and signs shall the pilot on the apron and parking areas of a controlled aerodrome follow?

A: Control tower
B: Aeronautical Authorities of the Lands (federal states)
C: Federal Office of Civil Aviation
D: Aerodrome operator

A

D - Aerodrome operator.

106
Q

205: A pilot is performing a VFR flight to a controlled aerodrome. Radiotelephony communication with the control tower is not possible. What action shall the pilot take?

A: The pilot shall proceed to the alternate aerodrome designated in the flight plan
B: Under no circumstances is the pilot allowed to enter the control zone
C: The pilot shall land on an aerodrome outside the control zone. It is for flight operational reasons only that the pilot may continue to the CTR
D: The pilot shall send a blind transmission and continue the flight according to the VFR entry route prescribed in the AIP

A

C: The pilot shall land on an aerodrome outside the control zone. It is for flight operational reasons only that the pilot may continue to the CTR

106
Q

206: During a VFR flight, the pilot has been given clearance to enter the control zone and has received and acknowledged the landing instructions. A short time afterwards, the radiotelephone fails. What action shall the pilot take?

A: Land at an aerodrome outside the control zone and transmit an arrival message
B: Continue the flight to the alternate aerodrome indicated in the flight plan
C: Circle for 10 minutes outside the control zone and then continue the approach
D: Continue the flight in accordance with the clearance

A

D - Continue the flight in accordance with the clearance.

106
Q

207: Flight visibility is defined as …

A: maximum visibility forward from the cockpit of an aircraft on the ground
B: visibility forward from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight
C: visibility from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight to the ground
D: mean slant visibility from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight

A

B - visibility forward from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight.

107
Q

208: The minimum horizontal distance from cloud on a VFR flight in Class D airspace (CTR) is:

A: 300 m
B: 1500 m
C: 1500 ft
D: 300 ft

A

B - 1500 m.

108
Q

209: VFR flights in Class E airspace below FL 100 shall be conducted so that …

A: the pilot shall have flight visibility of at least 8 km and maintain a distance from cloud of at least 500 m horizontally and at least 300 m (1000 ft) vertically
B: the pilot shall have flight visibility of at least 5 km and maintain a distance from cloud of at least 1500 m horizontally and at least 300 m (1000 ft) vertically
C: the pilot shall have flight visibility of at least 5 km and maintain a distance from cloud of at least 300 m horizontally and at least 300 ft vertically
D: the pilot shall have flight visibility of at least 8 km and maintain a distance from cloud of at least 1500 m horizontally and at least 300 m (1000 ft) vertically

A

B - the pilot shall have flight visibility of at least 5 km and maintain a distance from cloud of at least 1500 m horizontally and at least 300 m (1000 ft) vertically.

109
Q

210: What are the requirements for VFR flights in Class G airspace at speeds of 140 kts IAS or less and at or below 3000 ft AMSL/1000 ft AGL?

A: Ground visibility at least 1500 m, clear of cloud
B: Visual contact to the ground, flight visibility at least 1500 m, clear of cloud
C: Ground visibility at least 5 km, ceiling at least 1500 ft
D: Flight visibility at least 1500 m, distance from the clouds at least 300 m horizontally and at least 2000 ft vertically

A

B - Visual contact to the ground, flight visibility at least 1500 m, clear of cloud.

109
Q

211: Is a specific distance from cloud prescribed for VFR flights in Class G airspace at and below 3000 ft AMSL/1000 ft AGL?

A: Yes, at least 1.5 km horizontally and at least 1000 ft vertically
B: Yes, at least 1.5 km horizontally
C: No
D: Yes, at least 1.5 NM horizontally

A

C: No

110
Q

212: In which class of airspace may special VFR flights be conducted?

A: In Classes C and D airspace
B: In Class D airspace (CTR)
C: In Class E airspace
D: Only at FL 100 and above

A

B - In Class D airspace (CTR).

111
Q

213: When shall the standard altimeter setting be used during VFR flights?

A: On flights below 5000 ft AMSL
B: On flights up to 5000 ft AGL
C: Various regulations apply in this case
D: On flights above 5000 ft AMSL or 2000 ft AGL, if this level exceeds 5000 ft AMSL

A

D - On flights above 5000 ft AMSL or 2000 ft AGL, if this level exceeds 5000 ft AMSL.

111
Q

214: On VFR flights above an altitude of 5000 ft AMSL or 2000 ft AGL, if this level exceeds 5000 ft AMSL, the altimeter shall be set to:
A: QNH
B: QFE
C: 1013.2 hPa
D: QFF

A

C - 1013.2 hPa.

112
Q

215: On VFR flights up to an altitude of 5000 ft AMSL or 2000 ft AGL, if this level exceeds 5000 ft AMSL, the altimeter shall be set to:

A: 1013.2 hPa
B: the QFE of the nearest controlled aerodrome
C: the QNH of the nearest airport
D: the QNH of the aerodrome with ATC unit nearest to route of flight

A

D - the QNH of the aerodrome with ATC unit nearest to route of flight.

113
Q

216 How is the sector calculated for semi-circular cruising levels under visual flight rules? On the basis of …

A: the true track
B: the magnetic track
C: the compass heading
D: the true chart heading

A

B - the magnetic track.

113
Q

217 Which flight level(s) shall be used on VFR flights on a magnetic track of 135° with standard altimeter setting?

A: 65, 85, 105
B: 55, 75, 95
C: 50, 70, 90
D: 60, 80, 100

A

B: 55, 75, 95

114
Q

218 Which Flight Information Regions (FIR) under German jurisdiction are there in the lower airspace?

A: Berlin, Hamburg, Frankfurt, Munich
B: Bremen, Langen, Munich
C: Bremen, Berlin, Hannover, Düsseldorf, Stuttgart
D: Berlin, Hannover, Maastricht, Rhein, Langen

A

B = Bremen, Langen, Munich.

115
Q

219 A radio mandatory zone (RMZ) reaches up to an altitude of …

A: 1000 ft AGL
B: 1000 ft AMSL
C: 3000 ft AMSL
D: 2500 ft AGL

A

A: 1000 ft AGL

116
Q

220 A radio mandatory zone (RMZ) reaches from the ground to …

A: 1000 ft AGL
B: 1700 ft AGL
C: 1700 ft AMSL
D: 2500 ft AGL

A

A: 1000 ft AGL

116
Q

221 Control zones in Germany are classified…

A. as Class D airspace.

B. mainly as Class D airspace, but in a few cases as Class C airspace.

C. around airports as Class C airspace, for the rest as Class D airspace.

D. around military aerodromes as Class B airspace, around airports as Class C airspace, and for the rest as Class D airspace.

A

A. as Class D airspace.

117
Q

222 A transit flight through an “HX”-designated control zone outside the hours of operation is possible without clearance if the pilot…

A. has obtained written authorization from the aerodrome commander.

B. prior to the transit flight obtains confirmation from the competent aerodrome control tower, outside the times TWR is operating, from the aerodrome flight information service or from the flight information service, that the control zone is not operational.

C. obtains confirmation from the military ATC prior to commencing the transit flight that the control zone is not operational.

D. confirms by means of the AIP that the control zone is not operational.

A

B. prior to the transit flight obtains confirmation from the competent aerodrome control tower, outside the times TWR is operating, from the aerodrome flight information service or from the flight information service, that the control zone is not operational.

118
Q

223 Which airspace classes are considered controlled airspace?

A. C, D, F

B. E, F, G

C. C, E, F

D. C, D, E

A

D. C, D, E

119
Q

224 Class E airspace extends, unless otherwise classified, …

A. from 1000 ft and 1700 ft AGL, otherwise from 5000 ft AMSL to FL 200.

B. from 1000 ft and 1700 ft AGL to 5000 ft AMSL.

C. from 1000 ft and 1700 ft AGL, otherwise from 2500 ft AGL to FL 200.

D. from 1000 ft AGL and 1700 ft AGL, otherwise from 2500 ft AGL to FL 100.

A

D. from 1000 ft AGL and 1700 ft AGL, otherwise from 2500 ft AGL to FL 100.

119
Q

225 An “ED-R…” area is a …

A. danger area.

B. prohibited area.

C. restricted area for gliders.

D. restricted area.

A

D. restricted area.

120
Q

226 An “ED-D…” area is a …

A. restricted area.

B. danger area.

C. prohibited area.

D. military exercise area.

A

B. danger area.

121
Q

227 When shall aircraft performing VFR cross-country flights be equipped with a VHF transceiver?

A. Only on flights to and from aerodromes without air traffic control.

B. Only on international flights.

C. Only on flights to controlled aerodromes.

D. Always.

A

D. Always.

121
Q

228 VFR flights over continuous cloud cover …

A. may be performed if the aircraft is equipped with at least a VHF transceiver and an VOR receiver or with an ADF.

B. may not be performed.

C. may be performed only with a CVFR rating.

D. may be performed only after ATC clearance.

A

A. may be performed if the aircraft is equipped with at least a VHF transceiver and a VOR receiver or with an ADF.

122
Q

229 Aircraft on VFR flights shall be equipped with an transponder …

A. in Classes C or D airspaces (non-control zone).

B. in Classes C or G airspaces.

C. not require.

D. in Classes G or D airspaces (non-control zone).

A

A. in Classes C or D airspaces (non-control zone).

122
Q

230 Which transponder mode/code shall be set unrequested by powered aircraft on VFR flights in Class E airspace above 5000 ft AMSL or 3500 ft AGL, whichever is higher?

A. A/C 7600

B. A/C 7700

C. A/C 7000

D. The transponder shall not be used without request

A

C. A/C 7000

123
Q

231 During descent from FL 85 to 3500 ft AMSL the pilot of a powered aircraft, prior to reaching the new cruising level, shall set the altimeter and the transponder as follows:

A. altimeter to QNH 1013.2 hPa and transponder to “STAND-BY”.

B. altimeter to QNH and maintain mode A/C code 7600.

C. altimeter to QNH and maintain mode A/C code 7000.

D. altimeter to QNH 1013.2 hPa and transponder to mode A/C code 7600.

A

C. altimeter to QNH and maintain mode A/C code 7000.

123
Q

232 In transponder mandatory zones (TMZ), aircraft on VFR flights shall be equipped with an …

A. automatic altitude reporting transponder and shall squawk the code published for the respective TMZ or the code assigned by air traffic control without request.

B. automatic altitude reporting transponder which emits code 7500 without request.

C. automatic altitude reporting transponder which emits code 7600 without request.

D. automatic altitude reporting transponder which emits code 7700 without request.

A

A. automatic altitude reporting transponder and shall squawk the code published for the respective TMZ or the code assigned by air traffic control without request.

124
Q

233 What is the meaning of the term “AIRCRAFT-TO-STATION BEARING”?

A. Position fixing by use of radar on the ground.

B. Cross bearing by means of radio navigation stations.

C. Position fixing by use of on-board navigation equipment.

D. Terrestrial navigation.

A

C. Position fixing by use of on-board navigation equipment.

124
Q

234 Which radio navigation equipment can be used for ground direction finding?

A. VOR/DME unit.

B. VHF direction-finding station (VDF).

C. NDB unit.

D. TACAN unit.

A

B. VHF direction-finding station (VDF).

125
Q

235 The identification of a VHF omnidirectional radio range (VOR) generally consists of …

A. a flashing signal.

B. three Morse code letters.

C. a call sign.

D. two Morse code letters.

A

B. three Morse code letters.

125
Q

236 A VOR indicator is considered a “command unit” when …

A. the display reads “TO” and the aircraft is flying away from the VOR station.

B. the display reads “OFF” and the aircraft is approaching the VOR station.

C. the display reads “FROM” and the aircraft is approaching the VOR station.

D. the display reads “FROM” and the aircraft is flying away from the VOR station.

A

D. the display reads “FROM” and the aircraft is flying away from the VOR station.

126
Q

237 What does the receiving range of a VHF omnidirectional radio range (VOR) depend on?

A. Speed of the aircraft.

B. Aircraft heading.

C. Flight level of the aircraft.

D. Type of aircraft.

A

C. Flight level of the aircraft.

126
Q

238 The knob marked “OBS” on the VOR indicator is the …

A. frequency selector.

B. omni bearing selector.

C. volume control.

D. TO/FROM switch.

A

B. omni bearing selector.

127
Q

239 Which direction is the radial of a VOR station related to?

A. True north.

B. Longitudinal axis of the aircraft.

C. QTE.

D. Magnetic north.

A

D. Magnetic north.

127
Q

240 The VHF omnidirectional radio range (VOR) operates in the frequency band …

A. 200 MHz to 1750 MHz

B. 108 MHz to 112 MHz

C. 108 MHz to 117.975 MHz

D. 118 MHz to 137 MHz

A

C. 108 MHz to 117.975 MHz

128
Q
  1. When does the TO/FROM indicator on the VOR indicator change from “TO” to “FROM”?
    A. When the aircraft flies over the VOR station
    B. When the heading is changed by 180°
    C. When the heading is changed by 90°
    D. When the IDENT button is activated
A

A. When the aircraft flies over the VOR station

129
Q
  1. An aircraft approaches a VOR station which is set to 320°, and the direction displayed is “TO”. The course deviation indicator (CDI) moves to the left. Where is the aircraft?
    A. Left of the radial
    B. Over the radial
    C. Right of the radial
    D. South of the radial
A

C. Right of the radial

129
Q
  1. An aircraft equipped with a VOR receiver intends to fly to a VOR station on the shortest route. Which of the following statements is correct? The omni bearing selector is turned until …
    A. The vertical needle has reached the central position and the TO/FROM indicator reads “TO”. The value displayed by the VOR receiver indicates the direct heading to the station
    B. The vertical needle has reached the central position and the TO/FROM indicator reads “FROM”. The value displayed indicates the direct heading to the station
    C. The horizontal needle has reached the central position and the TO/FROM indicator reads “TO”. The value displayed indicates the direct heading to the station
    D. The vertical needle with a “TO flag” deflects fully to the left. The value displayed indicates the shortest route to the station
A

A. The vertical needle has reached the central position and the TO/FROM indicator reads “TO”. The value displayed by the VOR receiver indicates the direct heading to the station

130
Q
  1. What angular displacement from the radial is represented by each dot on the VOR indicator?
    A. 1°
    B. 5°
    C. 10°
    D. 2°
A

D. 2°

130
Q
  1. The ICAO 1:500000 aeronautical chart contains a reference to “TRENT 108.45 TRT”. What type of radio navigation aid is this?
    A. Non-directional radio beacon (NDB)
    B. Instrument landing system (ILS)
    C. VHF omnidirectional radio range (VOR)
    D. Very high frequency direction-finding station (VDF)
A

C. VHF omnidirectional radio range (VOR)

131
Q
  1. During the approach to a VOR station, the OFF flag appears just before the calculated time of crossing. What is the probable reason?
    A. The VOR receiver has broken down
    B. The VOR station has broken down
    C. The TO/FROM indicator is defective
    D. The aircraft is above the station
A

D. The aircraft is above the station

132
Q
  1. The direction of a VOR radial corresponds to the …
    A. QDR
    B. QDM
    C. QTE
    D. QUJ
A

A. QDR

133
Q
  1. What does the identification of a non-directional radio beacon (NDB) consist of?
    A. Two or three Morse code digits
    B. Morse code digits and letters
    C. Voice identification
    D. Two or three Morse code letters
A

D. Two or three Morse code letters

134
Q
  1. Non-directional radio beacons (NDBs) generally have a designated operational range of …
    A. 25 NM maximum
    B. 15 NM to 100 NM
    C. 60 NM minimum
    D. Far more than 100 NM
A

B. 15 NM to 100 NM

135
Q
  1. Non-directional radio beacons (NDBs) operate in the …
    A. VHF band
    B. SW band
    C. LW and MW band
    D. UHF band
A

C. LW and MW band

136
Q
  1. Which airborne navigation equipment can receive an NDB?
    A. ILS receiver
    B. VOR marker
    C. Marker receiver
    D. Automatic direction-finder (ADF)
A

D. Automatic direction-finder (ADF)

137
Q
  1. Which angle is displayed on the radio-bearing indicator (RBI) of the automatic direction-finder (ADF)? The angle between…
    A. magnetic north and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft
    B. true north and the tuned NDB
    C. longitudinal axis of the aircraft and the direction of the tuned NDB
    D. true and magnetic north
A

C. longitudinal axis of the aircraft and the direction of the tuned NDB

137
Q
  1. The magnetic heading of an aircraft is 155°. The relative bearing is 025°. What is the QDM?
    A. 360°
    B. 130°
    C. 025°
    D. 180°
A

D. 180°

138
Q
  1. Which equipment on board an aircraft is necessary for navigation by means of radio directionfinding stations?
    A. ADF
    B. VOR receiver
    C. VHF radiotelephone
    D. Transponder
A

C. VHF radiotelephone

138
Q
  1. An aircraft flies on a magnetic heading of 090°. The QDR transmitted is 180°. Where is the radio direction-finding station?
    A. To the left of the flight path
    B. To the right of the flight path
    C. Ahead
    D. South of the flight path
A

A. To the left of the flight path

139
Q
  1. A QDM of 225° is received from an aeronautical station equipped with a VHF direction finder. Where is the aircraft?
    A. North-east of the station
    B. South-west of the station
    C. South-east of the station
    D. North-west of the station
A

A. North-east of the station

140
Q
  1. What is the purpose of secondary radar in air traffic control?
    A. Early identification of bad-weather areas
    B. Identification of aircraft, and receipt of additional information concerning VFR flights
    C. Determination of the true airspeed of aircraft
    D. Position fixing by the pilot
A

B. Identification of aircraft, and receipt of additional information concerning VFR flights

141
Q
  1. What information can a pilot obtain from a radar-equipped ATC unit?
    A. Position of the aircraft
    B. True airspeed of the aircraft
    C. Flight attitude of the aircraft
    D. Intended flight path
A

A. Position of the aircraft

142
Q
  1. In aviation, the abbreviation “GPS” stands for:
    A. Geographical Point System
    B. Global Positioning System
    C. Great Circle Planning Screen
    D. GAT Positioning System
A

B. Global Positioning System

142
Q
  1. In aviation, the abbreviation “GNSS” stands for:
    A. Global System for the Standardisation of Terrestrial Navigation
    B. Procedure for Aircraft Positioning on the Apron
    C. Global Navigation Satellite System
    D. Ground-based Radionavigation System
A

C. Global Navigation Satellite System

143
Q
  1. What is a GPS receiver on board an aircraft used for?
    A. Position fixing by means of on-board radar
    B. Determination of the distance to other aircraft
    C. Evaluation and display of satellite signals for navigational purposes (e.g. position, course, speed, distance)
    D. Evaluation of signals of ground-based radio navigation systems for position and course fixing
A

C. Evaluation and display of satellite signals for navigational purposes (e.g. position, course, speed, distance)

Tyskland NOTES (24 decks)

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