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Tyskland NOTES > EC35 Avionics > Flashcards

EC35 Avionics Flashcards

1
Q

What is the general purpose of the P&R-SAS?

A

To stabilizing and dampening the flight attitude about the longitudional and lateral axes.

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2
Q

During a normal VFR training flight at the IHTC with the SHS you observe a “P/R SAS” Caution at the CAD. Which system could you use to compensate that system failure.

A

The Autopilot, since it has its own SEMA actuators

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3
Q

During flight using the autopilot you hear a warning gong. With a short look to the warning panel you see that the AP A.TRIM Warning Light has been illuminated.
What will be your first action?

A

Flight controls - Hands on (checklist)

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4
Q

The autopilot has a control authority of three different axes. Which axes are controlled and which control input has to be set manually by the pilot?

A

Longitudinal, lateral and vertical axis (yaw). The Autopilot cannot control vertical movements, such as the collective, which as to be set by the pilot

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5
Q

During the startup sequence the AFCS Test is not successful and the caution TRIM is still indicated at the CAD. Which part of the autopilot can still be used?

A

With the TRIM caution, the system will remain in AP SAS mode with full authority axis control

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6
Q

During flight the AHRS I has failed. Which Flight control system will not be provided with attitude data anymore?

A

P&R SAS will be unavailable

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7
Q

You are flying in northerly direction by using the autopilot in heading mode. Now you want the autopilot to change the heading to 090°. State two options to change the heading! (without moving the Cyclic Stick)

A

By using the trim-button, left or right,
By using the heading knob on the control panel of the AP

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8
Q

Which effect will a failure of the radar altimeter have to the AFCS?

A

Automatically leveling off above ground is unavailable

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9
Q

You like to use the Autopilot to track a desired course to a VOR.
a) Which mode would you use?

b) While preparing the settings you recognize that you are far beyond half scale deflection. How would you do the intercept using the autopilot?

A

a)
- NAV-mode (intercepts with 45 degrees)
- APP-mode (intercepts with 30 degrees)

b) By using the heading mode to intercept. (Nav mode has to be armed)

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10
Q

Which mode needs to be armed before the GS mode could be armed?

A

The APP-mode needs to be armed
(only available with APP-mode)

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11
Q

What are the three functions of the 4-way Beep Trim switch? (Operation mode of
AP and function)

A

AP Off (A.Trim) - Moves cyclic stick
AP ON (Modes off) - Changes reference
attitude
AP On (Modes On) - Modifying value of
the mode(s)

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12
Q

The electrical system of the EC135 could be supplied by three different types of power sources. Name them and state their purpose (2 each)!

A

Battery –> Start-up + Emergency Power

Starter/Generator –> Starting the engine, supplying the helicopter with power when engines are running

EPU (external power unit) –> Starting the engines, provide power for ground operations.

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13
Q

What is the maximum load for continuous operation of a generator at sea level?

A

200 Aph

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14
Q

What is the time limited maximum load for operation of a generator at sea level?

A

300 Aph for 2 min

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15
Q

Which warning lights (red) are connected to the battery and what are their meanings?

A

BAT DISCH - Battery is the only electrical power source

BAT TEMP - Battery temperature is above 70 degrees C

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16
Q

In case of an emergency it might be necessary to get an indication of the load that is drawn of the battery. At which display could that be indicated and how can you get a permanent indication of that value?

A

At the VEMD 2 (ELEC/VEH page), by pressing select –> plus or minus –> enter

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17
Q

You are flying from Bückeburg to Hannover. After the first half of the distance, the Master Caution has been illuminated. After a closer look at the CAD you recognize “GEN DISCON” on the right side.
a) What has happened?
b) SEE CHART
c) SEE CHART
d) SEE CHART
e) SEE CHART

A

a) the second generator has been disconnected

b) SEE CHART
c) SEE CHART
d) SEE CHART
e) SEE CHART

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18
Q

You are flying from Bückeburg to Hannover. After the first half of the distance, the Master Caution has been illuminated. After a closer look at the CAD you recognize “BUSTIE OPN” on the right side. Both Generators are not disconnected.

a) What has happened?
b) SEE CHART
c) SEE CHART
d) SEE CHART
e) SEE CHART

A

a) The bus tie swich is open which will separate the electrical systems

b) SEE CHART
c) SEE CHART
d) SEE CHART
e) SEE CHART

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19
Q

Which two nominal voltages are provided by the inverter unit?

A

115 VAC and 26 VAC (400hz)

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20
Q

Name 5 Systems which won´t be powered when the Shedding-Bus is disconnected:

A

Radar altimeter
Beep-trim
Pitot heater
Position light
Landing light
Strobe light

(see circuit panel in checklist)

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21
Q

State the working principle of;
- NDB

A

LF or MF radio transmitter. Propagates as ground wave., which makes it suitable for navigation during Low Level flights. Transmits signals in all directions in
space. Has a Cone of Silence +/- 40 degrees right above the station where no signals can be
received.
An ADF is needed to use an NDB. An ADF has two antennas, the loop and the sense.

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22
Q

State all possible errors that can occur with an NDB

A
  • Range differences
  • Fading (Close / Far Distance)
  • Twilight / Night effect
  • Electrical effect
  • Mountain effect (Terrain effect)
  • Dip error (bank error)
  • Shoreline effect (costal refraction)
  • Quadrantal error
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23
Q

Describe the NDB error “Range differences”

A

The distance of NDB ground waves can differ depending on the ground
(wet = longer /dry = shorter). Therefore NDB stations can be mistaken. (Always identify tuned
NDB).

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24
Q

Describe the NDB error;
“Fading - Close distance”

“Fading - Far distance”

A

“Fading - Close distance” - Interference of ground wave with the sky wave

“Fading - Far distance” - Interference of sky waves

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25
Q

Describe the NDB error “Twilight / Night effect”

A

The radio waves are reflected at the ionosphere during sunset and night. This process causes a polarization of the sky wave and unreliable indication

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26
Q

Describe the NDB error “Electrical effect”

A

statics and thunderstorms causes a release of a great amount of electrons (producing electrical fields), which interfere with the NDB signal

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27
Q

Describe the NDB error “Mountain effect (Terrain effect)”

A

Direction of the radio waves may be change by diffraction of the waves at
the edges of the contour. The can also be reflected.

28
Q

Describe the NDB error “Dip error (Bank error)”

A

The loop antenna is moved away from its minimum position due to banking
of the aircraft. The needle gets offset in the direction of the turn.

29
Q

Describe the NDB error “Shoreline effect (costal refraction)”

A

Radio waves are refracted passing the shoreline due to the change of
conductivity over water. Radio waves are bent away from the centerline
perpendicular to the coastline

30
Q

Describe the NDB error “Quadrantal error”

A

Electromagnetic waves may hit metal parts on the aircraft just before
reaching the ADF antennas, which will cause deviations.

31
Q

State the working principle of;
- VOR

A

The VOR is based on the “lighthouse” principle with one signal appearing in all directions (reference-phase) and one rotating signal (rotating-phase). The VOR uses the phase relation to encode digital information.
The VOR is directed to magnetic north and has 360 radials
The VOR has a cone of silence of up to 45 degrees.

32
Q

State the working principle of;
- DOPPLER VOR

A

VOR without the “rotating signal”. The non directional antenna in the middle is amplitude modulated and surrounded by 36 to 50 other non directional antennas. The surrounding antennas are turned on and off to create the a signal which is similar to the rotating antenna.
The Doppler VOR has high precision, reduced reflection and refraction and no moving parts (less maintenance)
The Doppler VOR has a cone of silence of up to 45 degrees.

33
Q

State the working principle of;
- ILS

A

The ILS consists of;
- Localizer antenna
- Glide slope antenna
- Marker beacon (usually middle and outer marker)

The localizer transmits two different signals with the same strenght to the left and the right of the centerline. The course deviation indicator indicates the strenght and therefore where to turn. The glideslope works with the same principle, but in the vertical dimention.
The marker beacons sends out a narrow signal vertically to indicate the distance to the runway when passing directly abeam.

34
Q

State the working principle of;
- DME

A

Used to determine distance (slant range) to the aircraft. The aircraft is the trigger and transmits a signal (random and A/C specific) to the DME station. The signal captured by the DME station triggers a respons from the station. The time from sending to receiving the signal is calculated by the airborne station and a distance is given.

35
Q

State the working principle of;
- RADAR

A

Radio Detection and Ranging
Uses pulse modulated radio waves to determine bearing and distance of an object. The radio wave bounce of any object in its path and the time difference is used for the calculation.
Together with the position of a rotating antenna, the bearing to the object can be determined.
Radar can be primary and send out signals, or secondary (passive) and only receive signals. The information of the aircraft transponder is picked up by the secondary radar

36
Q

State the different types of primary radar facilities;

A

SRE - Surveillance Radar Element (ATC)
RSR - En route surveillance radar (ATC Enroute)
ASR - Airport surveillance radar
PAR - Precision approach radar

Weather Radar
Airport Surface Detection Equipment

37
Q

State the working principle of;
- INS

A

Inertial Navigation System (dead reckoning)

Uses motion sensors (accelerometers) onboard the aircraft in three dimensions to calculate the position, orientation and velocity of the aircraft via dead reckoning, based on a known starting point.
EC35 has up to 100m/h in deviation.

38
Q

State the working principle of;
- LDNS

A

Using Doppler principle to determine position, velocity, course and distance from a known waypoint, without any ground-based aids.
The LNDS radiates electromagnetic waves in four directions. There is a proportional relation between velocity and frequency shift of the four signals which is recognized when the aircraft is moving.

39
Q

State the working principle of;
- GPS

A

Satelites orbit the earth surface. The satelites transmit a signal including their position and time (atomic clock syncronized with the other satelites).
The signal is recieved by the user and the elapsed time is computed.
Four satelites is required to determine correct position (time error of reciever)

40
Q

State the working principle of;
- RNAV

A

Area Navigation (Random navigation)
By using a navigation computer, the aircraft can fly any course (to any waypoint) without having to fly directly to a classical radio beacon.
The nav. Computer can use GPS, VOR, DME, INS to calculate the route.

41
Q

What is a radio wave and how it is composed?

A

Radio waves are variations of electric and magnetic fields, radiated by an antenna. These fields are
perpendicular in space.
A radio wave travels with the speed of light (300 000km/s)

42
Q

What is a wavelenght?

A

A wavelength is the distance between the beginning and the end of one oscillation, given in metres.

43
Q

What is amplitude?

A

Amplitude is the magnitude of charge in the electric field intensity (how strong/high it is)

44
Q

What is frequency?

A

Frequency is the number of oscillations per second. Its measured in Hertz

45
Q

What are the different propagation types?

A
  • Ground wave
  • Sky wave
  • Space wave
46
Q

Define “Ground Wave”

A

Propagates along the curved surface of the earth. Mainly LF, MF and VHF
Conductivity of the surface affects the propagation.

47
Q

Define “Sky wave”

A

The waves are reflected/bent by the ionosphere back to the surface of the earth and can be received
again at greater distances. The area between groundwave and the first sky wave is the ‘skip zone’ where nothing
can be received. Mainly MF (at night) and HF

48
Q

Define “Space wave”

A

To receive a space wave you need direct line of sight. The wave does not curve with the earth like the
ground wave. The wave can be blocked by curvature of the earth and reflected by hard objects like
terrain and buildings. Mainly VHF, UHF, SHF and EHF

49
Q

What is “Pulse modulation”?

A

Turning on and off the radio waves

50
Q

How can you modulate a frequency?

A
  • Frequency modulation (FM)
  • Amplitude modulation (AM)
  • Pulse modulation (PM)
51
Q

Explain “Frequency modulation”. What are the pros/cons?

A

Encoding of information in a carrier wave can be done by changing the frequency the of the wave.

+high signal and sound quality
+low vulnerability to radio interference
-small range
-needs high band width

52
Q

Explain “Amplitude modulation”. What are the pros/cons?

A

The amplitude of the carrier wave is altered to encode information.

+Higher range
+okey quality
-vulnerable to radio interference

53
Q

What are the different frequencies are existing and what are their;
- FREQUENCY
- ABBREVIATION
- DESIGNATION
- USAGE

A

for example;

  • 30 - 300MHz
  • VHF
  • Very High Frequency
  • Radio, Nav, RADAR
54
Q

State the working principle of;
- DIFFERENTIAL GPS (D-GPS)

A

Every GPS measurement has position errors that are mostly known and constant within a certain distance. A fixed GPS reciever on ground with a known position transmitts a correcting signal.
A special reciever is needed to use D-GPS

55
Q

How much fuel is left in the supply tanks in accorance with the FLM when the respective warning light illuminates? Which additional audio signal can be monitored?

A

30 kg left tank
26 kg right tank

”Gong” - land within 8 min

56
Q

State the Temperature Limit for the FCDS

A

OAT at or above 40 degrees

maximum operating time on ground or in hover is 30 min

57
Q

What is the on board ADF equipment in an aircraft?

A
  • antenna unit (loop and sense antenna)
  • reciever
  • control panel
  • indication instrument
58
Q

What is the on board VOR equipment in an aircraft?

A
  • VOR onboard antenna unit
  • VOR receiver
  • VOR control panel
  • VOR indication instrument
59
Q

What is the advantage of an VOR?

A
  • no dip error
  • no quadrantal error
  • less vulnerable for statics and twilight effect
60
Q

What is the on board ILS equipment in an aircraft?

A
  • ILS antennas
  • ILS receiver
  • ILS control panel
  • ILS indicator
61
Q

What is the on board Marker Beacon Receiver equipment in an aircraft?

A
  • Marker Beacon receiver
  • Marker Beacon antenna
  • Marker Beacon indicator
  • Volume control and ON/OFF switch
  • HIGH, LOW, Test switch
62
Q

What is the on board DME equipment in an aircraft?

A
  • receiver / interrogator
  • antenna
  • DME indication
63
Q

What is the DME equipment in the ground station?

A
  • receiver / transmitter
  • antenna
64
Q

What does the INS system consist of, and what are the advantages?

A
  • gyro stabilized reference platform
  • accelerometers
  • processor unit
  • indicator

Advantages:
- small, lightweight, robust
- no long warmup times
- easy to maintain (no moving parts)

65
Q

What ADF indication instruments exist?

A

RBI - Relative bearing indicator
MDI - Moving dial indicator
RMI - Relative bearing indicator

Tyskland NOTES (24 decks)

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