Veterinary Virology A Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Father of microscopic / virologic/ infectious diseases sciences

A

Louis Pasteur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Discovered the nature of prions, the etiologic agent of bovine spongiform encephalopathy, scrapie, and similar diseases. He was awarded a nobel prize in medicine.

A

Prusiner (1997)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Worked on inactivation of virus and attenuation of polio vaccine

A

Salk nd Sabin (1954-1057)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Identified Human Immune deficiency virus

A

Luc Montagnier et al (1984)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Made the first rabies vaccine

A

Louis Pasteur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

First cancer causing virus to be discovered

A

Avian leukemia virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Completely dependent on their host for the machinery of energy production and synthesis of macromolecules

A

Viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Made visualization of viruses possible

A

Electron microscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The first virus to be discovered where it was described as filterable viruses

A

Foot-and-mouth virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The largest of the viruses of vertebrates

A

Pox virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The morphologically defined protein coat surrounding the complete virus particle

A

Capsid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Morphologic units that are discemable features (protrusion or depression) seen on the surface of virions by electron microscopy

A

Capsomeres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Glycoprotein dimmers/trimmers assembled on virus surfaces as spikes

A

Peplomers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Symmetry found in isometric viruses

A

Icosahedral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Enzymes in NA replication, transcription, translation and shut down of host cell functions

A

Non structural proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Used in classic studies of virus replication in cell culture where in the increase of infectious virus over time is followed by sequential sampling and filtration

A

One-step growth curve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

After infection of cell culture, a period that occurs wherein infectious particles cannot be demonstrated even intracellularly

A

Eclipse period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What process initiates viral infection

A

Attachment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What mechanism do viral uptake or penetration occur

A

Receptor mediated endocytosis and fusion with plasma membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Strategies of replication of RNA viruses are diverse because (3)

A

-Some are single or double stranded
-Some are positive or negative sense
-Some are monopartite or segmented

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Gene sequences upstream from the start site which regulate transcription

A

Enchancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Important for regulation of gene and involved in the amplification of transcription

A

Promoters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A type of viral protien, which act on non-infected cells to modulate the progress of infection in the body as whole

A

Virokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What viral property is onvolved when viruses produce proteins that interfere with specific host antiviral activations

A

The capacity to elude host defenses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

General types of genotypic mutation (3)

A

Point mutation
Chromosome mutation
Copy number variations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Types of point mutation (3) SID

A

Substitution
Insertion
Deletion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Types of chromosomal mutation (4)

A

Inversion
Deletion
Duplication
Translocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Types of Copy number variation (2)

A

Gene amplification
Expanding trinucleotide repeat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Enhances spontaneous mutations for RNS virus

A

Defective interfering mutants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Vertebrate viruses with specific tropism and infection making them valuable in carrying foreign genes

A

Viral vectors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Viral mutants that cannot grow under certain experimental parameters (restrictive) but can replicate in others (permissive)

A

Conditional lethal mutants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

T particles of vesicular stomatitis virus are type of mutants. They are shortened and cannot replicate by themselves but need the presence of parental wild-type virus

A

Defective interfering mutants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Observed in infection of cells by 2 viruses where progeny virions have acquired phenotypic characteristics from both parents although their genetype remains unchanged

A

Phenotypic mixing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Used to describe interactions betweeen viral proteins in doubly infected cells that result in rescue or increased yields of one or both viruses

A

Complementation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The heritable condition of possesing more than two complete sets of chromosomes

A

Polyploidy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Comprise a class of virus-coded proteins that are not required for viral replication but influence pathogenesis of infection in vitro by sabotaging the host’s innate resistence of immune response

A

Virokins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

An immune response gene which aids in the host’s resistance to viral infections

A

Ir gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Recombinant DNA technology involve molecular cloning which can be described as

A

-Insertion of foreign DNA segment into an appropriate vector in frame with appropriate upstream and downstream regulatory sequences
-The recombinant plasmid is introduced into the host cell
-The foreign DNA may be expressed and the protein it specifies may be produced in large amounts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

A virus is associated with genetic shift and drift, especially regarding envelope proteins, hemagglutinin (H) and neuramidase

A

Influenza A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

A viral strategy causes autoimmune damage because of presence of structural homoligies linear or confrontational between host and viral proteins

A

Molecular mimicry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Type of infection that is characterized by the non-demonstration of the virus except when reactivation of the disease occcurs

A

Persistent infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Type of infection characterized by non-demonstration of the virus except when reactivation of the disease occurs

A

Latent infection

43
Q

A viral strategy to evade the host defenses by establishing chronic infections in their host without killing the cell in which they replicate

A

Evasion by noncytocidal infection

44
Q

An example of viral infection\s that causes damage to the immune system, thus exacerbating the severity of disease or predisposing the host to super infection with other infectious agents (2)

A

Infectious Bursal Disease (Chickens)
AIDS (Humans)

45
Q

Type of viral infection where in the infectious virus gradually increases during a very long preclinical phase

A

Slow infection

46
Q

Aids respiratory viruses to spread along the airway

A

Cilial beating

47
Q

Two effective cleaning systems of the respiratory tract

A

Cilial beating
Mucus from Goblet cells

48
Q

Virus causing damage to the epithelium of the intestinal tract by destroying diving crypt epithelium and removing short lived villus epithelial cells

A

Parvovirus

49
Q

A part of intestinal tract that is rarely infected by viruses

A

Esophagus

50
Q

Intestinal viruses protected during passage through the stomach of young animals by the buffering action of milk

A

Coronavirus

51
Q

The capacity of virus to selectively infect cells in particular organs

A

Tropism

52
Q

Viruses that are transmitted by and replicate in arthropod vectors

A

Arboviruses

53
Q

Viruses that are transmitted via direct contact and replicate in stratified epithelia of host

A

Papillomaviruses

54
Q

Viruses that are transmitted via aerosol droplets and replicate in the cytoplasm of the host cell

A

Paramyxoviruses

55
Q

Viruses that are transmitted through rodent scratches, bites, and bodily fluids and replicate direct via viral infection of endothelial cells resulting in vascular dysfunction and shock

A

Arenaviruses

56
Q

Capacity of virus to selectively infect cells in particular organs. This depends on viral and host factors. On the cellular level, there must be an interaction between viral attachment of proteins and matching cellular receptors. Receptors of certain viruses are usually restricted to certain cell types in certain organs; only these cells can be infected. Enhancers are required for productive infection. These are short, often tandem repeated sequences of nucleotides that can regulate specific transcription. Examples: papillomavirus DNA contains enhancers that are active in-keratinocytes and only infect and replicate in these cells

A

Tropism

57
Q

Virus infection involves the Trojan Horse mechanism in its pathogenesis

A

Lentiviruses

58
Q

Mechanism of invasion done by Lentiviruses, where the virus invades the cartilage inside monocytes/macrophages that line the sinusoids of the liver. They migrate across capillary or sinusoidal walls (diapedesis)

A

Trojan Horse Mechanism

59
Q

The quantitative or relative measure of the pathogenicity of an infecting virus

A

Lethality

60
Q

The dose of virus required to cause death in 50% of animals

A

Lethal dose 50

61
Q

Virus titers can be expressed as follows (3)

A

Tissue culture infectious dose 50 (TCID5Q)
Lethal dose 50 (LD50)
Plaque forming units

62
Q

Measurement of viral transmission in a population

A

Reproduction number

63
Q

Describe live-virus vaccines

A

-Vaccines from naturally occurring attenuated viruses
-Vaccines using temperature sensitive (ts) mutants
-Vaccines using cold adapted mutants

64
Q

Example of non-replicating native antigen vaccine

A

Vaccines produced from purified naturally occurring viral proteins

65
Q

Examples of vaccines produced from inactivated whole virions

A

Rabies
FMD

66
Q

Examples of vaccines produced from purified native viral proteins

A

Influenza viruses

67
Q

Example of vaccine produced from purified naturally occurring viral proteins

A

Human hepatitis B virus

68
Q

Category of vaccines which uses purified surface antigen of the virus (HbsAg)

A

None that is of veterinary importance

69
Q

What does genetic surgery for viral vaccine development involve? (2)

A

Deletion of nonessential genes that contribute to virulence
Vaccines produced by attenuation of viruses by gene deletion of site- directed mutagenesis

70
Q

Example of vaccine that uses genetic deletion, what gene it deletes

A

Pseudorabies vaccine: thymidine kinase (TK)

71
Q

Viruses with the replicative machinery of one virus and protective antigen of another

A

Viral chimeras

72
Q

Vaccines containing antibodies produced against the antigen binding site of an antibody against a virus

A

Anti-idiotypic antibody vaccines

73
Q

Factors that affect vaccine efficacy and safety (3)

A

Genetic instability
Reverting toward virulence
Virus transmission within the population at risk

74
Q

A recombinant vaccine that is dispensed using a “gene-gun”

A

DNA vaccines

75
Q

Greatest risk in live virus vaccines

A

Contaminating virus

76
Q

Questions to consider when designing vaccination programs

A

-The number of secondary cases arising from a single primary case
-The epidemiology of the virus
-The time to vaccinate

77
Q

Factors should be considered when deciding the optimal age for vaccination: (3)

A

-Is the environment highly contaminated?
-Are there intense activities of arthropod vectors?
-Window of susceptibility

78
Q

Measures the incidence of chronic diseases; the ratio at a particular point in time of the number of cases currently present in the population divided the number of animals in the population

A

Prevalence rate

79
Q

Refers to the presence of multiple continuous chains of transmission resulting in the continuous occurrence of disease in a population over a period of time

A

Endemic diseases

80
Q

Study of determinants, dynamics and distribution of diseases in a population

A

Epidemiology

81
Q

Refers to peaks in disease incidence that exceeds the endemic baseline or expected incidence of disease.

A

Epidemic

82
Q

Disease surveillance involves

A

-Systematic and regular collection of information
-Collection and analysis of data on disease occurrence
-Detect trends of changes in the distribution of disease

83
Q

Methods of controlling disease

A

-Hygiene and sanitation
-Elimination of arthropod vectors
-Quarantine

84
Q

A laboratory diagnostic test involving direct identification of viruses

A

Detection of electron microscopy

85
Q

Diagnostic tests involving direct of viral nucleic acid

A

-Hybridization methods
-PCR

86
Q

A method involving in vitro amplification of viral DNA

A

Polymerase chain reaction

87
Q

The gold standard in viral diagnosis

A

Cell culture methods

88
Q

After virus inoculation, what are cell cultures inspected for?

A

For the development of cytopathic effect

89
Q

A technique where, during viral inoculation, when no cytopathic effect (CPE) is seen, supernatant fluid usually after freezing and thawing several times are inoculated into fresh monolayers after which CPE is observed.

A

Blind passage

90
Q

A measure of its capacity to discriminate the presence of antibody directed against one virus versus another

A

Specificity of an immunoassay

91
Q

Description of viruses under the family Popovaviridae (3)

A

-Replicates in the nucleus
-nonenveloped
-Spherical and icosahedral symmetry.

92
Q

Description of papillomaviruses (3)

A

-Produce warts in many species
-Replication is in the nucleus
-The primary lesion is in the cell of the stratum germinativum

93
Q

Where are rice grain papillomas found?

A

Teats

94
Q

Description of Bovine papillomas or warts caused by Bovine papillomavirues 1, 2 and 5

A

-They have fibrous core covered to a variable depth with stratified squamous epithelium
-Hyperkeratinized outer layers
-Vary from small firm nodules to large cauliflower like growths

95
Q

Distinct property of parvoviruses

A

Infection leads to large intranuclear inclusion bodies

96
Q

Other name for Porcine Parvovirus infection

A

SMEDI (Stillbirth, Mummification, Embryonic Death, Infertility)

97
Q

Viruses that have a preference for rapidly dividing (cycling) cells or cells in the S phase of development

A

Porcine parvovirus
Feline panleukomia virus
Canine parvovirus

98
Q

Characteristic clinical signs of canine parvovirus

A

Panleukopenia
Enteritis
Myocarditis

99
Q

Examples of virus that has hemagglutinin properties

A

Feline panleukopenia virus
Canine parvovirus
Adenovirus

100
Q

Distinct characteristic of Adenoviruses

A

Enveloped helical virion with fibers projecting from the vertices

101
Q

Diseases caused by members of Adenoviridae

A

-Infectious canine hepatitis (ICH)
-Egg drop syndrome (EDS)

102
Q

An avian disease where in the site of tropism is in the shell gland region of the oviduct resulting to soft egg shells, where the chickens are apparently healthy

A

Egg Drop Syndrome

103
Q

Largest and most complex of all viruses of vertebrate

A

Poxvirus

104
Q

A brick shaped virion which can survive for many years in dry scabs

A

Orthopoxyirus