Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Veterinary Microbiology > Microbiology (All subtopics) > Flashcards

Microbiology (All subtopics) Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Which of the following is the largest animal virus?
a.arterivirus
b.poxvirus
c.adenovirus
d.birnavirus

A

Poxvirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which is not a characteristic of Mycoplasma?
a.Fried egg” appearance of colonies
b.Lacks a cell wall
c.Contain DNA and RNA
d.Possess peptidoglycan

A

Possess peptidoglycan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

You get called upon to assist in an outbreak investigation in a neighbouring district. Several duck farmers in the district have reported significant mortalities of ducks in their flocks. All ducks are unvaccinated and affected ducks do not show any clear clinical signs. You are tasked to visit one affected farm later today, interview the farmer and take samples of the flock. What would be the appropriate level of PPE while handling affected ducks during this farm visit?
a.Nothing, this investigation has just started, and no disease has been confirmed yet.
b.Cleaned gumboots to avoid spreading disease to this flock.
c.Overalls, gumboots, gloves, goggles, disposable N95 mask as there is a potential zoonotic infection risk.
d.Totally encapsulated suit with self-contained breathing apparatus to eliminate any risk.

A

Overalls, gumboots, gloves, goggles, disposable N95 mask as there is a potential zoonotic infection risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

This disease is an example of an occupational hazard:
a.Erysipeloid
b.West Nile Fever
c.Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome
d.Leptospirosis

A

Erysipeloid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The mechanism of action of the botulinum toxin is to:
a.Block the release of inhibitory mediator
b.Stimulate the release of prostaglandin from epithelial cells
c.Block protein synthesis by ADP ribosylating EF-2
d.Activate host cell adenylate cyclase

A

Block protein synthesis by ADP ribosylating EF-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In assessing titer, how long after the first serum sample is collected should the second sample be collected?
a.7 days
b.3 days
c.2-6 weeks
d.14 weeks

A

2-6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

General term for fungi that can occur in both mold and yeast form.
a.bisexual
b.dimorphic
c.haustoria
d.rhizoids

A

Dimorphic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Based on the replication of Togaviruses, the virus will replicate in the:*
a.nucleus
b.cytoplasm
c.it can happen on both sites
d.location outside the living cell

A

Cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In a integrated farm, an outbreak of Tetanus has been reported. Which among the following animals will be mostly affected?
a.goat
b.horse
c.chicken
d.cattle

A

Horse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the primary toxin responsiblefor Paralytic Shellfish Poisoning (PSP)?

*

1/1

a.Saxitoxin
b.Tetrodotoxin
c.Ciguatoxin
d.Domoic acid

A

Saxitoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The most commonly used agent for gas sterilization is:
a.Glutaraldehyde
b.Formaldehyde
c.Chlorhexidine
d.Ethylene oxide

A

Ethylene oxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which is an intracellular organism that occurs outside of the host cell as elementary bodies?
a.Mycobacterium avium
b.Aspergillus fumigatus
c.Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d.Chlamydia psittaci

A

Chlamydia psittaci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Period of bacterial growth when there is rapid multiplication of cells?
a.lag phase
b.log phase
c.stationary phase
d.period of decline

A

Log phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

IL-1 is produced mainly by what cells?
a.NK cells
b.macrophage
c.CD4 T cells
d.Th1 cells

A

Macrophage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the cause of blue ear disease?
a.arterivirus
b.poxvirus
c.adenovirus
d.birnavirus

A

Arterivirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The epidemiologic triad of disease causation refers to:
a.Agent, host, environment
b.Time, place, person
c.Source, mode of transmission, susceptible host
d.John Snow, Robert Koch, Kenneth Rothman

A

Agent, host, environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The diarrhea and dehydration seen in calves with colibacillosis are mainly attributable to the effects of:
a.Enterotoxin
b.Endotoxin
c.Verotoxin
d.Lipopolysaccharide

A

Enterotoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A reservoir of an infectious agent can be:
a.A symptomatic human
b.An animal
c.The environment
d.All of the above

A

All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following diseases is caused by gram positive bacteria?
a.Purulent pneumonia in foals
b.Tracheobronchitis in dogs
c.Tularemia
d.Fowl coryza

A

Tracheobronchitis in dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

During milk ring test, what is the indication if the milk at the bottom of the tube becomes gradually whitened?
a.positive result
b.negative result
c.result is inconclusive and the test should be repeated
d.partially negative

A

Result is inconclusive and the test should be repeated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Transmissible gastroenteritis virus cross-reacts serologically with:
a.Pseudorabies virus
b.Hog cholera virus
c.Bovine viral diarrhea virus
d.Porcine corona respiratory virus

A

Porcine corona respiratory virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following vaccutainer can be used in the collection of your sample for antibody detection?
a.the one with green cap
b.the one with purple cap
c.the one with red cap
d.the one with yellow cap

A

The one with red cap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of the following is the transmitter of Hendra virus?
a.dogs
b.bats
c.guinea pig
d.firefly

A

Bats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which bacteria is associated with Hamburger Disease is US?
a.Brucella foetus
b.Escherichia coli
c.Vibrio cholera
d.Staphylococcus aureus

A

Escherichia coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Double-deadis a Filipino appellation of meat obtained from a diseased animal or of an animal which has died other than slaughter. The Meat Inspection Code properly refers to this as:
a.Adulterated
b.Hot meat
c.Condemned
d.Misbranded

A

Adulterated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Population of the city of Atlantis on March 30, 2012 = 183,000

No. of new active cases of TB occurring between January 1 and June 30, 2012 = 26

No. of active TB cases according to the city register on June 30, 2012 = 264

The incidence rate of active cases of TB for the 6-month period was ______ per 100,000 population.
a.7
b.14
c.26
d.28

A

14

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

A cohort study differs from a case-control study in that:
a.Subjects are enrolled or categorized on the basis of their exposure status in a cohort study but not in a case-control study
b.Subjects are asked about their exposure status in a cohort study but not in a case-control study
c.Cohort studies require many years to conduct, but case-control studies do not
d.Cohort studies are conducted to investigate chronic diseases, case-control studies are used for infectious diseases

A

Subjects are enrolled or categorized on the basis of their exposure status in a cohort study but not in a case-control study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the major antibody produced during a primary response?
a.IgA
b.IgG
c.IgM
d.IgD

A

IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Touching or feeding animals and licks on the skin is an example of what type of contact to rabies virus?
a.Type I
b.Type II
c.Type III
d.Type IV

A

Type I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the causative agent of Wooden tongue in cattle?
a.Actinobacillus lignieresii
b.Nocardia asteroids
c.Dermatophilus congolensis
d.Moraxella bovis

A

Actinobacillus lignieresii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which of the following bacteria are capable of producing motile zoospores?
a.Actinomyces
b.Brucella
c.Dermatophilus
d.Corynebacterium

A

Dermatophilus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

During an ante-mortem inspection at a slaughterhouse, which scenario is most likely to be a significant concern that warrants further investigation?
a.A cow with a slightly abnormal posture but normal appetite and alert behavior.
b.A pig showing signs of moderate respiratory distress, accompanied by high fever and visible skin lesions.
c.A goat with a minor but persistent limp and normal feeding behavior.
d.A chicken with extensive external abscesses visible on the carcass

A

A pig showing signs of moderate respiratory distress, accompanied by high fever and visible skin lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

False negative tuberculin tests may occur in:
a.Heavily parasitized cattle
b.Heavily pregnant cows
c.Very old cattle
d.Jersey cattle

A

Heavily pregnant cattle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

An acidic reaction in the slant and butt portions of a triple sugar-iron medium indicates:
a.Fermentation
b.Carbohydrate utilization
c.Deamination
d.Desulfurylation

A

Fermentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which of the following yeasts become concentrated in pigeon feces that are rich in creatinine?
a.Candida albicans
b.Cryptococcus neoformans
c.Malassezia pachydermatis
d.Histoplasma capsulatum

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which of the following is most suitable for sterilization of an antiserum?
a.Irradiation
b.Steam sterilization
c.Filtration
d.Dry heat

A

Filtration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Primaryreservoirof Q fever:
a.Birds
b.Cattle, sheep, and goats
c.Contaminated water; rodents
d.Wild carnivores

A

Cattle, sheep, and goats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Prevalence measures the 1)_______ of cases within a 2)_______-at-risk at a specified 3)______ in time.
a.1) number 2) group 3) point
b.1) proportion 2) population 3) date
c.1) proportion 2) population 3) point
d.1) proportion 2) group 3) date

A

1) proportion 2) population 3) point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which of the following is the major immunoglobulin found in the pig’s body surfaces?
a.IgA
b.IgG1
c.IgM
d.IgD

A

IgA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Abortion in cow can be suspected to be cause by Brucella spp if it occurs ___?
a.on the first month
b.on the third month
c.on the fourth month
d.on the seventh month

A

On the seventh month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which of the following is a primary cause ofPale Soft Exudative (PSE)pork?
a.Rapid decline in pH (reaching 5.5 within 30-60 mins) due to Lactic acid accumulation and failure to chill meat rapidly
b.Insufficient feed intake and poor nutrition during the growth period
c.Infection with specific bacterial pathogens causing discoloration and texture changes in the meat
d.Inadequate aging of pork

A

Rapid decline in pH (reaching 5.5 within 30-60 mins) due to Lactic acid accumulation and failure to chill meat rapidly

42
Q

It serves as a mordant during routine gram staining?
a.safranin red
b.acetone alcohol
c.crystal violet
d.iodine

A

Iodine

43
Q

Legal mandate declaring March as theRabies Awareness Month, Rationalizing the Control Measures for the Prevention and Eradication of Rabies and Appropriating Funds.
a.Republic Act 9482
b.Batas Pambansa Bilang 97
c.Executive Order No. 84, March 13, 1999
d.MOA on Interagency Interagency Implementation of the NRPCP

A

Executive Order No. 84, March 13, 1999

44
Q

The major function of eosinophils is to:
a.Phagocytose bacteria
b.Neutralize viruses
c.Cause delayed hypersensitivity
d.Promote inflammation

A

Promote inflammation

45
Q

Which of the following is a common ante-mortem sign ofpleuritisin animals?
a.Fever is always present
b.Abducted elbows
c.Purulent or fibrous exudate in pleural cavity
d.Carcass condemnation

A

Abducted elbows

46
Q

Staphylococcus aureus is associated with the following conditions except:
a.Botryomycosis
b.Bovine mastitis
c.Tick pyemia
d.Stuttgart disease

A

Stuttgart disease

47
Q

A veterinary clinic is experiencing an outbreak of a disease among its staff, who have been in close contact with dogs recently rescued from a shelter. Among the options, which is most likely to proliferate in this situation?
a.Toxoplasmosis
b.Q fever
c.Brucellosis
d.Psittacosis

A

Brucellosis

48
Q

Cold enrichment is usually employed in the cultivation of:
a.Moraxella bovis
b.Listeria monocytogenes
c.Bordetella bronchiseptica
d.Francisella tularensis

A

Listeria monocytogenes

49
Q

During post-mortem exam of a carcass, the sublingual lymph node and spleen have lesions. What would be the decision?
a.trim and pass rest of carcass
b.condemn affected parts
c.condemn entire carcass
d.conditionally pass

A

condemn entire carcass

50
Q

The enzyme catalase is used by bacteria to break down:
a.Starches
b.Hydrogen peroxide
c.Proteins
d.Superoxides

A

Hydrogen peroxide

51
Q

If there is fecal contamination of the carcass, what would be the judgment?
a.trim and reject affected parts
b.total rejection
c.fit for consumption
d.condemn

A

Trim and reject affected parts

52
Q

Ebola virus is under what viral family?
a.Bunyaviridae
b.Bornaviridae
c.Filoviridae
d.Arenaviridae

A

Filoviridae

53
Q

Which of the following virus is associated with Hendra virus?
a.nipah virus
b.calivirus
c.togavirus
d.arterivirus

A

Nipah virus

54
Q

Erythritol acts as a growth factor for:
a.Brucella
b.Salmonella
c.Moraxella
d.Avibacterium

A

Brucella

55
Q

Shiga or shiga-like toxin is produce by what type of E. coli?
a.EHEC
b.EPEC
c.ETEC
d.ESEC

A

ETEC

56
Q

Which disease control measure is least likely to be applied during an outbreak of viral respiratory disease in horses?
a.Isolation
b.Quarantine
c.Immunization
d.Depopulation

A

Depopulation

57
Q

Which is not included in the minimum postmortem inspection requirements for animals?
a.Tongue
b.Ingesta
c.Lymph nodes
d.Spleen

A

Ingesta

58
Q

The transfer of DNA from one bacterium to another aided by sex pili is called:
a.Conjugation
b.Transduction
c.Transformation
d.Recombination

A

Conjugation

59
Q

Which of the following clotting factor is present in Chocolate agar?
a.Factor I
b.Factor VII
c.Factor V
d.Factor III

A

Factor V

60
Q

In case of an epizootic anthrax in a farm the following can be done except:
a.Affected farms should be quarantined for a period extending 2 weeks past the last death from anthrax
b.Perform necropsy of suspected cases
c.Decontamination of premises
D.Carcasses of animals that died of anthrax be completely burned or buried deeply

A

Perform necropsy of suspected cases

61
Q

In case of an epizootic anthrax in a farm the following can be done except:
a.Affected farms should be quarantined for a period extending 2 weeks past the last death from anthrax
b.Perform necropsy of suspected cases
c.Decontamination of premises
D.Carcasses of animals that died of anthrax be completely burned or buried deeply

A

Perform necropsy of suspected cases

62
Q

The aim of the prevention during the clinical phase of the natural history disease is to:
a.Prevent exposure
b.Prevent emerge of disease
c.Early diagnosis and treatment
d.Prevent or delay death

A

Early diagnosis and treatment

63
Q

The Coomb’s test was designed to:
a.Diagnose brucellosis
b.Detect RBC antigens
c.Detect reaginic antibody
d.Detect immune reactants on cells

A

Detect reaginic antibody

64
Q

The odds ratio describes the 1)______ of an event 2)_____ compared to the 3)_____ of an event 4)_____.
a.1) chance 2) incidence 3) probability 4) incidence
b.1) odds 2) occuring 3) odds 4) not occurring
c.1) odds 2) incidence 3) probability 4) occurring
d.1) odds 2) occuring 3) odds 4) occurring

A

1) odds 2) occuring 3) odds 4) not occurring

65
Q

Based on DNA relatedness, the genus Salmonella is comprised of:
a.2 species, Salmonella bongori and Salmonella enteritidis
b.3 species, Salmonella cholerasuis, S. typhi and S. enteritidis
c.2 species, Salmonella enterica and Salmonella bongori
d.3 species, Salmonella typhi, S. paratyphi and S. enteritidis

A

2 species, Salmonella enterica and Salmonella bongori

66
Q

The Veterinary Health Certificate (VHC) shall be valid for a maximum of:
a.24 hours
b.3 days, to start counting the following day after its issuance date including Saturdays and Sundays, but not Holidays
c.3 days, to start counting immediately on the issuance date including Saturdays, Sundays, and Holidays
d.3 days, to start counting the following day after its issuance date including Saturdays, Sundays, and Holidays

A

3 days, to start counting the following day after its issuance date including Saturdays, Sundays, and Holidays

67
Q

Which isNOTa mode of transmission of Anthrax?
a.Ingestion of undercooked meat
b.Inhalation of spores in wool
c.Arthropod vector (horseflies)
d.Person to person

A

Person to person

68
Q

The optichin test is used to identify which species of Streptococcus?
a.S. suis
b.S. equisimilis
c.S. pneumonia
d.S. uberis

A

S. pneumonia

69
Q

Which antiseptic agent is one of most potent antiseptics because it is bactericidal, virucidal, and fungicidal?
a.Chlorhexidine
b.Hydrogen peroxide
c.Iodine
d.Quaternary ammonium compound

A

Iodine

70
Q

What is the incubation period of Highly Pathogenic Avian Influenza?
a.2-5 days
b.14 days
c.18 days
d.30 days

A

2-5 days

71
Q

The CAMP test is used for:
a.Staphylococcus aureus
b.Streptococcus uberis
c.Streptococcus dysgalactiae
d.Streptococcus agalactiae

A

Streptococcus agalactiae

72
Q

This is often referred to asbacillary dysenterybecause of bloody diarrhea, tenesmus, fever and nausea that it causes to human.
a.Campylobacteriosis
b.Colibacillosis
c.Salmonellosis
d.Shigellosis

A

Shigellosis

73
Q

Which of the following is NOT a key component affectinganimal welfarein the slaughterhouse?
a.Competence of the personnel handling the animals
b.Availability of high-quality feed and water during transportation
c.Design of premises or facilities to minimize stress
d.Proper use of tools that are fit for purpose

A

Availability of high-quality feed and water during transportation

74
Q

In the definition of epidemiology, “determinants” generally includes the following EXCEPT:
a.Agents
b.Causes
c.Control measures
d.Risk factors

A

Control measures

75
Q

Test to determineperfect carcass bleeding
a.Wode’s test
b.Six-plate tesr
c.Malachite Green Test
d.Carotene Test

A

Malachite Green Test

76
Q

In a region with increasing cases of human psittacosis linked to pet parakeets, which intervention would likely be the mostcost-effectivefor preventing further spread of the disease?
a.Implementing mass antibiotic therapy for all affected persons
b.Quarantining all pet parakeets in the affected area
c.Treating all imported parakeets with antibiotics before distribution
d.Conducting public health education campaigns on safe handling of pet parakeets

A

Treating all imported parakeets with antibiotics before distribution

77
Q

Which of the following disease is most likely to acquire by a cattle submerged to flood?
anthrax
hemorrhagic septicemia
leptospirosis
pink eye

A

Leptospirosis

78
Q

What is the source of Salmonella in dressed chicken before slaughtering?
a.bird itself
b.evisceration area
c.feeds
d.none of the above

A

Bird itself

79
Q

bird itself

evisceration area

feeds

none of the above

A cloudy, green colored fluid after Radan’s test would mean that bleeding is:
a.Very unsatisfactory (cold-slaughtered)
b.Incomplete
c.Complete
d.Satisfactory

A

Incomplete

80
Q

What is the major function of interferon?
a.antiviral
b.antiprotozoal
c.antibiotic
d.antifungal

A

Antiviral

81
Q

Humans most commonly contract Vibrio vulfinicus from ingestion of:
a.Unpasteurized milk
b.Contaminated marine shellfish like oysters
c.Contaminated meat
d.Any of these

A

Contaminated marine shellfish like oysters

82
Q

What is the source of Salmonella in dressed chicken after slaughtering?
a.bird itself
b.evisceration area
c.feeds
d.none of the above

A

Evisceration area

83
Q

Tuberculin test is a diagnostic test used to diagnosed tuberculosis in animals. This is being done by inoculation of mycobacterial antigen via:
a.intramuscular
b.intradermal
c.subcutaneous
d.intravenous

A

Intradermal

84
Q

What is the virus common in tumors of marine mammals?
a.poxvirus
b.papillomavirus
c.lentivirus
d.adenovirus

A

Papillomavirus

85
Q

Which of the following isNOTtransmitted through consumption of raw or undercooked fish?
a.Diphyllobothriasis
b.Balantidiasis
c.Vibriosis
d.Anisakiasis

A

Balantidiasis

86
Q

Systemic lupus erythematosus is an example of what type of hypersensitivity?
a.Type I
b.Type II
c.Type III
d.Type IV

A

Type III

87
Q

Sabouraud’s dextrose agar is a medium used for ___:
a.virus
b.bacteria
c.fungi
d.protozoa

A

Fungi

88
Q

Concerning Hemophilus parasuis, which statement is least accurate?
a.It is the cause of Glasser’s disease
b.It is a normal commensal of the pharyngeal mucosa
c.It is a small Gram positive bacillus- gram-negative rod
d.It is a frequent secondary invader in swine influenza

A

It is a small Gram positive bacillus- gram-negative rod

89
Q

Which is not a characteristic of Rickettsia?
a.Obligate intracellular parasite
b.Grows well on artificial media
c.Transmitted by arthropods
d.Contain a cell wall

A

Grows well on artificial media

90
Q

Q fever: Primarymodeof zoonotic transmission
a.Ticks
b.Raw milk ingestion
c.Inhalation
d.Direct contact with carcass

A

Inhalation

91
Q

Serratia marcescens in blood agar produces:
a.Greyish,round and shiny colonies
b.Mucoid colonies that coalesce
c.Grey,swarming growth over the agar
d.Convex,round and shiny colony sometimes produces pigment

A

Convex,round and shiny colony sometimes produces pigment

92
Q

Which of the job roles below are field epidemiologists least likely to be involved in:
a.Conducting disease surveillance activities
b.Managing disease prevention and control programs
c.Developing disease models
d.Developing herd health programs

A

Developing disease models

93
Q

What is the recommended procedure for handling a fetus in the uteruspost-slaughter of pregnant animals?
a.The fetus should be euthanized immediately
b.The fetus should be left undisturbed in utero for at least 30 minutes
c.The fetus should be removed from the uterus and left to breathe
d.Pregnant animals, no matter the stage of gestation, should neither be transported nor slaughtered.

A

The fetus should be left undisturbed in utero for at least 30 minutes

94
Q

Which best definespathogen pressurein the context of zoonotic spillover risk?
a.The mode of pathogen release from reservoir hosts
b.The survival of pathogens outside reservoir hosts
c.The amount of pathogen available to humans at a specific time and place
d.The probability of infection following exposure

A

The amount of pathogen available to humans at a specific time and place

95
Q

Which of the following is a morbiliviral infection causing fever, stomatitis and gastroenteritis in artiodactyls?
a.Vesicular stomatitis
b.Rinderpest
c.Malignant catarrhal fever
d.Foot and mouth disease

A

Rinderpest

96
Q

Which one is a non-oncogenic retrovirus?
a.Caprine arthritis-encephalitis
b.Bovine leukemia virus
c.Rous sarcoma virus
d.None of the above

A

Caprine arthritis-encephalitis

97
Q

What is the basis for serotyping of Pasteurella multocida?
a.Capsule
b.Fimbria
c.Adhesin
d.Flagella

A

Capsule

98
Q

The “rough, tough and buff” colonies are characteristics of:
a.Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b.M. bovis
c.M. farcinogenes
d.M. avium

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

99
Q

Lactose is fermented by:
a.Escherichia coli
b.Salmonella typhimurium
c.Corynebacterium diphtheriae
d.Proteus vulgaris

A

Escherichia coli

100
Q

Contagious equine metritis is a highly contagious venereal disease caused by:
a.Brucella abortus
b.Taylorella equigenitalis
c.Histoplasma farciminosum
d.Pseudomonas pseudomallei

A

Taylorella equigenitalis

101
Q

Which of the following diseases is caused by gram negative bacteria?
a.Anthrax
b.Hemorrhagic septicaemia
c.Lumpy jaw
d.Swine erysipelas

A

Hemorrhagic septicaemia

102
Q

Which of the following diseases is caused by gram negative bacteria?
a.Anthrax
b.Hemorrhagic septicaemia
c.Lumpy jaw
d.Swine erysipelas

A

Hemorrhagic septicaemia

Veterinary Microbiology (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions