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Veterinary Microbiology > Virology > Flashcards

Virology Flashcards

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1
Q

Which of the following is typically the first line of defense against viral infections?
a. Adaptive immunity
b.Innate immunity
c. Antibodies
d.T cells

A

Innate immunity

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2
Q

Which cells are primarily responsible for producing interferon during a viral infection?
a. B cells
b.T cells
c. Activated antigen presenting cells
d.Neutrophils

A

Activated antigen presenting cells

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3
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the adaptive immune response to viral infections?
a.Specificity
b.Memory
c.Immediate response
d.Diversity

A

Immediate response

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4
Q

Which type of T cell is primarily responsible for directly killing virus-infected cells?
a.CD4+ T helper cells
b.CD8+ cytotoxic T cells
c.Regulatory T cells
d.Memory T cells

A

CD8+ cytotoxic T cells / Killer T cells

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5
Q

What is the primary function of antibodies in viral infections?
a. Directly kill viruses
b.Neutralize viruses
c. Present antigens
d.Produce interferon

A

Neutralize viruses

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6
Q

Which of the following is a key feature of immunological memory in viral infections?
a.Slower response to subsequent infections
b.Reduced antibody production
c. Faster and stronger response to subsequent infections
d.Decreased T cell activation

A

Faster and stronger response to subsequent infections

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7
Q

Which of the following best describes virus-specific IgM antibodies?
a.They are produced late in the immune response
b.They indicate long-term immunity
c.They are typically the first antibody class produced in a primary infection
d.They can cross the placenta

A

They are typically the first antibody class produced in a primary infection

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8
Q

What is the main mechanism by which fever helps combat viral infections?
a. It directly kills viruses
b.It increases antibody production
c. It inhibits viral replication
d.It enhances T cell proliferation

A

It inhibits viral replication

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9
Q

Which of the following is NOT a common mechanism of viral evasion of the immune response?
a. Antigenic drift
b.Latency
c. Increasing host cell MHC expression
d.Cell to cell adhesion

A

Increasing host cell MHC expression

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10
Q

What is the role of CD4+ T helper cells in antiviral immunity?
a. Directly kill infected cells
b.Produce antibodies
c. Help activate other immune cells
d.Produce interferon

A

Help activate other immune cells

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11
Q

What is meant by “cytokine storm” in viral infections?
a. The rapid mutation of viral cytokine genes
b.An excessive immune response leading to tissue damage
c. The production of antiviral cytokines by infected cells
d.The inhibition of cytokine production by the virus

A

An excessive immune response leading to tissue damage

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12
Q

What is the primary function of viral neuraminidase?
a. To facilitate viral entry into cells
b. To aid in viral genome replication
c. To cleave sialic acid residues, allowing viral release
d. To inhibit host cell protein synthesis

A

To cleave sialic acid residues, allowing viral release

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13
Q

What is the role of viral proteases in pathogenesis?
a. To degrade host cell proteins
b. To cleave viral polyproteins
c. To evade the immune system
d. To induce cell fusion

A

To cleave viral polyproteins

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14
Q

Which of the following best describes viral latency?
a. A period of rapid viral replication
b. The virus’s ability to infect multiple species
c. A dormant state with minimal viral gene expression
d. The time between infection and symptom onset

A

A dormant state with minimal viral gene expression

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15
Q

What is the primary purpose of virus-induced cell fusion?
a. To evade the immune system
b. To spread infection to neighboring cells
c. To increase viral replication rate
d. To induce apoptosis

A

To spread infection to neighboring cells

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16
Q

Which of the following is an example of viral cytopathic effect?
a. Production of interferon
b. Formation of inclusion bodies
c. Activation of T cells
d. Production of antibodies

A

Formation of inclusion bodies

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17
Q

What is meant by viral persistence?
a. The ability of a virus to mutate rapidly
b.The tendency of a virus to cause chronic infections
c. The speed at which a virus replicates
d.The virus’s resistance to antiviral drugs

A

The tendency of a virus to cause chronic infections

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18
Q

What is viral shedding?
a. The process of a virus losing its envelope
b. The release of viral particles from an infected host
c. The breakdown of viral particles by the immune system
d. The mutation of viral genes

A

The release of viral particles from an infected host

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19
Q

Which of the following best describes viral tropism?
a. The ability of a virus to mutate
b.The tendency of a virus to infect specific cell types or
tissues
c. The rate at which a virus replicates
d.The immune response to a virus

A

The tendency of a virus to infect specific cell types or
tissues

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20
Q

Which of the following best describes viral immune evasion?
a. The ability of a virus to rapidly mutate
b.Strategies used by viruses to avoid detection or elimination by the immune system
c. The process of viral shedding
d.The virus’s ability to infect immune cells

A

Strategies used by viruses to avoid detection or elimination by the immune system

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21
Q

Which of the following is the preferred method for collecting respiratory virus specimens?
a. Blood draw
b.Nasopharyngeal swab
c. Urine sample
d.Skin scraping

A

Nasopharyngeal swab

22
Q

When collecting tissue samples for virus isolation, what is the recommended sample size?
a. 1-2 mm3
b.5-10 mm3
c. 20-30 mm3
d.50-100 mm3

A

5-10 mm3

23
Q

Which of the following is NOT a suitable method for long-term storage of viral specimens?
a.Ultra-low temperature freezer (-70°C or lower)
b.Liquid nitrogen
c. Lyophilization (freeze-drying)
d.Refrigerator (2-8°C)

A

Refrigerator (2-8°C)

24
Q

What is the primary purpose of adding transport medium to viral swab specimens?
a.To lyse host cells
b.To maintain virus viability
c.To inactivate the virus
d.To concentrate viral particles

A

To maintain virus viability

25
Q

Which technique is commonly used for the initial purification of viruses from complex biological samples?
a.Ultracentrifugation
b.Dialysis
c.Electrophoresis
d.Mass spectrometry

A

Ultracentrifugation

26
Q

What is the purpose of using a cryoprotectant when freezing viral specimens?
a.To prevent bacterial contamination
b.To maintain pH balance
c.To reduce ice crystal formation
d.To inactivate host cell enzymes

A

To reduce ice crystal formation

27
Q

Which of the following is a key advantage of using cell culture for virus isolation?
a.Rapid results
b.Ability to detect non-viable viruses
c. High sensitivity for low viral loads
d.Isolation of infectious virus particles

A

Isolation of infectious virus particles

28
Q

What is the primary purpose of using a negative stain in electron microscopy for viral characterization?
a.To increase viral particle size
b.To enhance contrast between the virus and background
c.To selectively stain specific viral proteins
d.To inactivate the virus

A

To enhance contrast between the virus and background

29
Q

Which of the following techniques is used to determine the size and shape of viral particles?
a.Western blot
b.ELISA
c.Transmission electron microscopy
d.Flow cytometry

A

Transmission electron microscopy

30
Q

Which of the following is the most appropriate method for collecting vesicular fluid from skin lesions suspected of viral infection?
a.Cotton swab
b.Sterile needle and syringe
c.Skin scraping
d.Biopsy punch

A

Sterile needle and syringe

31
Q

Which of the following diagnostic methods is most appropriate for rapid detection of an emerging viral outbreak?
a.Virus isolation in cell culture
b.Electron microscopy
c.Real-time RT-PCR
d.Serological testing

A

Real-time RT-PCR

32
Q

In developing a vaccine against a novel respiratory virus, which type of vaccine is likely to elicit the strongest mucosal immunity?
a. Intramuscular inactivated vaccine
b.Oral live attenuated vaccine
c.Subcutaneous subunit vaccine
d.Intramuscular DNA vaccine

A

Oral live attenuated vaccine

33
Q

Which control strategy would be most effective in preventing the spread of a mosquito-borne viral disease in an urban area?
a.Mass vaccination
b.Vector control measures
c.Quarantine of infected individuals
d.Antiviral treatment of all residents

A

Vector control measures

34
Q

What is the most important factor to consider when implementing a ring vaccination strategy to control a viral outbreak?
a.The incubation period of the virus
b.The cost of the vaccine
c.The size of the affected population
d.The route of vaccine administration

A

The incubation period of the virus

35
Q

In developing a multivalent vaccine against several strains of a virus, what is the primary concern?
a. Increased production costs
b.Potential for antigenic interference
c. Longer time for immunity development
d.Higher risk of adverse reactions

A

Potential for antigenic interference

36
Q

Which diagnostic approach would be most appropriate for large-scale screening of a population for past exposure to a specific virus?
a. Viral culture
b.PCR testing
c. Serological testing for IgG antibodies
d.Antigen detection assays

A

Serological testing for IgG antibodies

37
Q

Which of the following strategies would be most effective in preventing nosocomial spread of a respiratory virus?
a. UV light disinfection of air
b.Prophylactic antiviral treatment for all patients
c. Strict hand hygiene and use of personal protective
equipment
d.Daily screening of all hospital staff

A

Strict hand hygiene and use of personal protective
equipment

38
Q

In developing a viral vector vaccine, what is a key consideration to ensure its effectiveness?
a. The vector should be derived from the target pathogen
b.The vector should not generate neutralizing antibodies
c. The vector should replicate rapidly in the host
d.The vector should cause mild disease symptoms

A

The vector should not generate neutralizing antibodies

39
Q

What is the primary purpose of implementing a heterologous prime-boost vaccination strategy?
a. To reduce vaccine production costs
b.To enhance immune response breadth and strength
c. To minimize adverse reactions
d.To shorten the time between doses

A

To enhance immune response breadth and strength

40
Q

In designing a public health response to a new viral threat, which of the following should be prioritized first?
a. Development of a vaccine
b.Implementation of travel restrictions
c. Establishment of a robust surveillance system
d.Mass production of antivirals

A

Establishment of a robust surveillance system

41
Q

Ten Saanen adult female goats were brought to the hospital due to arthritis, paralysis, mastitis and swelling of carpal joints, after 3 other kids from some of these does were found dead within 1-2 months from the onset of clinical signs. What is the most possible causative agent for this case?
a. Caprine arthritis and encephalitis virus
b.Parapoxvirus orf
c. Lyssavirus rabies
d.Cache Valley virus

A

Caprine arthritis and encephalitis virus

42
Q

Outbreaks of a disease with unexplained mortalities were reported in the Province of Rizal. Some pigs had high fever, diarrhea and purplish discoloration of the ears and abdomen. Outbreaks were observed mostly in backyard farms who acquired new stocks from Farm X. Some of them confessed that they practice swill feeding. Based on the history presented, what is the case definition as stated in the ASF Contingency Plan of the Bureau of Animal Industry?
a. Suspect case
b.Probable case
c. Confirmed case
d.The disease is NOT ASF

A

Probable case

43
Q

Aside from RT-PCR, ELISA can also be used to detect the presence of avian influenza antibodies in poultry for the purpose of local transport or movement of poultry (except ducks) during outbreaks. All of these are registered Avian Influenza ELISA antibody test kits EXCEPT?
a. IDEXX influenza A antibody test kit
b.BIOCHECK AI ELISA CK121
c. ProFLOK AIV Ab
d. AffiVET® Bird Flu/Avian Influenza Virus (H5N1) Antibody Elisa Test Kit

A

AffiVET® Bird Flu/Avian Influenza Virus (H5N1) Antibody Elisa Test Kit

44
Q

An 8 month old buck was referred to the Veterinary Teaching hospital with the complaint of diarrhea, labored breathing, and oral lesions. The owner of the buck noticed lacrimation, watery diarrhea, ulcerative mouth lesions, and anorexia 5 days after being off-fed and anorexic. The deworming and vaccination schedule was not up to date. Upon clinical examination, it was pyretic (400C) and had asphyxia. The mucus membrane of the oral cavity was pale with a putrid odor along with ulcerative lesions on the lips and mouth. Along with ulcerative lesions, there was a mucopurulent nasal discharge that leads to difficulty in breathing. All of these are possible causative agents for this case EXCEPT?
a. Peste des petits ruminants
b. Foot and mouth disease
c. Contagious ecthyma
d. Caprine arthritis and encephalitis

A

Caprine arthritis and encephalitis

45
Q

You were consulted due to biting incident of a dog in your locality. Based on the report, a dog has bitten another dog and its owner unprovoked. Both dogs were apparently healthy but not vaccinated in the preceding 1 year. You suspected rabies and advised that home quarantine should be done to the biting dog (suspect case; S) and the dog exposed to the rabies suspect (probable case; P). How long should these dogs be quarantined to declare freedom from rabies?
a. S = 14 days; P = 14 days
b.S = 14 days; P = 6 months
c. S = 6 months; P = 6 months
d.S = 3 months; P = 6 months

A

S = 14 days; P = 6 months

46
Q

An Holstein Friesian calf showed signs of increased salivation and nodules in most parts of the body. Upon physical examinations, the bull was lethargic and febrile with the rectal body temperature of 40.4°C and 64 beats/min and 36 breaths/min heart rate and
respiratory rates respectively. There were flare-up of small to large sized circumscribed nodules on different body parts. The nodules were also seen on the scrotum and hind legs. There was also swelling of both pre scapular and pre-femoral lymph nodes. All of these diseases can be suspected for this case EXCEPT?
a. Lumpy skin disease
b.Bovine herpes mammillitis
c. Foot and mouth disease
d.Bovine papular stomatitis

A

Foot and mouth disease

47
Q

All of these viruses may be transmitted by bats EXCEPT
a.Nipah virus
b.Rabies lyssavirus
c.MERS-CoV
d.Classical swine fever virus

A

Classical swine fever virus

48
Q

These cells are used by classical swine fever virus as Trojan horse for it to disseminate to other organs in the body.
a.neutrophils
b.monocytes
c. lymphocytes
d.basophils

A

monocytes

49
Q

What is the most common clinical sign in humans that tested positive to Orthoebolavirus restonense in the Philippines from 1989 to 2015?
a.Fever and paralysis
b.Petechial hemorrhages and bleeding
c. Diarrhea
d.None of these

A

None of these

50
Q

What is the colloquial term for the pulmonary form of African horse sickness?
a. dikkop
b. dunkop
c. coloured
d. mulatto

A

Dunkop

Veterinary Microbiology (18 decks)

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