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7 Reviewer A + Reviewer B Veterinary Microbiology > Microbiology A (Zoonoses) > Flashcards

Microbiology A (Zoonoses) Flashcards

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1
Q

The agent is transmitted from an infected host to a susceptible host by direct contact, through fomites or a mechanical vector. The infectious cycle requires only one vertebrate species to perpetuate.
a.Cyclozoonoses
b.Metazoonoses (pherozoonoses)
c.Direct zoonoses
d.Saprozoonoses

A

Direct zoonoses

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2
Q

Which is an example of Orthozoonoses?
a.Rabies
b.Toxoplasmosis
c. Clonorchiasis
d.Fascioliasis

A

Rabies

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3
Q

Zoonoses that require both vertebrates and invertebrates for the completion of their infectious cycle
a.Cyclozoonoses
b.Metazoonoses
c. Direct zoonoses
d.Saprozoonoses

A

Metazoonoses

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4
Q

Which is an example of Pherozoonoses?
a.Brucellosis
b.Plague
c. Taeniasis
d.Listeriosis

A

Plague

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5
Q

Human infectious agents able to infect animals (from man to animals)
a.Anthropozoonoses
b.Zooanthropozoonoses
c.Amphixenoses
d.Gnosis

A

Zooanthropozoonoses

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6
Q

Zoonotic diseases that appear and affect a population for the
first time or have existed previously but are increasing rapidly in terms of the number of new cases within a population or their spread to new geographical areas
a.Emerging
b.Re-emerging
c.Parazoonoses
d.Orthozoonoses

A

Emerging

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7
Q

Legal mandate declaring March as the Rabies Awareness Month, Rationalizing the Control Measures for the Prevention and Eradication of Rabies and Appropriating Funds
a.Republic Act 9482
b.Batas Pambansa Bilang 97
c.Executive Order No. 84, March 13, 1999
d.MOA on Interagency Interagency
Implementation of the NRPCP

A

Executive Order No. 84, March 13, 1999

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8
Q

Creating The Philippine Inter-agency Committee On Zoonoses, Defining Its Powers, Functions, Responsibilities, Other Related Matters And Providing Funds Thereof
a.Administrative Order No. 10, s. 2011
b.Republic Act No. 9482
c. Joint DOH-DA-DENR Administrative Order
No. 2020-02
d.Republic Act No. 9147

A

Administrative Order No. 10, s. 2011

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9
Q

Guidelines to Operationalize the The Philippine Inter-agency
Committee On Zoonoses (PhilCZ)
a.Administrative Order No. 10, s. 2011
b.Republic Act No. 9482
c. Joint DOH-DA-DENR Administrative Order No. 2020-02
d.Republic Act No. 9147

A

Joint DOH-DA-DENR Administrative Order No. 2020-02

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10
Q

According to the Joint DOH-DA-DENR Administrative Order No. 2020-02, how much shall be appropriated for the operations of the PhilCZ annually?
a.Php 500,000.00
b.Php 2,000,000.00
c.Php 5,000,000.00
d.There is no mention of funding

A

Php 2,000,000.00

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11
Q

Subjective evidence of illness that the person affected can perceive and describe to others
a.Disease
b.Signs
c.Syndrome
d.Symptoms

A

Symptoms

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12
Q

Various schemes have been devised to classify how people may be exposed to zoonotic agents. Hugh-Jones, et al. (2000) lists how many professional and social groups?
a.Five
b.Seven
c. Nine
d.Eleven

A

Seven

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13
Q

Victims of natural disasters may be locked in temporary evacuation centers. Since they live in a crowded and highly stressful situation, they belong to this persons-at-risk social group:
a.Group I
b.Group III
c.Group V
d.Group VII

A

Group VII

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14
Q

Two cases of a disease were diagnosed in 2,500 dogs in a province
a.Sporadic
b.Endemic
c.Pandemic
d.Epidemic

A

Sporadic

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15
Q

Which is not a bottleneck to spillover?
a.Reservoir distribution
b.Pathogen prevalence
c.Pathogen survival and spread
d.Strong within-host barrier

A

Strong within-host barrier

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16
Q

Which prevention approach is concerned with minimizing damage after disease has occurred?
a.Primary prevention
b.Secondary prevention
c.Tertiary prevention
d.Eradication

A

Secondary prevention

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17
Q

Elimination of rabies from the reservoirs of importance to humans/domestic animals, but not in wildlife reservoirs
a.Practical eradication
b.Total eradication
c.Rehabilitation
d.Conventional Eradication

A

Practical eradication

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18
Q

Which of the following control measures is designated to break the connection between the source of the infection and susceptible individuals?
a.Quarantine and isolation of cases and/or carriers
b.Destruction of vectors by spraying with insecticides
c. Destruction of an animal reservoir of infection
d.Treatment of sewage to reduce water contamination

A

Destruction of vectors by spraying with insecticides

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19
Q

Which of the following is not a strategy of control and prevention of disease?
a.Religious laws against eating particular animals
b.Environmental control of arthropods
c. Commercial pasteurization of milk
d.Traveling to other countries

A

Traveling to other countries

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20
Q

Begins when the host contacts the agent and ends with onset of signs and/or symptoms of disease
a. Index case
b. Incubation period
c.Proband (propositus)
d.Risk

A

Incubation period

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21
Q

Which of the following doesn’t have freshwater fishes as its 2nd intermediate hosts?
a.Dicrocoelium dendriticum
b.Fasciola hepatica
c. Metagonimus yokogawai
d.Clonorchis sinensis

A

Clonorchis sinensis

22
Q

What defines the reservoir in the context of zoonotic diseases?
a.The animal or person later called a case
b.The agent transmitted from a reservoir to a host
c. The animal or person where zoonotic agents survive and multiply
d.The inanimate vehicle such as food or water that carries the infectious agent

A

The animal or person where zoonotic agents survive and multiply

23
Q

What is an example of indirect transmission of a zoonotic agent?
a. A bite from an infected animal
b.Contact with an infected person’s respiratory droplets
c. Transmission via an arthropod vector
d. Intimate contact with an infected animal

A

Transmission via an arthropod vector

24
Q

Which zoonotic agents are particularly important for airborne spread?
a.Salmonella spp. and Toxoplasma gondii
b.Brucella spp. and Coxiella burnetii
c. Leptospira spp. and Borrelia burgdorferi
d.Rabies virus and Hantavirus

A

Brucella spp. and Coxiella burnetii

25
Q

Which of the following is an example of vertical transmission in livestock?
a. Infection through contaminated feed
b. Infection passed from dam to offspring via colostrum
c. Infection spread through respiratory droplets
d. Infection transmitted by tick bites

A

Infection passed from dam to offspring via colostrum

26
Q

What is relative risk in the context of zoonotic disease exposure?
a.The measure of benefit derived from removing a known risk
b.The rate of occurrence among those with the risk factor compared to those without it
c. The risk rate calculated from a sample of a larger population
d.The likelihood of severe disease in relatives of an infected animal

A

The rate of occurrence among those with the risk factor compared to those without it

27
Q

Which factor primarily increases the risk of prenatal or neonatal zoonotic infection?
a.Maternal infection
b.Exposure to pets during infancy
c. Recreational activities during childhood
d.Occupational exposure during adult years

A

Maternal infection

28
Q

What is the primary difference between hazard and risk?
a.Hazard includes the probability of harm, whereas risk does not.
b.Hazard refers to potential harm, whereas risk includes the probability of harm.
c. Risk refers to potential harm, whereas hazard includes the
probability of harm.
d.Risk refers to potential harm, whereas hazard includes the
magnitude of harm.

A

Hazard refers to potential harm, whereas risk includes the probability of harm.

29
Q

What is the primary purpose of disease surveillance?
a.To monitor the success of disease control programs.
b.To measure the extent of disease in populations.
c. To conduct periodic blood collections for disease testing.
d.To review statistics on cases and outbreaks.

A

To measure the extent of disease in populations

Disease surveillance aims to detect disease, measure its extent, identify interventions, and evaluate impact.

30
Q

What distinguishes surveillance from monitoring in disease control?
a.Surveillance includes evaluating intervention impacts, while monitoring focuses only on disease detection.
b.Surveillance involves periodic data collection, while monitoring is continuous.
c. Surveillance is limited to disease detection, while monitoring includes measuring the success of control efforts.
d.Surveillance is conducted internationally/nationwide, while monitoring is local.

A

Surveillance involves periodic data collection, while monitoring is continuous.

31
Q

Which best defines pathogen pressure in the context of zoonotic spillover risk?
a.The mode of pathogen release from reservoir hosts
b.The survival of pathogens outside reservoir hosts
c. The amount of pathogen available to humans at a specific time and place
d.The probability of infection following exposure

A

The amount of pathogen available to humans at a specific time and place

32
Q

In a rural area facing an outbreak of a vector-borne disease
affecting both domestic livestock and wildlife, which strategy is
likely to be the most cost-effective for controlling the disease?
a.Slaughter of affected animals to eliminate the disease from the
livestock population
b. Implementing specific-pathogen-free (SPF) programs in livestock herds
c. Controlling the vector population to reduce disease transmission
d.Vaccinating domestic livestock against the disease

A

Controlling the vector population to reduce disease transmission

33
Q

In a region with increasing cases of human psittacosis linked to
pet parakeets, which intervention would likely be the most
cost-effective for preventing further spread of the disease?
a. Implementing mass antibiotic therapy for all affected persons
b.Quarantining all pet parakeets in the affected area
c. Treating all imported parakeets with antibiotics before distribution
d.Conducting public health education campaigns on safe handling of pet parakeets

A

Treating all imported parakeets with antibiotics before distribution

34
Q

Primary reservoir of Q fever
a.Birds
b.Cattle, sheep, and goats
c.Contaminated water; rodents
d.Wild carnivores

A

Cattle, sheep, and goat

35
Q

Q fever: Primary mode of zoonotic transmission
a.Ticks
b.Raw milk ingestion
c. Inhalation
d.Direct contact with carcass

A

Inhalation

36
Q

Which of the following is a major reservoir for Brucella melitensis?
a.Goats
b.Cattle
c.Dogs
d.Swine

A

Goats

37
Q

Primary lesion at site of mite bite: initial papule, becomes multilocular vesicle, then flat black eschar.
a.Q fever
b.Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
c.Scrub typhus
d.Plague

A

Scrub typhus

38
Q

Liponyssoides sanguineus is the primary vector of:
a.Rickettsia akari
b.Orientia tsutsugamushi
c.Rickettsia ricketsii
d.Rickettsia australis

A

Rickettsia akari

39
Q

This is often referred to as bacillary dysentery because of bloody diarrhea, tenesmus, fever, and nausea that it causes to humans.
a.Campylobacteriosis
b.Colibacillosis
c.Salmonellosis
d.Shigellosis

A

Shigellosis

40
Q

This disease is an example of an occupational hazard:
a.Erysipeloid
b.West Nile Fever
c.Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome
d.Leptospirosis

A

Erysipeloid

41
Q

A veterinary clinic is experiencing an outbreak of a disease
among its staff, who have been in close contact with dogs
recently rescued from a shelter. Among the options, which is
most likely to proliferate in this situation?
a.Toxoplasmosis
b.Q fever
c.Brucellosis
d.Psittacosis

A

Brucellosis

42
Q

Streptobacillus moniliformi is transmitted to humans via
a.Rat bite
b.Tick bite
c.Mite bite
d.Dog bite

A

Rat bite

43
Q

Cat owners are more likely to acquire dermatomycosis caused by:
a.Trichophyton mentagrophytes
b.Aspergillus fumigatus
c.Lacazia loboi
d.Microsporum canis

A

Microsporum canis

44
Q

Which of the following is NOT transmitted through consumption of raw or undercooked fish?
a.Diphyllobothriasis
b.Balantidiasis
c.Vibriosis
d.Anisakiasis

A

Balantidiasis

45
Q

Radiography reveals bilateral interstitial pneumonia.
a.Pneumocystis infection
b.Anthrax
c.Filariasis
d.Tuberculosis

A

Pneumocystis infection

46
Q

Most common Taenia in developing countries:
a.T. saginata
b.T. solium
c. T. ovis
d.T. taeniaformis

A

T. solium

47
Q

Parasitic zoonoses with the highest case fatality rate
a.Ascariasis
b.Filariasis
c. Dicroceliasis
d.Echinococcosis

A

Echinococcosis

48
Q

Which is NOT a mode of transmission of Anthrax?
a. Ingestion of undercooked meat
b. Inhalation of spores in wool
c.Arthropod vector (horseflies)
d.Person to person

A

Person to person

49
Q

Confirmatory test for Thelaziasis
a.Microscopic examination of blood
b.Microscopic examination of liver biopsy
c.Microscopic identification of parasite after removal from eye
d.Microscopic examination of fresh feces

A

Microscopic identification of parasite after removal from eye

50
Q

Ctenocephalides felis is the intermediate host of what parasite?
a.Toxocara cati
b.Dipylidium caninum
c.Dioctophyma renale
d.Fasciolopsis buski

A

Dipylidium caninum

7 Reviewer A + Reviewer B Veterinary Microbiology (18 decks)

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