Airlaw Flashcards
1: Where is the headquarters of ICAO?
A New York
B Montreal
C London
D Paris
B Montreal
2: Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum for a crew license to have international validity?
A Annex 4,
B Annex 2.
C Annex 1.
D Annex 3
C Annex 1.
5: Which ICAO annex is dedicated to facilitate the passage of passengers at the aerodromes?
A Annex 9.
B Annex 2.
C Annex 8.
D Annex 3.
A Annex 9.
6: A detailed description of the visual ground aids can be found in ICAO:
A Annex 14
B Annex 12
C Annex 3
D Annex 9
A Annex 14
7: Annex 14 to the Convention on International civil aviation contains SARPS for:
A security.
B aerodromes.
C facilitation.
D non of the above.
B aerodromes.
8: Which of the following ICAO documents contain International Standards and Recommended Practices (SARPS)
A Procedures for Air Navigation Services (PANS).
B Annexes to the Convention on International civil aviation.
C ICAO Technical Manuals.
D Regional Supplementary Procedures (SUPPS).
B Annexes to the Convention on International civil aviation.
9: The ICAO Annex dealing with the registration and marking of aircraft is:
A Annex 6.
B Annex 11.
C Annex 14.
D Annex 7.
D Annex 7.
10: According to the Chicago Convention, aircraft of Contracting States shall have the right to make flights into or in transit non stop across the territory of other contracting States and to make stops for non-traffic purposes without the necessity of obtaining prior permission. This applies to the following flights:
A to aircraft of scheduled air services only.
B to aircraft engaged in commercial non-scheduled flights only.
C to aircraft on non-commercial flights only.
D to aircraft not engaged in scheduled international air services.
D to aircraft not engaged in scheduled international air services.
11: Which Freedom of the Air will be exercised by an airline planning a flight that will require a technical stop in neighbouring State?
A 2nd freedom of the air.
B 3nd freedom of the air.
C 1st freedom of the air.
D 4th freedom of the air.
A 2nd freedom of the air.
12: If a state finds that it is impracticable to comply with an International Standard:
A it shall give immediate notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the International Standard.
B it shall give 45 days notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the International Standard.
C it shall give 60 days notice to ICAO of the differences between ist own practices and the International Standard.
D it shall give 90 days notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the International Standard
A it shall give immediate notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the International Standard.
14: Concerning the Chicago Convention of 1944:
A each State has total sovereignty over the airspace above its territory.
B each State was required to recognize the other States attending.
C only 52 nations were permitted to attend.
D all States in the world attended.
A each State has total sovereignty over the airspace above its territory.
15: The president of the ICAO Council is elected for:
A 1 year.
B 3 years.
C 5 years.
D 10 years.
B 3 years.
16: Which international organisation was founded with the Chicago Agreement?
A AOPA
B JAA
C ICAO
D IATA
C ICAO
17:International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) establishes:
A standards and recommended international practices for contracting member States.
B standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all States, signatory to the Chicago convention.
C aeronautical standards adopted by all States.
D proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes.
A standards and recommended international practices for contracting member States.
18: According to Article 73 of the German Basic Law, the legislative right concerning aviation is:
A jointly possessed by the Federal Government and the Länder
B exclusively possessed by the Deutsche Flugsicherung GmbH (DFS)
C exclusively possessed by the Federal Government
D. exclusively possessed by the aeronautical authorities of the Länder
C exclusively possessed by the Federal Government
20: 5th Freedom of the Air:
A the right to carry revenue traffic from treaty partner’s territory (B) to carrier’s base nation (A).
B the right to carry revenue traffic between any points of landing on flights between 3 or more treaty partner nations (B to C to D).
C revenue traffic flown between two nations (C to A) by carrier of a third nation (B).
D the right to carry revenue traffic between two points within a treay nation (B) by the carrier of another nation (A).
B the right to carry revenue traffic between any points of landing on flights between 3 or more treaty partner nations (B to C to D).
21: Regarding air operations what is the role of the national aviation authorities in relation to EASA?
A EASA is the regulatory authority whereas national aviation authorities can implement or reject the rules on air operations.
B EASA proposes recommendations about safety in aviation to national aviation authorities which thereupon implement thier own rules.
C EASA proposes rules and regulations to the national aviation authorities, which they can implement or reject.
D EASA proposes implementing rules and regulations and the national aviation act as competent authorities.
D EASA proposes implementing rules and regulations and the national aviation act as competent authorities.
22: In which area of Air Traffic Control in Europe does Eurocontrol have a logical and operationally essential role to play?
A National airspace management within in Europe.
B Regulation of civil aviation in Europe.
C Regional air naviagtion planning in Europe.
D Air Traffic Flow Management in Europe.
D Air Traffic Flow Management in Europe.
23: What is the main role of EASA in European civil aviation?
A EASA provides legislative proposals to NAAs and promotes the highest common standards of safety and environmental protection in civil aviation.
B EASA provides legislative proposals to NAAs only, without any obligation of implementation.
C EASA provides legislative proposals to the European Commission for implementation and promotes the highest common standards of safety and environmental protection in civil aviation.
D EASA provides legislative proposals to CAAs only, without any obligation of implemenatation.
C EASA provides legislative proposals to the European Commission for implementation and promotes the highest common standards of safety and environmental protection in civil aviation.
24: What is the mission statement of EASA?
A EASA suggest new rules to National Aviation Authorities, which these authorities are free to implement if they see fit.
B EASA suggests the implementation of rules to the European Commission, and promotes the highest common standards of civil aviation safety and environmental protection in Europe and worldwide.
C EASA produces guidlines for National Aviation Authorities, and promotes the highest common standards of civil aviation safety and environmental protection in Europe and worldwide.
D EASA produces rules and regulations, and promotes the highest common standards of civil aviation safety and environmenal protection in Europe and worldwide.
D EASA produces rules and regulations, and promotes the highest common standards of civil aviation safety and environmenal protection in Europe and worldwide.
26: What is the mission statement of IATA?
A IATA’s mission is to represent, lead and serve the airline industry. IATA seeks to improve understanding of the industry among decision makers and increase awareness of the benefits that aviation brings to national and global economies. It fights for the interests of airlines across the globe, challenging unreasonable rules and charges, holding regulators and goverments to account, and striving for sensible regulation.
B IATA produces rules and regulations, and promotes the highest common standards of civil aviation safety and environmental protection in Europe and worldwide.
C IATA’s mission is to serve as the global forum of States for international civil aviation. IATA develops policies and Standards, undertakes compliance audits, performs studies and analyses, provides asstistance and builds aviation capacity through many other activities and the cooperation of ist Member States and stakeholders.
D IATA procedures rules and regulations, and promotes the highest common standards of civil aviation safety and environmental protection in Asia and worldwide. It is a counterpart of EASA for countries in Asia.
A IATA’s mission is to represent, lead and serve the airline industry. IATA seeks to improve understanding of the industry among decision makers and increase awareness of the benefits that aviation brings to national and global economies. It fights for the interests of airlines across the globe, challenging unreasonable rules and charges, holding regulators and goverments to account, and striving for sensible regulation.
28: The ICAO Annex dealing with the safe transport of dangerous goods by air is:
A Annex 15.
B Annex 16.
C Annex 17.
D Annex 18.
D Annex 18.
29: The privilege for an aeroplane registered in one State and enroute to or from that State, to take on passengers, mail and cargo in a second State and put them down in a third State is called:
A 3rd Freedom of the air.
B 4th Freedom of the air.
C 5th Freedom of the air.
D 1st Freedom of the air.
C 5th Freedom of the air.
30: Which is the permanent body of ICAO being responsible to the Assembly?
A The Secretary General of ICAO.
B The President of the Assembly.
C The Council.
D The Air Navigation Commission.
C The Council.
31: Which freedom gives the privilege to land for non-traffic purposes in another ICAO contracting state?
A 3rd freedom of the air
B 4th freedom of the air
C 1st freedom of the air
D 2nd freedom of the air
D 2nd freedom of the air
32: The right to land in another state for technical purpose such as refueling or maintenance is the freedome of the air.
A 4th
B 2nd
C 1st
D 3rd
B 2nd
34: The Second Freedom of the Air is the right to:
A land for a technical stop.
B operate acommercial passenger flight with passengers on board between two states.
C “cabotage” traffic, (Trans-border traffic).
D overfly without landing.
A land for a technical stop.
35: The First Freedom of the Air is:
A the right to board passengers from the State where the aircraft is registered and to fly to another State.
B the right to overfly without landing
C the right to land for a technical stop.
D the opportunity to operate a commercial flight with passengers on board bewtween two States.
B the right to overfly without landing
37: What does the International Air Transport Agreement provide for?
A Free and unhindered transit of aeroplanes over the high seas.
B The freedom for aeroplanes to fly over the territority of any other State without landing.
C. The carriage of traffic between the state of registration of the aircraft and any other participating state.
D The freedom for aeroplanes of one State to land in the territory of another State for the purpose of refuelling
C. The carriage of traffic between the state of registration of the aircraft and any other participating state.
39: The objectives of ICAO were ratified by the:
A Warsaw Convention 1929.
B Montreal Convention 1948.
C Geneva Convention 1936.
D Chicago Convention 1944.
D Chicago Convention 1944.
40: The Air Navigation Commission consists of:
A 33 members appointed by the ICAO Council.
B 19 members appointed by the ICAO Council.
C 19 members appointed by the ICAO Assembly.
D 33 members appointed by the ICAO Assembly.
B 19 members appointed by the ICAO Council.
43: The aviation supervision may prohibit a pilot to depart from an airfield:
A in order to protect against dangers and for ensuring air traffic safety
B in order to maintain flight discipline on the airfield
C because the destination airfield may only be approached after prior permission (PPR)
D for separating the aircraft approaching the airfield
A in order to protect against dangers and for ensuring air traffic safety
45: Standards and Recommended Practices for Security are contained in ICAO Annex:
A 17
B 15
C 12
D 8
A 17
48: The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of persons and their baggage international flights is:
A annex 9
B annex 6
C annex 8
D annex 15
A annex 9
49: The “Standards” contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered:
A binding for all member States
B advice and guidance for the aviation legsiation within the member States
C binding for all airline companies with international traffic
D binding for the member States that have not notified ICAO about a national difference
D binding for the member States that have not notified ICAO about a national difference
51: Annex 17 to the Convention of Chicago covers:
A Security
B Operation of aircraft
C Facilitations
D Aerodromes
A Security
52: The International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) was established by the convention of:
A Warsaw
B Montreal
C Hague
D Chicago
D Chicago
55: Which of the following Annexes to Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for the design of aerodromes?
A Annex 11
B Annex 6
C Annex 14
D Annex 10
C Annex 14
56: Who issues the certificate of airworthiness?
A State of registry
B State of design
C ICAO
D Operator
A State of registry
57: Which state shall ensure there exists a continuing integrity program to ensure the airworthiness of aeroplanes above 5700 kg?
A State of registry
B State of design
C State of the operator
D. The state of registry or the state of the operator
B State of design
58: When is an Airworthiness Certificate required to be on board an aircraft?
A For any flight operation
B For international flights
C For any flight with passengers
D Only for flights that land in an airport different from the departure airport
A For any flight operation
60: The Standards of Airworthiness, detailed in Annex 8 part III are applicable to:
A aeroplanes over 5700 kg Maximum Certified Take-off Mass, intended for the carriage of passengers, cargo or mail in international air navigation
B aeroplanes of over 5700 kg Maximum Certified Take-off Mass, intended for the carriage of passengers only
C aeroplanes over 5700 kg Maximum Certified Take-off Mass, intended for the carriage of cargo or mail in international air navigation
D aeroplanes over 25 700 kg Maximum Certified Take-off Mass, intended for the carriage of passengers, cargo or mail in international air navigation
A aeroplanes over 5700 kg Maximum Certified Take-off Mass, intended for the carriage of passengers, cargo or mail in international air navigation
62: What is the definition of the State of Registry? (ICAO ANNEX /7
A The State on whose register the aircraft is entered
B The State where the lessor is registered
C The State where the operator is registered
D The State where the aircraft is based
A The State on whose register the aircraft is entered
63: According to Annex 7, the definition of heavier-than-air aircraft is:
A A power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving ist lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic reactions on surfaces which remain fixed under given conditions of flight
B Any machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from the reactions of the air other than the reactions of the air against the Earth’s surface
C A non-power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving ist lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic reactions on surfaces which remain fixed under given conditions of flight
D Any aircraft deriving ist lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic forces
D Any aircraft deriving ist lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic forces
66: Which of the following gets its lift chiefly through aerodynamis forces?
A Heavier - than - air aircraft
B Aeroplanes
C Lighter-than-air aircraft
D Rotorcraft
A Heavier - than - air aircraft
69: According to Annex 7, the registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by:
A the State of Registry or common mark registering authority
B the State of Registry only
C the international Civil Aviation Organisation
D the International Telecommunication Union
A the State of Registry or common mark registering authority
73: The assignment of the common mark to a common mark registering authority will be made by:
A the State of Registry and accepted by the international
Telecommunication Union
B the International Telecommunication Union
C the State of Registry
D the International Civil Aviation Organization
D the International Civil Aviation Organization
75: According to Annex 7, the definition of aircraft is:
A A power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving its lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic reactions on surfaces which remain fixed under given conditions of flight
B Any machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from reactions of the air other than the reactions of the air against the Earth’s surface
C A non-power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving its lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic reactions on surfaces which remain fixed under given conditions of flight
D Any aircraft supported chiefly by its buoyancy in the air
B Any machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from reactions of the air other than the reactions of the air against the Earth’s surface
77: Aircraft required to be registered with an airworthiness certificate are:
A ultralight aircraft and winches for gliders
B powered gliders, gliders, hang gliders
C manned balloons, hang gliders, flying models of more than 150 kg
D airplanes, rotorcraft, airships
D airplanes, rotorcraft, airships
80: Except when necessary for take-off or landing; a VFR flight over congested areas of Cities; towns or settlements or over an open air assembly of persons shall not be flown at a height less than:
A 300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 ft from the aircraft:.
B 300 m above the highest obstacle.
C 300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft.
D 600 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 300 m from the aircraft.
C 300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft.
81: An aircraft taxiing on the maneuvering area of an aerodrome shall give way to:
A Follow me vehicles and pedestrians
B Aircraft taking off
C Aircraft landing and taking off
D Aircraft landing
C Aircraft landing and taking off
When two-way radio communication is lost, a pilot should select ____ on the transponder.
A) Code 7500
B) Code 2000
C) Code 7700
D) Code 7600
D) Code 7600
89 Whilst flying in an aerodrome’s traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the tower. The aircraft:
A. Must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent in due time.
B. Is cleared to land.
C. Must give way to another aircraft.
D. Must land immediately and clear the landing area.
A. Must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent
What is the minimum flight altitude for VFR flights permitted over towns, settlements, and populated areas?
A. 500 ft within a radius of 1 NM of the aircraft position.
B. 1,000 ft within a
radius of 8 km of the aircraft position.
C. 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 600 m of the aircraft position.
D. The altitude which permits the aircraft to land safely in the event of an engine failure.
C. 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 600 m of the aircraft position.
An aircraft operated on, or in the vicinity of, an aerodrome shall whether or not within an ATZ:
- Observe other aerodrome traffic for the purpose of avoiding collision.
- Conform with or avoid the pattern of traffic formed by other aircraft in operation.
- Make all turns to the right, when approaching for landing or taking-off unless otherwise instructed.
- Land and take-off into the wind unless safety, the runway configuration, or an air traffic consideration determines that a different direction should be used.
Which statements are correct?
A. 2, 3, 4
B. 1, 3, 4
C. 1, 2, 4
D. 1, 2, 3
C. 1, 2, 4
Two aircraft are approaching each other in a controlled airspace class D in VMC at approximately the same level on converging courses. Aircraft “A” is flying under IFR, Aircraft “B” is flying under VFR. Who has the right of way?
A. Aircraft “B”, providing it has “A” on its left.
B. Aircraft “A”, providing it has “B” on its right.
C. Aircraft “B” regardless of the direction from which “A” is approaching.
D. Aircraft “A” regardless of the direction from which “B” is approaching.
A. Aircraft “B”, providing it has “A” on its left.
A red flare light signal addressed to an aircraft in flight means:
A. Aerodrome unsafe, do not land.
B. Slow down speed to minimum, give way to other aircraft in the circuit, and continue circling.
C. Notwithstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being.
D. Return for approach, clearance to land to be expected on final.
C. Notwithstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being.
No aircraft shall be flown over the congested area of cities, towns, or settlements unless at a height that will permit, in the event of an emergency, a landing to be made safely. Exceptions to this rule are:
A. Take-off and landing, or permission from the appropriate authority.
B. Take-off and landing.
C. Permission from the appropriate authority.
D. None of the above.
A. Take-off and landing, or permission from the appropriate authority.
An aircraft being towed by night must display:
A. An anti-collision beacon.
B. Steady navigation lights.
C. Navigation lights and taxi lights.
D. The same lights that are required in flight.
D. The same lights that are required in flight.
Anti-collision lights on an aircraft must be displayed:
A. By all aircraft moving on the manoeuvring area.
B. By all aircraft operating on the movement area.
C. Between sunset and sunrise or any period specified by the appropriate authority.
D. As soon as the engines are running.
D. As soon as the engines are running.
When a pilot raises his arms extended, palms facing outwards, and moves his hands inwards to cross in front of the face, this means:
A. Brakes engaged.
B. Brakes released.
C. Insert chocks.
D. Remove chocks.
C. Insert chocks.
You are flying on a VFR flight in VMC in a controlled airspace. Suddenly, you realize you are unable to maintain VMC. What are your actions according to ICAO Annex 2?
A. Request a special VFR clearance if flying in a control zone.
B. Continue to fly in VMC as best as possible and land at the nearest suitable airport immediately.
C. Continue in IMC and land on the next airport which is equipped for instrument approaches.
D. Continue in IMC and land on the next suitable airport.
A. Request a special VFR clearance if flying in a control zone.
The minimum flight visibility for a VFR flight in ATS airspace classified as D at an altitude above 10,000 ft MSL is:
A. 1500 m
B. 8 km
C. 5 km
D. 5 NM
B. 8 km
Which signal from a marshaller indicates “all clear”?
A. Raise arm and hand with fingers extended horizontally in front of the body, then clench fist.
B. Arms raised above the head with palms facing the pilot.
C. Right arm raised bent at elbow with thumb extended.
D. Arms pointing down with palms pointing inwards, moving arms inwards from extended position.
C. Right arm raised bent at elbow with thumb extended.
A steady green light from aerodrome control tower directed towards an aircraft on ground means:
A. Cleared for taxi.
B. Cleared for take-off.
C. Cleared to enter the runway and wait for take-off clearance signal.
D. Taxi back to the starting point on the aerodrome (return back to the parking stand).
B. Cleared for take-off.
Aerodrome control can use light signals when radio communications are not possible. For an aircraft taxiing on the ground, a red flashing light means:
A. Stop taxiing.
B. Continue to taxi to the take-off area.
C. Vacate the landing area in use.
D. Return to the point of departure (taxi back to parking stand).
C. Vacate the landing area in use.
VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B airspace, above 3050 m (10,000 ft) AMSL, are:
A. 5 km visibility, 1,500 m horizontal and 1,000 ft vertical distance from clouds.
B. 8 km visibility, 1,500 m horizontal and 1,000 ft vertical distance from clouds.
C. 8 km visibility, and clear of clouds.
D. Not applicable - VFR flights are not permitted.
B. 8 km visibility, 1,500 m horizontal and 1,000 ft vertical distance from clouds.
A VFR flight, at an altitude of 5000 ft in ATS airspace classified as C, has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds:
A. 8 km visibility; 1,000 m vertically and 1,500 ft horizontally clear of cloud.
B. 5 km visibility; 1,500 m vertically and 1,000 ft horizontally clear of cloud.
C. 8 km visibility; 1,000 ft vertically and 1,500 m horizontally clear of cloud.
D. 5 km visibility; 1,000 ft vertically and 1,500 m horizontally clear of cloud.
D. 5 km visibility; 1,000 ft vertically and 1,500 m horizontally clear of cloud.
Above 3050 m (10,000 ft) AMSL, the VMC minima for VFR flights in all classes of airspace (except class A) are:
A. Flight visibility: 8 km, clear of clouds.
B. No minima defined, VFR flights are not permitted.
C. Flight visibility: 8 km; distance from clouds: 1,500 m horizontal; 1,000 ft vertical.
D. Flight visibility: 5 km; distance from clouds: 1,500 m horizontal; 1,000 ft vertical.
C. Flight visibility: 8 km; distance from clouds: 1,500 m horizontal; 1,000 ft vertical.
The light signal from aerodrome control tower directed towards an aircraft in flight indicating “give way to other aircraft and continue circling” is:
A) steady red.
B) steady green.
C) series of red lights.
D) series of green lights.
A) steady red.
122 On a VFR flight, your magnetic is track 005°, the magnetic heading 355°. Which of the following flight level is correct?
A FL60
B FL55
C FL65
D FL70
B FL55
123 On a VFR fligth, your magnetic track is 200°. Which of the following flight levels shold be used?
A FL 65, FL 85 or FL 105
B FL 75, FL 95 or FL 115
C FL 60, FL 85 or FL 100
D FL 70, FL 90 or FL 110
A FL 65, FL 85 or FL 105
125 In order to operate under visual flight rules above FL100 in uncontrolled airspace, there must be:
A flight visibility of 8 km.
B horizontal separation from cloud of 1 5 km.
C 8 km visibility, 1000 ft vertical and 1500 m horizontal distance from clouds.
D vertical separation from cloud of 1 000 ft.
C 8 km visibility, 1000 ft vertical and 1500 m horizontal distance from clouds.
126 The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the cruising portion of the flight be entered in the speed box of a flight plan form. This speed is the:
A indicated air speed (IAS).
B estimated ground speed (GIS).
C true air speed (TAS)
D true true air speed at 65% power.
C true air speed (TAS)
127 The VMC minima for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace classified as B, is:
A 8 km visibilty when at or above 3050 m (1000 ft) AMSL and 1500 m honzontal and 300m vertical from clouds.
B 8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10000 ft) AMSL and dear of douds.
C 5 NM visibility below 3050 m (10000 f) AMSL, clear of douds.
D 5 NM visibility when below 3050 m (10000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from cloud.
A 8 km visibilty when at or above 3050 m (1000 ft) AMSL and 1500 m honzontal and 300m vertical from clouds.
128 Except where necessary for landing and over congested areas of cities, towns or take-off, VFR flights are not permitted settlements, or over an open air assembly of persons a height less than above the highest obstacle within a radius of from the aircraft.
A 300 m; 600 m
B 300 m; 600 ft
C 500 ft; 600 m
D 1000ft; 600 ft
A 300 m; 600 m
129 An aircraft operating in accordance with VFR, above the sea at altitudes between 4500 ft and 9000 ft, outside controlled airspace shall maintain at least:
A a distance from cloud of 1 000 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibilty of 5 km.
B a distance from cloud of 1 500 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibility of 8 km
B a distance from cloud of 600 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibility of 5 km
D a distance from cloud of 1500 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibilty of 5 km
D a distance from cloud of 1500 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibilty of 5 km
132 A VFR flight, at an altitude of 5000 ft MSL in ATS airspace classified as C, has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds
A 8 km visibility: 1000 m vertically and 1500 ft horizontally clear of cloud.
B 5 km visibility: 1500 ft vertically and 1 000 ft horizontalty clear of cloud.
C 8 km visibility: 1000 ft vertically and 1500 ft horizontally clear of cloud.
D 5 km visibility: 1000 ft vertically and 1 500 m horizontally clear of cloud.
D 5 km visibility: 1000 ft vertically and 1 500 m horizontally clear of cloud.
136 A series of red flashes from aerodrome control tower directed towards an aircraft in flight means:
A give way to other aircraft in emergency.
B aerodrome unsafe, do not land.
C continue circling and wait for further instruction.
D aerodrome temporarily closed, continue circling.
B aerodrome unsafe, do not land.
141 A pilot needs a permit issued by the appropiate aeronautical authority for:
A dropping tow ropes
B dropping animal feed for wild animals
C airdropping parachutists
D dropping the banner
B dropping animal feed for wild animals
142 Aerobatic flights are prohibited in heights of less than:
A 2000 ft GND
B 1500 ft GND
C 2500 ft GND
D 1000 ft GND
B 1500 ft GND
145 After having entered a control zone on a VFR-flight, the radio fails. How shall the pilot behave?
A proceed according to the acknowledged air traffic control clearance and wait for the light signals of the aerodrome control tower
B leave the control zone on the shortest way possible, land and inform air traffic control
C enter the traffic circuit immediately and land according to given light signals
D fly across the runway and wait for light
A proceed according to the acknowledged air traffic control clearance and wait for the light signals of the aerodrome control tower
149 An aircraft overtakes another aircraft when it approaches from behind in a direction of flight having an angle of less than:
A 090° towards the direction of flight of the other aircraft
B 070° towards the direction of flight of the other aircraft
C 110° towards the direction of flight of the other aircraft
D 120° towards the direction of flight of the other aircraft
B 070° towards the direction of flight of the other aircraft
156 A radiotelephony signal comprising of the word “PAN PAN” means that an aircraft
A accidentally entered a danger area
B has been hijacked
C has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft or other vehicle, or of some person on board or within sight.
D is threatened by grave and imminent danger, and immediate assistance is requested
C has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft or other vehicle, or of some person on board or within sight.
160 On aerodromes, aircraft taxiing by own power means
A to have no priority over other vehicles and pedestrians
B to have priority over pedestrians, but no priority over motor-driven vehicles
C to have priority over other vehicles and pedestrians
D to have the same rights as other vehicles and pedestrians unless the vehicles are police vehicles
C to have priority over other vehicles and pedestrians
162 The aeronautical chart ICAO 1:500,000 describes an airspace “D ctr” with:
“2800 (HX)”. Does a pilot, whose radio has failed, have the possibility to cross this airspace on a Saturday?
A. only if the status of the deactivation of the control zone has been confirmed just before the radio failure happens.
B. yes, if a flight plan has been filed and a permit of the competent aviation supervision is received.
C. yes, because this aerodrome is closed on Saturdays and Sundays.
D. only with transponder A/C 7600.
A. only if the status of the deactivation of the control zone has been confirmed just before the radio failure happens.
163 You hear on the radio that another pilot repeatedly transmits “MAYDAY”. It is:
A. a distress signal.
B. a check of the ground station.
C. a warning signal.
D. an urgency signal.
A. a distress signal.
- In the event that a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its track given in the current flight plan, action should be taken in order to:
A) Adjust the heading of the aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable
B) Notify the appropriate ATS unit immediately, notifying the new track and complying with instructions from ATS
C) Maintain VMC, wait for instructions from the appropriate ATS unit
D) Immediately inform ATC
A) Adjust the heading of the aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable
- While on the ground, the navigation lights shall be turned on:
A) Only from sunrise to sunset if instructed by ATC
B) By all aircraft moving on the movement area of an aerodrome from sunset to sunrise to indicate the relative path of the aircraft to an observer, and other lights shall not be displayed if they are likely to be mistaken for these lights
C) From sunrise to sunset so that an observer on the ground can see in which direction the aircraft is moving
D) At night and during the daytime unless otherwise instructed by ATC
B) By all aircraft moving on the movement area of an aerodrome from sunset to sunrise to indicate the relative path of the aircraft to an observer, and other lights shall not be displayed if they are likely to be mistaken for these lights
- The following signal means that an aircraft wishes to give notice of difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance (urgency signals):
A) The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights
B) Switching on and off of the landing lights in a sequence consisting of the letter group SOS
C) Switching on and off three times the navigation lights
D) Switching on and off three times the landing lights
A) The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights
- ICAO Annex 2: 4.6 - Except when necessary for take-off or landing, or except by permission from the appropriate authority, a VFR flight shall not be flown:
a) Over the congested areas of cities, towns, or settlements or over an open-air assembly of persons at a height less than 300 m (1000 ft) above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft;
b) Elsewhere than as specified in 4.6 a), at a height less than ___ (___) above the ground or water.
A) 150 m; (500 ft)
B) 900 m; (3000 ft)
C) 600 m; (2000 ft)
D) 500 m; (1500 ft)
A) 150 m; (500 ft)
- Aircraft equipped with red anti-collision lights shall display them:
A) Outside the daylight-period in flight, but not on the ground when it is being towed
B) Outside the daylight-period at engine start. During the daylight-period, this is not applicable
C) On the ground when the engines are running
D) While taxiing, but not when it is being towed
C) On the ground when the engines are running
- What is the meaning of red pyrotechnic from an airfield to an aircraft flying next to this airfield?
A) Notwithstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being
B) Give way to other aircraft in emergency
C) Give way to other aircraft and continue circling
D) The aircraft must not land because the airport is not available for landing
A) Notwithstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being
- While flying at night another aircraft reports that you are on his 100° relative bearing. Assuming you are on converging courses, you should see his:
A) White navigation light
B) Red navigation light
C) Green and white navigation lights
D) Green navigation light
D) Green navigation light
- Describe the lights to be displayed by an aircraft in flight at night:
A) Navigation lights and anti-collision lights
B) Navigation lights only
C) Anti-collision lights only
D) Navigation lights, anti-collision lights, and landing lights
A) Navigation lights and anti-collision lights
- What is the meaning of the term “DANGER AREAS”?
A) An airspace of defined dimensions above the land areas or territorial waters of a State within which flight of aircraft is prohibited
B) An airspace of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous to the flight of aircraft may exist at specified times
C) A NOTAM activated airspace where the general flight rules are disregarded
D) An airspace of defined dimensions within which air traffic control service is provided to IFR flights and to VFR flights in accordance with the airspace classification
B) An airspace of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous to the flight of aircraft may exist at specified times
- Who is in charge of the safe conduct of a flight?
A) The pilot-in-command
B) The ATC controller whenever the aircraft is flying in controlled airspace
C) The aircraft owner
D) The airline operator
A) The pilot-in-command
- Which of the following defines “FLIGHT VISIBILITY”?
A) Visibility determined in flight not obscured by cloud, dust, haze, or precipitation
B) The forward visibility from the flight cockpit of an aircraft in flight
C) The ability to determine in the air the distance and identity of unlighted objects by day and lighted objects by night
D) The forward distance at which objects can be discerned in the air with reference to atmospheric conditions
B) The forward visibility from the flight cockpit of an aircraft in flight
- In general, the ICAO Annex 2 (Rules of the Air) applies:
A) To all IFR traffic
B) To all VFR traffic
C) Only to aircraft registered in the State being overflown
D) To all IFR and VFR traffic
D) To all IFR and VFR traffic
- The final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft in flight lies with the:
A) Aircraft operator
B) Pilot-in-command
C) Aircraft owner
D) ATC controller if the aircraft is flying in a controlled airspace
B) Pilot-in-command
- In Germany, control zones are classified:
A. in the vicinity of military aerodromes as airspace B, in the vicinity of airports as airspace C, all others as airspace D.
B. as airspace D.
C. predominantly as airspace D, only a few as airspace C.
D. in the vicinity of aerodromes as airspace C, all others as airspace D.
B. as airspace D.
- The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are, in the increasing order of seriousness:
A. INCERFA, ALERFA, DETRESFA
B. ALERTFA, DISTRESFA, RESCUEFA
C. DETRESFA, ALERTFA, INCERFA
D. INCERFA, ALERTFA, DISTRESFA
A. INCERFA, ALERFA, DETRESFA
- If a pilot lands at an airfield other than the destination specified in the flight plan, he must inform the ATC unit at the original destination within:
A 10 minutes of the original destination ETA
B 45 minutes of the original destination ETA.
C. 30 minutes of the original destination ETA.
D. 60 minutes of the original destination ETA.
C. 30 minutes of the original destination ETA.
- The minimum lateral limits of a CTR are:
A. 5NM.
B. 5 NM in the direction from which approaches may be made.
C. 5 NM in direction in which approaches and departures may be made.
D. there are no minimum lateral limits.
B. 5 NM in the direction from which approaches may be made.
- Who is responsible for setting into movement the Alert Phase?
A. ATC and the FIC.
B. The State and ATC.
C. The Area Control and the RCC.
D. RCC and the FIR.
A. ATC and the FIC.
- Aerodrome traffic is:
A. All traffic on the movement area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome.
B. All traffic on the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome.
C. All traffic on the manoeuvring area.
D. All traffic in the aerodrome traffic circuit.
B. All traffic on the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome.
- What is the meaning of the abbreviation “ATIS”?
A. Automatic Traffic Information System.
B. Automatic Terminal Information Service.
C. Automatic Traffic Information Service.
D. Air Traffic Information System.
B. Automatic Terminal Information Service.
- In accordance with ICAO legislation, what minimum ground visibility is required to enable a SVFR flight to take-off from an aerodrome in a CTR?
A. 1000 m
B. 1500m
C. 2000 m
D. 3000 m
B. 1500m
- An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all participating IFR 501 flights receive an air traffic advisory service and all flights receive flight information service if requested, is classified:
A. airspace F.
B. airspace G.
C. airspace E.
D. airspace D.
A. airspace F.
- ATS airspaces where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are separated from each other are classified as:
A. airspace E.
B. airspace A.
C. airspace D.
D. airspace B.
D. airspace B.
- In which situation would a METAR result in a prompt ATIS update?
A. When receiving a “Special Aerodrome Meteorological Report”
B. When receiving of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported Values.
C. Only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a significant value.
D. Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below those for VFR (otherwise every 60 minutes).
A. When receiving a “Special Aerodrome Meteorological Report”
- Which condition is requested so that an aerodrome may be considered controlled?
A. The aerodrome shall be located within a Control Zone (CTR) and provided with a Control Tower.
B. The aerodrome shall be located within a Control Zone.
C. The aerodrome shall be located within a controlled airspace.
D. The aerodrome shall be provided with a Control Tower.
D. The aerodrome shall be provided with a Control Tower.
242 Air Traffic Control Service is provided for the purpose of:
A avoiding collisions between all aircraft and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic.
B applying separation between aircraft and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic.
C preventing collisions between controlled air traffic and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic.
D preventing collisions between aircraft, between aircraft and obstacles on the manoeuvring area and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic.
D preventing collisions between aircraft, between aircraft and obstacles on the manoeuvring area and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic.
243 Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and dissemination of the ATIS message shall be the responsibility of:
A the meteorological office serving the aerodrome(s).
B the air traffic services.
C both air traffic services and the meteorological office.
D the unit as prescribed the states.
B the air traffic services.
244 The speed limitation for VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3050m (10000 ft.) AMSL, is:
A 240 kts IAS.
B 250 kts TAS.
C 250 kts IAS.
D not applicable.
C 250 kts IAS.
245 The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as E, when flying below 3050m (10000 ft.) AMSL, is:
A 250 kts TAS.
B 250 kts IAS.
C 240 kts IAS.
D not applicable.
B 250 kts IAS.
247 An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are subject to air traffic control service; IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of VFR flights; VFR flights receive traffic information in respect of all other flights, is classified as:
A airspace E.
B airspace B.
C airspace D.
D airspace A.
C airspace D.
248 When are you required to report your position?
A Before the position point.
B 5 min before the position point.
C At or after the position point.
D On request of ATC.
C At or after the position point.
and
D On request of ATC
250 When an aircraft is experiencing difficulties, triggering of the alert phase is the responsibility of:
A search and rescue coordination centres.
B air traffic control and flight information centres.
C control centres only.
D air traffic coordination centres.
B air traffic control and flight information centres.
251 Flight information service provided to flights shall include the provision of information concerning collision hazards to aircraft operating in airspace classes:
A A to G (inclusive).
B C to G (inclusive).
C F and G.
D A to E (inclusive).
B C to G (inclusive).
252 The objectives of an Aerodrome Control Service include the prevention of collisions between:
1) aircraft flying in the aerodrome traffic circuit and local area around the aerodrome.
2) aircraft operating on the manoeuvring area.
3) aircraft landing and taking off.
4) aircraft and vehicles operating on the manoeuvring area.
A 1, 2, 3, 4
B 1, 2, 3
C 2, 3, 4
D 1, 2
A 1, 2, 3, 4
254 Alerting Service shall be provided:
A to any aircraft known or believed to be subject of unlawful interference, only.
B for all aircraft provided with Air Traffic Control Services, only.
C for all controlled flights, to any aircraft known or believed to be subject of unlawful interference, and in so far as practicable to all aircraft having filed a flight plan or otherwise known to the ATS.
D in so far as practicable to all aircraft having filed a flight plan or otherwise known by the ATS.
C for all controlled flights, to any aircraft known or believed to be subject of unlawful interference, and in so far as practicable to all aircraft having filed a flight plan or otherwise known to the ATS.
255 Whenever ATIS is provided, the broadcast information shall be updated:
A as prescribed by the meteorological office.
B at least every half an hour independently of any significant change.
C immediately a significant change occurs.
D as prescribed by the state.
C immediately a significant change occurs.
257 To perform a VFR flight in airspace classification E:
A a clearance is required.
B two-way radio communication is not required.
C a clearance and two-way radio communication is required.
D a clearance and/or two-way radio communication is required.
B two-way radio communication is not required.
258 What is the speed limit (IAS) in airspace class E?
A 250 kts only for IFR up to FL 100.
B 250 kts for IFR and VFR up to FL 100.
C 250 kts VFR and IFR, all levels.
D 250 kts only for VFR up to FL 195.
B 250 kts for IFR and VFR up to FL 100.
264 Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose of:
A achieving separation between controlled flights.
B achieving separation between IFR flights.
C providing flight information service.
D providing advisory service.
A achieving separation between controlled flights.
269 Which air traffic services are provided by the German Air Navigation Services (DFS)?
A alerting and rescue service.
B air traffic control service, search and rescue service.
C weather service, advisory service.
D aeronautical information service, air traffic control service, flight information service.
D aeronautical information service, air traffic control service, flight information service.
270 When should position reports be made?
A At intervals not exceeding 1 hour.
B At the discretion of the commander.
C When passing each designated compulsory reporting point.
D When passing designated significant points referred to as “on request reporting points.”
C When passing each designated compulsory reporting point.
277 Which of the following has the highest order of priority?
A Aircraft taking-off.
B Aircraft landing.
C Aircraft taxiing.
D Aircraft being towed by a vehicle.
B Aircraft landing.
281 What does the term “air traffic control clearance” mean?
A the acknowledgement to conduct a flight coordinated before take-off, issued by an air traffic control unit.
B a flight permission, coordinated with air traffic control and issued by the aviation supervision office.
C the authorisation to conduct a flight under particular conditions, issued by an air traffic control unit.
D the approval for a flight according to the flight plan filed, issued by an aeronautical information service unit.
C. the authorisation to conduct a flight under particular conditions, issued by an air traffic control unit.
288 A VFR cross country flight leads through a radio mandatory zone (RMZ) at an uncontrolled aerodrome. Which VMC for this airspace and which special conditions shall be observed?
A flight visibility 5 km; cloud distance 1.5 km horizontally, 1000 ft vertically; mandatory transponder operation; surface in sight, RMZ active Monday till Friday, establish radio contact and maintain constant listening watch, when leaving RMZ discontinue transponder operation
B cloud distance 1000 ft vertically and 1.5 km horizontally, flight visibility 5 km; surface in sight, ATC-clearance from the competent aviation supervision, RMZ active for IFR approaches/departures only, establish radio contact and maintain constant listening watch, report leaving RMZ
C clear of clouds, surface in sight, in case of helicopters flight visibility 3000 m but not less than 800 m if manoeuvred at a speed excluding the opportunity to observe other traffic or any obstacles in time to avoid collision, establish radio contact and maintain constant listening watch, report leaving RMZ
D clear of clouds, surface in sight; flight visibilities 5 km, or reduced to not less than 1500 m for flights operating at speeds of 140 kts IAS or less, in case of helicopters less than 1500 m but not less than 800 m, if manoeuvred at a speed that will give adequate opportunity to observe other traffic or any obstacles in time to avoid collision, establish radio contact/maintain listening watch, report leaving RMZ
D clear of clouds, surface in sight; flight visibilities 5 km, or reduced to not less than 1500 m for flights operating at speeds of 140 kts IAS or less, in case of helicopters less than 1500 m but not less than 800 m, if manoeuvred at a speed that will give adequate opportunity to observe other traffic or any obstacles in time to avoid collision, establish radio contact/maintain listening watch, report leaving RMZ
293 A transition altitude shall normally be specified for each aerodrome by the State in which the aerodrome is located. The calculated height of the transition altitude shall be rounded up to the next full:
A 50 ft.
B 100 ft.
C 500 ft.
D 1 000 ft.
D 1 000 ft.
303 With regard to the wake turbulence category aircraft classification, the Maximum Take-off Mass of MEDIUM aircraft is:
A less than 136 000 kg but more than 7 000 kg.
B less than 132 000 kg but more than 7 000 kg.
C less than 136 000 kg but more than 9 000 kg.
D less than 132 000 kg but more than 9 000 kg.
A less than 136 000 kg but more than 7 000 kg.
306 When must a pilot of an aircraft during a VFR flight operating at night report the position?
A In airspaces D, E, F.
B Never.
C In airspaces E to G.
D When requested by the appropriate ATS unit.
D When requested by the appropriate ATS unit.
313 What are the controlled traffic separation methods applied by ATC?
A Vertical, horizontal and angular separation.
B Time separation and track separation.
C Vertical and horizontal separation.
D Composite separation.
C Vertical and horizontal separation.
316 Essential local traffic consists of:
A any aircraft, vehicle or personnel on or near the runway to be used, or traffic in the take- off and climb-out area or the initial approach area, which may constitute a collision hazard to I FR aircraft.
B any aircraft, vehicle or personnel on or near the runway to be used, or traffic in the take- off and climb-out area or the final approach area, which may constitute a collision hazard to IFR aircraft.
C any aircraft, vehicle or personnel on or near the runway to be used, or traffic in the take- off and climb-out area or the initial approach area, which may constitute a collision hazard to a departing or arriving aircraft.
D any aircraft, vehicle or personnel on or near the runway to be used, or traffic in the take- off and climb-out area or the final approach area, which may constitute a collision hazard to a departing or arriving aircraft.
D any aircraft, vehicle or personnel on or near the runway to be used, or traffic in the take- off and climb-out area or the final approach area, which may constitute a collision hazard to a departing or arriving aircraft.
318 Before flight, transition level information can be obtained by consulting:
A AIP, ATIS, ATC
B AIP, ATIS
CATC
D ATIS, ATC
D ATIS, ATC
319 When should ATC provide the pilot with a local QNH altimeter setting?
A With clearance to enter the traffic pattern.
B At the start of radar vectoring.
C With initial taxi clearance.
D With clearance to enter the traffic pattern and with initial taxi clearance.
D With clearance to enter the traffic pattern and with initial taxi clearance.
322 What is the standard colour code for an administrative document when considering the aeronautical information circular (AIC)?
A. green
B. red
C. white
D. pink
C. white
323 At least how many days in advance of the effective date must AIRAC information be distributed?
A. 14
B. 28
C. 42
D. 60
C. 42
325 In order to avoid confusion, the identification numbers given to each prohibited area, restricted area and danger area shall not be re-used for a period of:
A. at least 6 months after cancellation of the area to which they refer.
B. at least 3 months after cancellation of the area to which they refer.
C. at least one year after cancellation of the area to which they refer.
D. at least 2 months after cancellation of the area to which they refer.
C. at least one year after cancellation of the area to which they refer.
326 Which of the following is information that is not given in AIP Visual Approach and Landing charts?
A. DME frequencies
B. Visibility minima.
C. OCH or OCA.
D. Obstacles penetrating the obstacle free area in the final approach sector.
B. Visibility minima.
335 Whenever practicable, NOTAMs are distributed by:
A. AFTN
B. e-mail.
C. fax.
D. printed brochure.
A. AFTN
340 Geographical co-ordinates indicating latitude and longitude are expressed in terms of:
A. WGS 84
B. WGS 94
C. GPS 84
D. GPS 94
A. WGS 84
349 Which part of the AIP contains a list of differences between the national regulations/practices and the related ICAO Standards, Recommended Practices and Procedures?
A. GEN
B. AD
C. ENR
D. REG
A. GEN
355 A notice providing information on Rules of the Air, Air Traffic Services and Air Navigation Procedures and distributed in advance of its effective date is:
A. A NOTAM RAC.
B. An AIRAC.
C. An ATS NOTAM.
D. An Advisory NOTAM.
B. An AIRAC.
362 What is the standard colour code for an ATC document when considering the aeronautical information circular (AIC)?
A. green
B. mauve
C. pink
D. yellow
D. yellow
366 Which part of the AIP gives detailed information about refueling facilities and the fuel grades available?
A. FAL
B. GEN
C. ENR
D. AD
D. AD
368 The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that:
A. landing, take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or taxiway only.
B. aircraft are required to land and take off on runways only, but other manoeuvres need not to be confined to runways and taxiways.
C. glider flying is performed outside the landing area.
D. this aerodrome is using parallel runways.
B. aircraft are required to land and take off on runways only, but other manoeuvres need not to be confined to runways and taxiways.
369 Taxiway markings and aircraft stand markings are:
A. white
B. grey
C. yellow
D. red
C. yellow
371 Runway end lights shall be:
A. Fixed unidirectional lights showing red in the direction of the runway.
B. Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of the runway.
C. Fixed lights showing variable red.
D. Fixed lights showing variable white.
A. Fixed unidirectional lights showing red in the direction of the runway.
372 What is the colour of runway edge lights?
A. Red
B. Blue
C. Green
D. White
D. White
373 Which of the following systems describes an abbreviated precison approach path indicator?
A. Twenty light units symmetrically disposed about the runway centre line in the formof two wing bars of four light units each, with bisecting longitudional lines of six lights. are B. A wing bar of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp units equally spaced and normaty located on the left side of the runway unless it is physicalty impracticable to do so.
C. Ten light units arranged on one side of the runway in the form of a single bar of four light units, with a bisecting longitudinal line of six lights.
D. A wing bar of 2 sharp transition multi-lamp units normally located on the left side of the runway unless it is physically impracticable to do so.
D. A wing bar of 2 sharp transition multi-lamp units normally located on the left side of the runway unless it is physically impracticable to do so.
374 Two or more white or yellow crosses, displayed on runways (taxiways), indicate that:
A. the threshold has been displaced.
B. the runway or taxiway should be used in emergency only
C. the runway or taxiway should be used with caution.
D.the section of the runway or taxiway is unfit for aircraft movement
D. the section of the runway or taxiway is unfit for aircraft movement
375 In a precision approach category I lighting system, the centre line and crossbar lights shall be:
A. fixed lights showing variable green.
B. flashing lights showing variable white
C. fixed lights showing variable white.
D. flashing lights showing variable green
C. fixed lights showing variable white.
376 What does a white line drawn across a runway indicate?
A. The threshold.
B. A displaced threshold.
C. The beginning of the touch down zone.
D. 1 000 ft from the end zone.
B. A displaced threshold.
386 In the “PAPI” system the Pilot doing an approach will see the two unitsnearest the runway as red and the two units farthest from the runway as white when:
A. above the approach slope.
B. on or close to the approach slope.
C. below the approach slope.
D. only on the approach slope
B. on or close to the approach slope.
413 Each wing bar of “VASIS” system has __ light units.
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 5
B. 3
415 Mandatory signs consist of a _____ inscription on a _____ background.
A. red; white.
B. yellow; white.
C. white; black.
D. white; red.
D. white; red.
416 What is the general shape of the landing indicator?
A. T
B. –>
C. V
D. Y
A. T
417 When taxiing on a surface with white markings, you are on a:
A. movement area.
B. taxiway.
C. clearway.
D. runway.
D. runway.
419 What is the principle requirement for a signals area on an aerodrome?
A. It must be big enough to contain all signals.
B. It must be clearly visible from the air.
C. It must be clearly visible from all parts of the manoevring area.
D. It is used for VFR + IFR operations.
B. It must be clearly visible from the air.
421 Runway edge lights, except in the case of a displaced threshold, shall be:
A. Fixed lights showing variable white or yellow.
B. Flashing white.
C. Fixed lights, white or yellow color.
D. Fixed lights showing variable white.
A. Fixed lights showing variable white or yellow.
423 For planning purposes, an aerodrome is categorized by aerodrome reference code. This code is composed of two elements a number and a letter. What does the number relate to?
A. Load classification number.
B. Single wheel loading classification.
C. Crash/Rescue category.
D. Aeroplane reference field length.
D. Aeroplane reference field length.
A volume of airspace extending upwards and outwards from an inner portion of the strip to specified upper limits which is kept clear of all obstructions is called:
A. sensitive area
B. critical area
C. non-transgression zone
D. obstacle free zone
D. obstacle free zone
441 The length of a clearway should not exceed:
A. 1/2 TORA
B. 1/2 TODA
C. 1/2 LDA
D. 1/2 ASDA
A. 1/2 TORA
An “aerodrome reference point” is defined as the:
A. Elevation of the highest point of the landing area.
B. Location of the landing threshold.
C. Pre-flight altimeter check location.
D. The designated geographical location of the aerodrome.
D. The designated geographical location of the aerodrome.
A runway may be contaminated by frozen water deposits. What are the three states of frozen water reported by ATC?
A. Clear ice, rime ice and snow.
B. Light snow, heavy snow, blizzard.
C. Snow, ice and slush.
D. Thin ice, occasional ice, heavy ice.
C. Snow, ice and slush.
- Clearway is defined rectangular area established to:
A. Reduce the risk of damage to aircraft running off a runway.
B. Permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a specific height.
C. Protect aircraft during take-off or landing operations.
D. Permit the aircraft to stop if it fails the take-off.
B. Permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a specific height.
- The “PAPI” shall consist of:
A. A wing bar of 2 sharp transition multi-lamp equally spaced.
B. Two wing bars of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.
C. Two wing bars of 6 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.
D. A wing bar of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.
D. A wing bar of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.
- A double white crossing displayed horizontally in the aerodrome signal area means:
A - Special precautions must be observed due to bad state of the taxiways.
B - Need special precautions while approaching for landing.
C - An area unit for the movement of aircraft.
D - The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed.
D - The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed.
- Alert phase is defined as follows:
A - A situation to an aircraft which reports that the fuel on board is exhausted.
B - An emergency event in which and aircraft and its occupants are considered to be threatened by a danger.
C - A situation related to an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be in a state of emergency.
D - A situation where an apprehension exists to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants.
D - A situation where an apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants.
- “A situation wherein apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants” is definition for:
A - Uncertainty phase.
B - Alert phase.
C - Distress phase.
D - Emergency phase.
B - Alert phase.
- Search and rescue on the high seas is conducted:
A - By agreements of the EASA committee.
B - By agreements of the ICAO committee.
C - By the basis of Regional Air Navigation agreements.
D - These areas cannot be served by SAR.
C - By the basis of Regional Air Navigation agreements.
- What is each contracting state of ICAO required to provide?
A - Facilities for SAR operations to be undertaken in its airspace.
B - Oceanic control facilities in oceanic areas adjacent to its territorial airspace.
C - Details of Aerodrome Operating Minima to each operator using its airspace.
D - Adequate radio navigation facilities for aeroplanes transiting its airspace.
A - Facilities for SAR operations to be undertaken in its airspace.
- The unit responsible for promoting efficient organization for search and rescue service in each SAR region is the:
A - Alerting Centre.
B - Rescue Co-ordination Centre.
C - Area Control Centre.
D - Flight Information Centre.
B - Rescue Co-ordination Centre.
- Which of the following frequencies are used for emergency operations by SAR aircraft?
A - 119.7 MHz and 2182 kHz.
B - 119.7 MHz and 6182 MHz.
C - 121.5 MHz and 243.0 kHz.
D - 121.5 MHZ and 243.0 MHz.
D - 121.5 MHz and 243.0 MHz.
- When an aircraft crashes in an area not owned by a certain state who is responsible for carrying out SAR activities?
A - The state closest to the place of occurrence.
B - The state of the operator.
C - The state of registry.
D - The one who is determined on the basis of regional air navigation agreements.
D - The one who is determined on the basis of regional air navigation agreements.
- The ground - air visual signal code for use by survivors on ground in order to indicate “REQUIRE MEDICAL ASSISTANCE” is (search and rescue signals):
A - N
B - x
C - y
D - v
B - x
- Contracting States shall establish a rescue co-ordination centre:
A - At every international airport.
B - In each search and rescue region.
C - At every ATS facility.
D - If they are adjacent to the sea.
B - In each search and rescue region.
- What frequency does the emergency locator transmit on?
A - 243 kHz.
B - 121.5 MHz
C - 2182 kHz.
D - 243 MHz.
B - 121.5 MHz.
- Which signal indicates “Operations complete”?
A - LLL
B - N
C - v
D - NN
A -LLL
- At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal requesting help. to indicate that he has recieved these search and rescue ground signals, the pilot shall:
A - Fly over the group of people in difficulty as low as possible.
B - Switch his landing lights on and off twice or, if he is not so equipped, his navigation lights twice.
C - Make at least one complete turn over the group of people in difficulty.
D - Transmit, by luminous Morse signal, a series of the letter “R” using his navigational lights.
B - Switch his landing gear lights on and off twice or, if he is not so equipped, his navigation lights twice.
- Containers or packages containing survival equipment for dropping should have the general nature of the content indicated by colour code. The colour for blankets and protective clothing is:
A - Yellow
B - Red
C - Black
D - Blue
A - Yellow
- Containers or packages containing survival equipment for dropping should in have the general nature of the content indicated by a colour code. The colour of droppable containers and streamers for medical supplies is:
A - Yellow
B - Red
C - Black
D - Blue
B - Red
- The ground - air visual signal code for use by survivors on ground to indicate “AFFIRMATIVE” is (search and rescue signals):
A - N
B - x
C - Y
D - v
C - Y
- What does the signal “N” mean?
A - All personnel found.
B - Unable to continue - returning to base.
C - “No” or “Negative”.
D - Nothing found, continuing search.
C - “No” or “Negative”.
- What is the meaning of a symbol “V” seen on the ground in the vicinity of an aircraft crash site?
A - Proceeding in this direction.
B - Search terminated.
C - Request assistance.
D - Request medical assistance.
C - Request assistance.
- Which of the following signals is a distress signal?
A - A parachute flare showing a red light.
B - The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights.
C - The repeated switching on and off of the navigation lights.
D - In radiotelephony the spoken words PAN, PAN.
A - A parachute flare showing a red light.
- The ground - air visual signal code for use by survivors on ground in order to indicate “REQUIRE ASSISTANCE” is (search and rescue signals):
A - N
B - y
C - v
D - x
C - v
- The colour identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers according to the following code:
A - Black for miscellaneous equipment.
B - Blue for blankets and protective clothing.
C - Yellow for medical supplies and first aid equipment.
D - Red for food and water.
A - Black for miscellaneous equipment.
- You are flying in a mountainous region and you see a symbol “X” on the ground. What does this mean?
A - Require assistance.
B - Search terminated.
C - Place suitable for helicopter landing.
D - Require medical assistance.
D - Require medical assistance.
- At night you observe ground signals from survivors of a disaster. What do you do to indicate that you have seen and understood the signals?
A - Rock the wings.
B - Turn off the anti-collision light.
C - Make a low pass over the survivors.
D - Flash your landing lights or navigation lights.
D - Flash your landing lights or navigation lights.
- The ground - air visual signal code for use by survivors on ground to indicate “NEGATIVE” is (search and rescue signals):
A - N
B - x
C - y
D - v
A - N
- How does a pilot confirm that he/she understood instructions from ground signaling during the daytime?
A - By flying a 360 degree turn.
B - By switching on and off twice the aircraft’s navigation lights.
C - By rocking the aircraft’s wings.
D - By flashing on and off twice the aircraft’s landing lights.
C - By rocking the aircraft’s wings.
- When flying en-route you intercept an emergency transmission from an aircraft in distress. Your actions will include, where possible:
A - Acknowledge the transmission, and begin to search the aircraft in distress.
B - Record the bearing of the transmission, and continue on your way.
C - Hold at your current position and coordinate the SAR operation.
D - Enter a holding pattern and await instructions.
A - Acknowledge the transmission, and begin to search for the aircraft in distress.
- Search and rescue services within the territory of ICAO Contracting States are provided:
A - When an emergency has been declared.
B - When the authority of the Contracting State decides to do so.
C - From sunset to sunrise.
D - On a 24-hour basis.
D - On a 24-hour basis.
- Which sign can be written in the sand by survivors on an island to give people in an aircraft a NEGATIVE response?
A - (-)
B - N
C - x
D - B
B - N
- At which phase should search and rescue (SAR) services prepare their personnel and equipment for a potential SAR operation?
A - Alert phase.
B - Distress phase.
C - Uncertainty phase.
D - At the discretion of the SAR service unit manager.
A - Alert phase.
- The part of and aerodrome provided for the stationing of aircraft for the purpose of embarking and disembarking passengers, loading and unloading of cargo and refueling and parking is known as:
A - The movement area.
B - The maintenance area.
C - The apron.
D - The maneuvering area.
C - The apron.
- The “stopway” is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area where:
A - A landing aircraft can be stopped only in emergency.
B - A landing aircraft can be stopped if overcoming the end of runway.
C - An aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off.
D - An aircraft taking-off or landing can be stopped.
C - An aircraft can be stopped in the case of and abandoned take-off.
- Taxiways edge markers should be:
A - Retroreflective blue.
B - Retroreflective green.
C - Yellow or green.
D - Yellow or white.
A - Retroreflective blue.
- A red square panel with a yellow strip along each diagonal, displayed in the signals area of an aerodrome indicates:
A - Aerodrome is unfit for aircraft movements, and landings are prohibited.
B - Exercise special care when landing.
C - Normal safety services are not available.
D - Land on paved surface only.
A - Aerodrome is unfit for aircraft movements, and landings are prohibited.
- “A defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area in which an aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off” is the definition for:
A. Obstacle Free Zone (OFZ).
B. Runway end safety area.
C. Stopway.
D. Clearway.
C. Stopway.
- A black letter “C” on a yellow background indicates:
A. Rest-room facilities for visiting pilots.
B. The location of the aerodrome control tower.
C. The location of ATC on an airfield.
D. The location where visiting pilots should report.
D. The location where visiting pilots should report.
