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VTNE review > Vet Tech Prep > Flashcards

Vet Tech Prep Flashcards

1
Q

what is the maximum volume that can be injected intramuscularly in the larger muscle groups of a horse?

A

15 mL

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2
Q

what organism is verminous arteritis associated with in the horse?

A

Strongylus vulgaris

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3
Q

which parasite can infect a human by penetrating the skin and cause dermatitis via cutaneous migration?

A

Ancylostoma spp.

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4
Q

buccal

A

tooth surface that faces the cheek

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5
Q

labial

A

tooth surface that faces the lips

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6
Q

vestibular (dentistry term)

A

surface of a tooth that is directed outward toward the vestibule of the mouth which includes the buccal and labial surfaces

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7
Q

facial (dentistry term)

A

surface of the tooth visible from the front
same as vestibular surface but applies mainly to incisors

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8
Q

lingual

A

surface of the mandibular teeth that is adjacent to the tongue

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9
Q

palatal

A

surface of the maxillary teeth that is adjacent to the palate

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10
Q

mesial

A

portion of the tooth that is in line with the dental arcade and closest to the rostral midline of the dental arch

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11
Q

distal (dentistry term)

A

portion of the tooth that is in line with the dental arcade and closest to the most caudal aspect of the dental arch
opposite of mesial

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12
Q

apical

A

portion of the tooth closer to the tip of the root relative to another structure

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13
Q

coronal

A

portion of the tooth closer to the crown relative to another structure

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14
Q

why should Dexmedetomidine not be used on patients without normal heart function?

A

it can cause a significant reduction in cardiac output due to reduced heart rate

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15
Q

what would be a common laboratory change to see in parvo cases?

A

neutropenia
parvo causes vomiting and diarrhea which leads to dehydration, sepsis, fever
sepsis leads to a low neutrophil count (overwhelming infection)

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16
Q

what type of toxicity causes icterus and hemoglobinuria in sheep?

A

copper toxicity

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17
Q

anhidrosis

A

inability to sweat

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18
Q

which part of the intestine does the pancreas connect to?

A

duodenum (1st segment of intestine)
secretes digestive enzymes into intestine via pancreatic duct

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19
Q

what is the average cloacal temperature of a chicken?

A

107 F

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20
Q

what position is colic surgery most commonly performed in?

A

dorsal recumbency

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21
Q

true or false: an arthrocentesis should be a sterile procedure

A

true

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22
Q

in what species is it common to observe rouleaux formation in?

A

horses, cats, and pigs
but most common in horses

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23
Q

what should be included on every drug label?

A

Caution: federal law restricts this drug to use by the order of a licensed veterinarian

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24
Q

what is the most common early sign of lidocaine toxicity in dogs?

A

CNS depression

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25
Q

which breed most commonly has von Willebrand’s disease?

A

Doberman Pinscher

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26
Q

what is the most common cause of epistaxis in horses?

A

exercise-induced pulmonary hemorrhage

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27
Q

feline toxoplasmosis most often presents with which type of symptoms?

A

neurologic

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28
Q

what is the measurement for placement of a nasal oxygen tube?

A

measure to the medial canthus of the eye

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29
Q

why should atropine be used cautiously in horses?

A

excessive use can result in intestinal stasis (colic)

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30
Q

which test can be used to evaluate a patient for IMHA?

A

Coomb’s test

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31
Q

what is the reddish brown discharge that a bitch usually has for a few weeks after parturition called?

A

lochia

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32
Q

what is meconium?

A

the dark intestinal excretion from a newborn (“first stool”)

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33
Q

which 2 anesthetic drugs should not be drawn up into a plastic syringe and kept in a lockbox unless they are going to be used promptly?

A

Diazepam and Propofol
Propofol should not be stored at room temperature since the vehicle for Propofol is liquid emulsion that could be an excellent growth medium for bacteria
Diazepam will bind to the plastic and the proper dose will not be dispensed when injected

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34
Q

why is potassium citrate given to dogs?

A

to prevent bladder stones

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35
Q

Which hormone causes the vaginal cells of the female dog to proliferate and form cornified epithelium?

A

estrogen

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36
Q

what is the most common lead system for horse ECGs?

A

base-apex lead

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37
Q

llama gestation

A

350 days

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38
Q

horse gestation

A

330 days
11 months

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39
Q

cow gestation

A

280 days

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40
Q

sheep/goat gestation

A

150 days

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41
Q

pig gestation

A

114 days

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42
Q

dog/cat gestation

A

63 days

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43
Q

ferret gestation

A

42 days

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44
Q

why do rabbits need to be given preanesthetic drugs before using a mask or chamber to start gas agents?

A

to help prevent breath holding

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45
Q

what are the most common bone marrow collection sites?

A

dogs: humeral head, iliac crest, femoral canal
cats: humoral head
horses: sternum

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46
Q

which amino acid is critical for cats?

A

taurine

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47
Q

if a dog presents to the hospital in status epilepticus which drugs may be given?

A

propofol or valium

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48
Q

when processing fluid from a spinal tap what value may be increased when there is blood contamination?

A

nucleated cell count

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49
Q

which species has the bursa of Fabricus?

A

birds

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50
Q

what is the bursa of Fabricus?

A

an outpocketing of the cloaca
it is the site of hematopoiesis in young birds and is needed for B lymphocyte cell development

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51
Q

what type of parasite is Dipylidium caninum?

A

tapeworm

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52
Q

what is the intermediate host of tapeworms?

A

fleas

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53
Q

what is official ethics?

A

values formally adopted by organizations composed of members of that profession

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54
Q

what is the ideal age for spay/neuter?

A

5-6 months

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55
Q

what does carbon monoxide do to the blood cells?

A

displaces oxygen on hemoglobin molecules forming carboxyhemoglobin complexes which leads to tissue hypoxia

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56
Q

what is the most likely cause of bright red mucous membranes on a dog that was in a house fire?

A

carbon monoxide toxicity

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57
Q

what condition is often treated using Sulfasalazine?

A

colitis
it is a sulfonamide antibiotic

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58
Q

which suture material is not non-absorbable?
a. nylon
b. polypropylene
c. polydioxanone
d. silk

A

polydioxanone

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59
Q

which zoonotic disease is caused by Sporothrix schenckii?

A

rose gardener’s disease
cigar-shaped yeast typically found in soil in costal regions or river valleys and organism goes into skin wounds upon contact with soil

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60
Q

which species doesn’t have canine teeth?
a. pigs
b. ferrets
c. horses
d. rodents

A

rodents

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61
Q

what is the method called of collecting nematode larvae by allowing them to pass through a wire net or cheesecloth?

A

Baermann technique

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62
Q

what are normative ethics?

A

an individual’s attempt to discover what they believe to be the correct moral standard and norms for professional behavior

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63
Q

which drugs are commonly given as a CRI to hospitalized dogs in pain?

A

morphine, lidocaine, ketamine
MLK

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64
Q

what does “red bag” mean during birth in a mare?

A

protrusion of the chorioallantois and indicates premature placental separation
it’s an emergency situation where the chorioallantois needs to be broken down manually to assist in delivery of the foal

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65
Q

what can cause myositis in a horse?

A

prolonged recumbency during anesthesia

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66
Q

what should be removed during a spay of a reptile?

A

ovaries always need to be removed
oviducts shouldn’t be removed because it could cause egg binding

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67
Q

what is a normal central venous pressure reading?

A

0-10 cmH2O
blood pressure of thoracic vena cava that is helpful in monitoring hydration status

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68
Q

what do central venous pressure readings mean? (specific numbers)

A

< 0 = dehydrated
0-10 = adequate hydration
> 10 = fluid overload

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69
Q

what is minute volume?

A

the volume of air that is inspired by a patient in 1 minute
calculated by respiratory rate multiplied by tidal volume

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70
Q

which structure in the eye is responsible for focus?

A

lens
refracts light

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71
Q

which species has ovaries that look like grape clusters?

A

pigs

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72
Q

how many thoracic vertebrae do horses have?

A

18

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73
Q

how many thoracic vertebrae do dogs, cats, cows, and sheep have?

A

13

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74
Q

how many thoracic vertebrae do pigs have?

A

14-15

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75
Q

which parasite is commonly passed from a mother to her young via the transmammary route?

A

hookworms

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76
Q

you should not give a phenothiazine tranquilizer (acepromazine, chlorpromazine) to an animal with which disease?

A

epilepsy

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77
Q

where is the safest place to do an interperitoneal injection in a dog?

A

at the location of the umbilicus, 2 inches right or left of midline

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78
Q

what is stomatitis?

A

inflammation of the oral mucosal surfaces

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79
Q

what does a template bleeding time (TBT) test evaluate?

A

the functional ability of platelets to plug a minute wound

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80
Q

what do activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and prothrombin time (PT) evaluate?

A

if there are deficiencies in the coagulation factors

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81
Q

what is the diencephalon in the brain composed of?

A

the thalamus, hypothalamus, and pituitary gland

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82
Q

which drug has been associated with esophageal strictures in cats therefore a liquid preparation is preferred?

A

Doxycycline

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83
Q

what tissue is most sensitive to radiation therapy?

A

bone marrow

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84
Q

which type of urinary stone is lucent and does not typically show up on a radiograph?

A

urate and cystine

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85
Q

which test is best used to evaluate a dog with possible EPI?

A

serum trypsin-like immunoreactivity (TLI)

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86
Q

what is sodium fluoride used for?

A

mainly used as a glucose preservative
it is the preferred anticoagulant for measurement of blood glucose

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87
Q

which breed should not receive ivermectin for treating Demodex?

A

sheltie
collies, shelties, and australian shepherds are prone to having a MDR1 gene mutation that causes ivermectin toxicity

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88
Q

when is the best time to administer perioperative antibiotics?

A

within 1 hour of cut time

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89
Q

which disorder is an IV pyelogram most useful in detecting?

A

ureteral stones

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90
Q

what is an IV pyelogram?

A

an x-ray exam of the kidneys, ureters, and urinary bladder using iodinated contrast material injected IV and excreted by the kidneys
detects problems in the upper urinary tract

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91
Q

what radiology test would be helpful in detecting urethral stones?

A

a retrograde cystography

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92
Q

what type of placenta does a ruminant have?

A

cotyledonary placenta
have numerous smaller placentae instead of a single large contact area between mother and fetus

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93
Q

what does a double-contrast cystogram involve?

A

soluble positive-contrast media and air injected directly into the bladder

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94
Q

linear artifacts on a film are usually due to what?

A

grid not being centered correctly

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95
Q

which breed normally has an elevated PCV?

A

greyhounds

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96
Q

which principle will always improve radiographic image quality?

A

use the highest mA (milliampere) setting and the lowest time (s) setting possible to achieve the desired mAs

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97
Q

which type of dogs should thiopental not be used in?

A

sighthounds
they have little fat causing prolonged recoveries and greater complications with ultra-short acting barbiturates

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98
Q

what is cervical lymphadenitis?

A

swelling or abscess of the cervical lymph nodes in guinea pigs
it’s caused by Streptococcus zooepidemicus
commonly transmitted through broken oral mucosa

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99
Q

how is cervical lymphadenitis treated?

A

surgical draining and flushing of the abscess along with giving Enrofloxacin (Baytril)

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100
Q

which parasite is the most important cause of parasitic gastritis in cattle and is commonly known as the brown stomach worm?

A

Osteragia ostertagi
roundworm

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101
Q

if a dog sustains a humeral fracture which nerve would most likely be damaged?

A

radial nerve
it innervates the extensor and supinator muscles in the forelimb and provides distal sensation
most commonly injured nerve in a forelimb fracture

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102
Q

which component of a digital radiography unit has the biggest influence on image quality?

A

monitor

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103
Q

what is the definitive host for the causative agent of equine protozoal myelitis/myeloencephalitis

A

opossum

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104
Q

what is the correct order of the phases of the estrous cycle?

A

proestrus, estrus, metestrus, diestrus, anestrus

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105
Q

which drug given for diarrhea can cause stools to appear dark like melena?

A

Pepto bismol
it has bismuth subsalicylate which causes this

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106
Q

what are the 3 layers of the meninges?

A

dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater

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107
Q

what does a direct life cycle mean?

A

the parasite does not require an intermediate host

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108
Q

why is EDTA preferred over Heparin when collecting a blood sample that will be used for a differential?

A

Heparin interferes with white blood cell staining and causes white blood cell clumping

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109
Q

what is another name for the hock joint in a horse?

A

tarsocrural joint

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110
Q

which parasite can be associated with colic and respiratory disease in foals?

A

Parascaris equorum

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111
Q

what is the most common location for placement of an arterial catheter in a dog?

A

dorsal metatarsal artery

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112
Q

in the horse the condition known as Sweeney is caused by damage to what structure?

A

suprascapular nerve

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113
Q

what typically appears as hyperechoic on an ultrasound?

A

bone and gas

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114
Q

if the kidney has a drop in blood flow and a part of the kidney dies what would this area be termed?

A

infarcted
infarct = area of necrosis due to a local lack of oxygen due to a disturbance in blood flow to the area

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115
Q

what is the maximum recommended amount of blood that can be collected from a horse?

A

15-16 mL/kg

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116
Q

what are the typical signs of shock?

A

pale gums, increased heart rate, low blood pressure

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117
Q

oxidative damage to red blood cells commonly causes formation of which erythrocyte morphology?

A

Heinz bodies
they represent denatured hemoglobin caused by oxidative damage

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118
Q

when drawing blood for a fructosamine level how many hours do you need to wait after giving insulin to draw the blood?

A

doesn’t matter

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119
Q

where are microbiology materials and media stored?

A

refrigerator

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120
Q

which organism mostly produces endotoxins?

A

gram-negative bacteria

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121
Q

what is nervous tissue without myelin known as?

A

grey matter

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122
Q

true or false: white matter is myelinated

A

true

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123
Q

which of the following drugs should be handled with PPE due to being cytotoxic?
a. Metronidazole
b. Vincristine
c. Ascorbic acid
d. Sucralfate
e. Metoclopramide

A

Vincristine
chemotherapeutic agent

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124
Q

what is the end of the spinal cord called?

A

cauda equina

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125
Q

what is the most important light in a tortoise enclosure?

A

UVB light
needed to properly process and absorb calcium from the diet

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126
Q

what is the term for dental decay causing demineralization of the hard tissues of the tooth?

A

caries
condition where trapped food is fermented by bacteria forming acids that demineralize the hard tissue of the tooth

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127
Q

why are polyurethane catheters more appropriate for long-term use in horses?

A

they are the least thrombogenic
they can be left in place for more than a week

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128
Q

which ICU patient on fluids needs to be watched closely for jugular distension?
a. patient with heart murmur
b. patient with seizure history
c. patient in renal failure
d. aggressive patient

A

patient with a heart murmur
underlying cardiac disease patients are at the highest risk for pulmonary edema from fluid overload; an indication of fluid overload is jugular distension

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129
Q

how should a tibial fracture patient be positioned for surgery?

A

dorsal recumbency with affected leg temporarily hung until the patient is draped

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130
Q

what is a caudectomy?

A

tail removal

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131
Q

what is the most common feline blood type in the US?

A

type A

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132
Q

what is the best method for collecting a culture of the lower airways?

A

transtracheal wash

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133
Q

how many cervical vertebrae do cows have?

A

7

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134
Q

where is the best place for an IV catheter on a dehydrated rabbit before surgery?

A

marginal ear vein

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135
Q

where would you find an arrector pili muscle?

A

hair follicle

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136
Q

horses with laminitis should be fed what type of diet?

A

mostly grass hay

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137
Q

what is the best method of killing parvovirus?

A

bleach

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138
Q

which condition would cause the bowel to appear plicated?

A

string foreign body

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139
Q

which drug would be effective against tapeworms?

A

Praziquantel (Droncit)

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140
Q

what does pseudocyesis mean?

A

false pregnancy

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141
Q

what is the standard temperature and duration accepted for autoclaving? (Farenheit)

A

250 F for 13 minutes

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142
Q

what does pyuria mean?

A

white blood cells in the urine

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143
Q

what is the most commonly used fecal parasite testing for dogs and cats?
a. Baermann technique
b. direct smear
c. fecal cytology using H&E staining method
d. zinc sulfate centrifugation

A

zinc sulfate centrifugation

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144
Q

what is another name for herpes infection in psittacine birds?

A

Pacheco’s disease

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145
Q

what is the purpose of the condenser on the microscope?

A

to focus light on the object being viewed

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146
Q

what is the primary defense method for a pig?

A

biting

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147
Q

if a dog has a cervical disk compression causing forelimb paresis, where will the surgical incision most likely be made?

A

the ventral side of the neck

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148
Q

which type of radiograph is helpful in confirming the presence of free air or fluid if it is suspected based on survey films?

A

horizontal beam

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149
Q

what is the best way to recover Strongyloides stercoralis L1 in a fecal test?

A

Baermann technique

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150
Q

which substance should never be used for prepping the digits for a dewclaw if a laser is going to be used?

A

alcohol

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151
Q

lactose-forming bacteria such as Escherichia coli and Klebsiella appear what color on MacConkey agar?

A

pink or red

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152
Q

what does a beta-2 adrenergic agonist cause?

A

bronchodilation

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153
Q

what is the difference between rem and rad in radiation safety?

A

rem applies a quality factor to rad

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154
Q

what type of test is an FeLV snap test?

A

antigen test

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155
Q

which parasite is responsible for the transmission of Yersinia pestis?

A

Xenopsylla cheops
aka plaque or rat flea

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156
Q

which of the following drugs requires special handling because it can cause aplastic anemia in humans?
a. Chloramphenicol
b. Famotidine
c. Metronidazole
d. Phenylpropanolamine
e. Chlorpheniramine

A

Chloramphenicol

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157
Q

what color does gram negative bacteria stain?

A

pink or red

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158
Q

what does tractable mean in regards to a patient’s behavior/demeanor?

A

calm and well behaved

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158
Q

what color does gram positive bacteria stain?

A

purple

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158
Q

what type of gas is in a blue gas tank in the US?

A

nitrous oxide

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159
Q

what type of gas is found in grey gas tanks in the US?

A

carbon dioxide

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160
Q

what type of gas is found in yellow gas tanks in the US?

A

medical compressed air

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161
Q

what type of gas is found in black gas tanks in the US?

A

nitrogen

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162
Q

what type of gas is found in brown gas tanks in the US?

A

helium

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163
Q

which of the following drugs is a neuroactive steroid and general anesthetic?
a. Propofol
b. Thiopental
c. Telazol
d. Alfaxalone

A

Alfaxalone
interacts with GABA receptors to achieve its central effects

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164
Q

for which species is it most common to clip and clean the surgical site prior to anesthetic induction?

A

horse

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165
Q

the sacculus rotundus is part of the intestinal anatomy of which species?

A

rabbit

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166
Q

Novalsan is known as what?

A

Chlorhexidine
Hibiclens is the name of another chlorhexidine product

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167
Q

which toxicity is not a common concern in cattle?

A

iron toxicity

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168
Q

which urinary crystal is often found in Dalmatians only?

A

ammonium biurate

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169
Q

MRI-compatible equipment might be made of which metal?

A

aluminum

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170
Q

potassium citrate is most often given to dogs for what reason?

A

to prevent bladder stones

171
Q

what is an indicator that a spinal needle has been successfully placed into the epidural space of a horse?

A

fluid is immediately drawn in when placed on the hub of the needle

172
Q

how is a bull tested for Trichomonas foetus?

A

culture of smegma

173
Q

what is cerumen?

A

ear wax

174
Q

patients that have received prednisone chronically need to be tapered off slowly to avoid what?

A

signs of hypoadrenocorticism

175
Q

what is the most frequently observed side effect associated with acepromazine use in geldings?

A

hypotension

176
Q

which of the following parasites have a direct life cycle?
a. toxocara canis
b. fasciola hepatica
c. dirofilaria immitis
d. dipylidium canium

A

toxocara canis

177
Q

which swine disease is reportable?

A

pseudorabies

178
Q

what is true regarding the Schiff-Sherrington posture?

A

it causes paralysis of the hindlimbs
it’s an autonomic reflex that is seen when the animal is in lateral recumbency and the propriospinal tract in the T3 to L3 spinal cord is damaged and the forelimbs exhibit extensor hypertonicity; paralysis caudal to the lesion is often seen too

179
Q

what is a common cause of feline acne?

A

hypersensitivity to plastic

180
Q

what are the 3 chemical constituents of struvite crystals?

A

magnesium, ammonium, and phosphate

181
Q

what is the causative agent of “Ich” in fish?

A

Ichthyophtirius multifiliis

182
Q

which part of the brain coordinates motor activity?

A

cerebellum

183
Q

which chemotherapeutic agent has been associated with cardiotoxicity?

A

Doxorubicin

184
Q

what type of patient should Barium not be used in for an upper GI study?

A

patient with aspiration pneumonia

185
Q

what is a common drug used to treat Cushing’s?

A

Trilostane

186
Q

what clinical symptoms can Horner’s syndrome cause?

A

miosis
Horner’s syndrome can occur as a result of damage along the sympathetic trunk especially as the trunk goes through the middle ear

187
Q

traumatic reticuloperitonitis or pericarditis in cattle is known as what?

A

hardware disease

188
Q

Harderian glands are associated with which part of the anatomy?

A

eyes

189
Q

what is the average toxic dose of theobromine in dogs?

A

60-100 mg/kg

190
Q

which hormone is the trigger for ovulation and development of the corpus luteum?

A

luteinizing hormone (LH)

191
Q

how long is the estrus and gestation of mice?

A

estrus: 4-6 days
gestation: 19-21 days

192
Q

which drug may cause intense facial pruritus as a side effect?

A

Methimazole

193
Q

which of the following is not usually given postoperatively to a horse?
a. Omeprazole
b. Procaine-penicillin G
c. Banamine
d. Dexamethasone

A

Dexamethasone
steroid

194
Q

bacterial sepsis frequently causes which finding on a blood panel?

A

hypoglycemia

195
Q

what is the ideal time period to withhold food in large ruminants prior to general anesthesia?

A

24-48 hours

196
Q

what is true of a dog with polycythemia?
a. the dog has increased hematocrit
b. the dog has a low platelet count
c. the dog has an increased WBC count
d. the dog has a low RBC count

A

the dog has increased hematocrit

197
Q

what is polycythemia?

A

an increase in the absolute number of circulating RBCs

198
Q

after performing intestinal surgery what would be the consequence of an intestinal dehiscence?

A

septic abdomen

199
Q

what is the treatment for Flagyl toxicity?

A

Valium

200
Q

a fistulogram involves taking a radiograph after a contrast agent is administered into what location?

A

draining tract

201
Q

which inhalant anesthetics are the most potent?

A

drugs with low minimum alveolar concentrations (MAC)

202
Q

when conducting a food trial for a possible food allergy how long as a minimum should the trial last?

A

3 months

203
Q

what is a sarcolemma?

A

the cell membrane which encloses a muscle fiber

204
Q

what is a sacromere?

A

the contractile unit of a myofibril
repeating units located between Z lines of the muscle cells

205
Q

what is perimysium?

A

connective tissue that groups individual muscle fibers into bunches or groups

206
Q

which chemotherapy drug is contraindicated for use in cats?

A

Cisplatin
causes pulmonary toxicity
Cisplatin splats cats

207
Q

what are the components of a typical x-ray cassette in order from front to back?

A

cassette front, padding, intensifying screen, film, intensifying screen, padding, cassette back

208
Q

what type of catheter is used for total parenteral nutrition?

A

multi-lumen jugular catheter

209
Q

what should be done prior to induction and intubation in horses?

A

throughly rinse the oral cavity

210
Q

what is expected to find in a patient with hypervitaminosis D?

A

hypercalcemia
vitamin D is the building block of calcitriol which works with parathyroid hormone, calcitriol increases absorption of calcium and phosphorus from the intestines and decreases their excretion in the urine —> calcium levels in blood increase and PTH levels drop

211
Q

besides unregulated diabetes what is another cause of ketouria?

A

starvation

212
Q

where is the meibomian gland located?

A

eyelid
they secrete sebum and help prevent evaporation of the tear film

213
Q

when is activated charcoal used?

A

after emesis is induced or after a gastric lavage

214
Q

activated charcoal would be used for which of the following?
a. snail bait ingestion
b. thermal skin burns
c. fluoroscopy
d. foreign body ingestion

A

snail bait ingestion

215
Q

where do adult heartworms live?

A

pulmonary arteries

216
Q

when discussing the equine hoof which structure produces cells that become the hoof wall?

A

coronary band
hoof wall grows from the coronary band
it produces soft skin tissue similar to cuticles
if the coronary band is ever damaged the hoof may grow improperly and could cause lameness

217
Q

what is an ergot on the horse hoof?

A

small pea-sized callous on the underside of the back of the fetlocks

218
Q

Ivermectin should not be used when treating which parasite?
a. mites
b. ticks
c. trematodes
d. nematodes

A

trematodes (flukes)
Ivermectin works against ticks, mites, nematodes, lice
stimulates GABA which is an inhibitory neurotransmitter

219
Q

what is Piroxicam and what is it used for?

A

NSAID that has some anti-cancer properties against transitional cell tumors and nasal adenocarcinoma in dogs
can cause renal papillary necrosis as a side effect so only use in cases with no underlying renal issues

220
Q

what is the biting louse in dogs called?

A

Trichodectes canis

221
Q

what is the biting louse in cats called?

A

felicola subrostratus

222
Q

what is the sucking louse in cattle called?

A

Hematopinus asini

223
Q

what is the biting louse in cattle called?

A

Damalinia bovis

224
Q

Lufenuron, Fipronil, and Imidacloprid are all used to treat which parasite?

A

fleas

225
Q

which retractor would you hand the surgeon if they need to be able to retract the liver out of the way?

A

malleable retractor
they are bendable and have no sharp edges

226
Q

founder in horses refers to what?

A

inflammation of the laminae and subsequent rotation of the 3rd phalanx

227
Q

which of the following foods is toxic to parrots?
a. avocado
b. blueberries
c. cheese
d. chicken
e. Habanero peppers

A

avocado
contain persin which is toxic to parrots

228
Q

what is the causative agent of equine strangles?

A

Streptococcus equi

229
Q

how can you differentiate between a male and female tortoise?

A

the plastron is concave in males

230
Q

where would you find Anaplasma marginale?

A

erythrocytes of cattle

231
Q

what is the causative agent of pinkeye in cattle?

A

Moraxella bovis

232
Q

what is the dental formula for guinea pigs and chinchillas?

A

2(I 3/3, C 0/0, P 1/1, M 3/3)

233
Q

which drug should be monitored closely due to its potential side effects that can occur due to toxic serum levels?

A

Digoxin
has a narrow therapeutic index

234
Q

what should you do when you perform a medicated dip?

A

lubricate the dog’s eyes with protective ointment
dips can cause irritation and damage eye tissue

235
Q

what are the 4 layers of the small intestine from inside to outside?

A

mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, serosa

236
Q

which medication is considered a gastric band-aid?

A

Sucralfate
it’s a sticky paste that binds with proteins found in ulcers and adheres there like a band-aid in protection and healing

237
Q

what is the purpose of the rheostat of the light source on the microscope?

A

to adjust light intensity

238
Q

what is the minimum required height for fencing for goats?

A

6 ft

239
Q

what is the “feline parvo” virus known as?

A

panleukopenia

240
Q

what is true regarding non-screen film in comparison to screen x-ray film?

A

non-screen film is more sensitive to x-rays

241
Q

which parasite is commonly transmitted transplacentally to puppies?

A

toxocara

242
Q

what does cryptorchid mean?

A

has 1 or more testicles retained and not in the scrotum

243
Q

which of the following is an example of a gram negative bacterium?
a. pseudomonas
b. clostridium
c. streptococcus
d. staphylococcus
e. lactobacillus

A

pseudomonas

244
Q

what beta-lactamase inhibitor is added to amoxicillin to prevent the occurrence of the bacteria producing beta-lactamases that destroy or inactivate penicillins?

A

Clavulanic acid

245
Q

which material is used to record impressions or imprints of the teeth for orthodontic evaluation?

A

Alginate

246
Q

what are Gasterophilus intestinalis parasites?

A

bot fly larvae known as the stomach bot
species: G. nasalis, G. haemorrhoidalis, G. intestinalis
no CS but may lead to stomach rupture (rare)

247
Q

septic shock may cause the gums to be what color?

A

dark red

248
Q

what is an epulis?

A

a non-malignant oral tumor

249
Q

how early can a pregnancy check via ultrasound be performed in the mare?

A

14 days

250
Q

what species offspring is labeled “precocious”?

A

guinea pig

251
Q

which structure in the body is most sensitive to radiation?

A

ocular lens

252
Q

Ascaris suum

A

large roundworm of pigs
undergoes hepato-tracheal migration (egg with L2 is ingested, larvae undergo hepatic migration and molt to L3 then migrate to lungs where they are coughed up and swallowed)
they molt 2 more times and become adult roundworms in the intestine

253
Q

Stephanurus dentatus

A

swine kidney worm

254
Q

Trichuris suis

A

swine whipworm which lives in the cecum

255
Q

which medication is used to treat coccidia?

A

sulfadimethoxine

256
Q

what is the drug of choice for treating Tritrichomonas foetus in cats?

A

Ronidazole

257
Q

all of the following are protection measures intended to decrease radiation to the vet tech except what?
a. collimating the beam to the smallest aperture necessary
b. use of lead gloves with at least 0.5mm lead equivalent
c. use of filtration at the portal of the x-ray tube
d. lead glasses

A

use of filtration at the portal of the x-ray tube

258
Q

what 3 things help to minimize your exposure to radiation while taking radiographs according to the US Nuclear Regulatory Commission?

A

time, distance, shielding

259
Q

what is the common term for Psittacosis?

A

parrot fever

260
Q

what is the most likely reason for a patient to sustain a burn to the skin corresponding to the area where the electrocautery ground plate had been placed?

A

the ground plate had poor contact with the patient’s skin

261
Q

which drug can be given as a tablet into the conjunctival sac in the eye to induce vomiting?

A

Apomorphine
also has an injectable form
acts by dopamine stimulation

262
Q

what is the maximum amount of oral fluids that a horse should receive at a time?

A

6-8 L
average horse size’s stomach capacity is only about 4 gallons

263
Q

what is the intermediate host of Dipylidium caninum and is important in its transmission?

A

Ctenocephalides felis
flea

264
Q

which arrhythmia is common in horses and can be alleviated by exercise?

A

2nd degree AV block
common as a result of high vagal tone
most common in athletic horses

265
Q

how can you calculate total blood volume?

A

80 mL/kg x body weight (kg)

266
Q

which suture type is nonabsorbable and would be ideal for placing skin sutures in a laceration?

A

Ethilon

267
Q

Mulberry heart disease in swine is caused by which of the following?

A

vitamin E and selenium deficiency

268
Q

there is an enzyme in 40% of rabbits that neutralizes a common drug, what drug is not used in rabbits because of this?

A

atropine

269
Q

which types of urinary stone is lucent and does not typically show up on a radiograph?

A

urate and cystine

270
Q

culture or draining lesions of which bacteria gives a characteristic sweet smell?

A

Pseudomonas

271
Q

which of the following medications blocks the chemoreceptor trigger zone to help reduce nausea and vomiting in small animals?
a. Metoclopramide
b. Famotidine
c. Metronidazole
d. Sucralfate

A

Metoclopramide

272
Q

Trichomoniasis causes what condition in cattle?

A

abortions
caused by Trichomonas fetus which affects the reproductive tract

273
Q

which bacteria are known for causing a head tilt and neurologic symptoms in ruminants?

A

Listeria

274
Q

what does an Azostix strip test for?

A

BUN

275
Q

what tool is intended to shield the user from the primary x-ray beam?

A

collimator

276
Q

administration of which antimicrobial is most likely to result in diarrhea in the adult horse?

A

erythromycin

277
Q

what is the name of the parasite that are ticks with large spines seen in horses?

A

Otobius megini

278
Q

how long are sperm viable for?

A

7 days

279
Q

how long does SQ fluids take to absorb?

A

5-8 hours

280
Q

what does FHO stand for?

A

femoral head ostectomy
removal of the femoral head from the hip joint
done for arthritis, fractures, or disease to that hip joint

281
Q

what percentage of mammary gland tumors in the cat are malignant?

A

90%
dogs: 45-50%

282
Q

what is occurring in the x-ray machine while you are pressing the pedal down halfway?

A

anode rotates and filament is heated

283
Q

a Jamshidi needle is used for what?

A

bone marrow core biopsy

284
Q

which vessel should be avoided when performing venipuncture in pigs?

A

left jugular vein
pig blood draws are typically done on the right side to avoid the phrenic nerve in the left side neck

285
Q

which medication is used to treat coocidia?

A

Sulfadimethoxine

286
Q

what is the most common cause of flexural and angular deformities in horses?

A

abnormal development

287
Q

what clinical syndrome can result from bedding a horse on shavings made from the Black Walnut (Juglans nigra) tree?

A

laminitis

288
Q

you perform a vaginal cytology of a bitch in heat, what would you normally see?

A

mostly cornified cells

289
Q

a dog has torn his cranial cruciate ligament and is having surgery, what area should you clip and aseptically prep?

A

stifle

290
Q

what units are electrolytes measured in?

A

mEq/L

291
Q

which protein is typically much higher in plasma than in serum?

A

fibrinogen

292
Q

average minute volume in cats

A

180-380 mL/kg/min

293
Q

what maintains the membrane potential in excitable cells?

A

sodium-potassium pump

294
Q

which deficiency causes muscle spasms, drooling, and stiff gait in sheep?

A

magnesium
grass tetany

295
Q

what is a female mule called?

A

Molly

296
Q

what percentage on average of dogs and cats have periodontal disease?

A

75%

297
Q

in which part of the intestinal tract is nutrient absorption the greatest?

A

jejunum

298
Q

which material is used to record impressions or imprints of the teeth for orthodontic evaluation?

A

alginate

299
Q

stimulation of the vagus nerve results in what response?

A

slowed heart rate

300
Q

the elbow is extended by which muscle?

A

triceps brachium

301
Q

which cranial nerve controls the lateral rectus muscle of the eyes?

A

VI abducens

302
Q

which parasite is responsible for the transmission of Yersinia pestis? (scientific name)

A

Xenopsylla cheops

303
Q

what is the scabies mite in cats?

A

Notoedres cati

304
Q

where would you find a Sertoli cell tumor?

A

testicle
Sertoli cells are striated cells in the seminiferous tubules

305
Q

what toxic effect do lilies cause in cats?

A

renal failure

306
Q

which medication is often given to patients with organophosphate toxicity?

A

atropine

307
Q

which drug is used to induce emesis in cats?

A

xylazine

308
Q

for a cat with oral burns from chewing on an electrical wire what other organ system do we need to be concerned about?

A

lungs
most cats develop a non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema when electrocuted

309
Q

myositis in horses can occur as a result of what?

A

prolonged recumbency during anesthesia

310
Q

what does a positive Ortolani sign mean?

A

hip dysplasia

311
Q

how is tularemia transmitted?

A

ticks

312
Q

in horses what is the most common surgical approach to the abdominal cavity? (incision type)

A

ventral midline incision

313
Q

the hock joint of the horse is more appropriately identified as what structure?

A

tarsocrural joint

314
Q

the radiograph cassette is usually placed on the tabletop to radiograph which area in a medium-sized dog?

A

elbow

315
Q

what is an ear canal ablation procedure?

A

surgical excision and closure of the external ear canal

316
Q

the fetlock joint of the horse refers to what structure?

A

metacarpophalangeal joint

317
Q

which specific parasite is usually the cause of a positive wood’s lamp test?

A

Microsporum canis

318
Q

what is the function of the screen of an x-ray cassette?

A

to decrease the exposure necessary to create an image on the film

319
Q

what is the purpose of a Potter-Bucky diagram on an x-ray machine?

A

eliminate grid lines on the film

320
Q

which part of the brain is associated with regulation and coordination of movement, posture, and balance?

A

cerebellum

321
Q

Quinidine is used to treat which condition in horses?

A

atrial fibrillation

322
Q

what does a beta-2 adrenergic agonist cause?

A

bronchodilation

323
Q

it’s estimated that BUN and creatinine levels become elevated when what percentage of kidney function is lost?

A

75%

324
Q

keratoconjunctivitis sicca can result from the use of which medication?

A

Trimethoprim-sulfa (TMS)

325
Q

the mucin clot test can be used when evaluating which fluid type

A

synovial fluid

326
Q

in dogs which of the following are all permanent teeth with 2 roots?
a. mandibular premolar 1 and molars 2 and 3
b. maxillary premolars 2, 3, 4, and molar 1
c. maxillary molars 1 and 2
d. mandibular premolars 2, 3, 4 and molar 1

A

mandibular premolars 2, 3, 4, and molar 1

327
Q

which of the following medications should be used with caution in cats as it could cause blindness?
a. Metacam
b. Clindamycin
c. Enrofloxacin
d. Amoxicillin

A

Enrofloxacin

328
Q

how long can donated whole blood be stored in the fridge for?

A

35 days

329
Q

lincosamides are contraindicated for use in which species?

A

equine

330
Q

which medication is typically given through a filter?

A

Cefazolin

331
Q

turtles that eat iceberg lettuce may have which deficiency?

A

vitamin A

332
Q

which of these forms of chocolate contains the highest concentration of theobromine?
a. semi-sweet chocolate
b. milk chocolate
c. unsweetened baking chocolate
d. white chocolate

A

unsweetened baking chocolate

333
Q

what organ do snakes lack?

A

bladder

334
Q

which drug is used in GI hypomotility cases?
a. Metoclopramide
b. Omeprazole
c. Metroidazole
d. Famotidine

A

Metoclopramide

335
Q

which retractor is designed to hold open the abdomen?

A

Balfour retractor

336
Q

what is the most common cause of urate bladder stones in a Sulcata tortoise?

A

dehydration

337
Q

bacteria sepsis frequently causes which finding on a blood panel?

A

hypoglycemia

338
Q

what does Eimeria stiedai cause?

A

hepatic coccidiosis in rabbits

339
Q

which breed is most at risk for developing degenerative myelopathy?

A

German shepherd

340
Q

which breed most commonly gets intervertebral disk disease?

A

Dachshunds

341
Q

in a cow that is having difficulty calving and seems to have her legs splaying out from underneath her, which nerve are you most concerned about damage to?

A

obturator
adducts the hindlimbs and runs from the spinal cord into the birth canal before it innervates the inner thighs
during birthing this nerve can become crushed and cause obturator nerve paralysis

342
Q

what anatomical landmark should be used for placing a multi-lumen jugular catheter?

A

third thoracic vertebrae

343
Q

how many blood types do dogs have?

A

13

344
Q

which equine gastrointestinal parasite when deposited at an abnormal site on the skin or mm is responsible for causing the eosinophilic granulomas known as summer sores?

A

Habronema spp.
stomach worm

345
Q

which anesthetic gas would be most likely to induce a cardiac arrhthymia?

A

halothane

346
Q

because horses must retain a standing position in recovery following the use of gas anesthesia, what is the order of gas anesthetic drugs from most commonly used to least commonly used?

A

sevoflurane, halothane, isoflurane

347
Q

which neurotransmitter is associated with the sympathetic nervous system?

A

epinephrine

348
Q

which joint allows rotational movement of the head from side to side?

A

atlantoaxial

349
Q

what is the best way to administer long-term medications to the eye of a horse with a severe corneal ulcer?

A

subpalpebral lavage system

350
Q

which bacterium is gram positive?
a. campylobacter
b. salmonella
c. e. coli
d. streptococcus

A

streptococcus

351
Q

developed radiographs that appear yellow are usually due to a problem with which of the following?
a. film storage
b. developer solution
c. intensifying screen
d. fixer solution

A

fixer solution

352
Q

what is the cause of yellow-brown staining on a film?

A

incomplete washing of the film

353
Q

a purse-string suture would be placed for which of the following surgeries?
a. enterotomy
b. cystotomy
c. enucleation
d. perianal mass excision

A

perianal mass excision

354
Q

Clomipramine is a veterinary approved drug used most commonly to treat which condition?

A

separation anxiety

355
Q

which of the following instruments would be least effective at cutting or removing bone from a patient?

A

periosteal elevator

356
Q

pre-renal azotemia is most commonly caused by what?

A

dehydration

357
Q

which of the following is a classic symptom of pyometra?
a. syncope
b. increased drinking and urinating
c. hives
d. seizures

A

increased drinking and urinating

358
Q

which of the following statements is true regarding cesarean sections?
a. performing a cesarean delivery will result in decreased milk production
b. performing a spay at the time of surgery does not affect milk production
c. performing a cesarean delivery will result in the dog being unable to have another pregnancy
d. performing a spay at the time of surgery is not recommended as there is risk that the female will not display maternal instincts

A

performing a spay at the time of surgery does not affect milk production

359
Q

blood lactate is a marker of what?

A

blood perfusion and oxygen delivery to tissues

360
Q

what is the purpose of a Potter-Bucky diaphragm on a x-ray machine?

A

eliminate grid lines on the film

361
Q

the best locations to administer IM injections such as penicillin to a horse include all of the following except what?
a. semimembranosus
b. pectorals
c. epaxial muscles
d. neck muscles
e. semitendinosus

A

epaxial muscles

362
Q

broken leg with bone sticking out of the skin is which type of fracture?

A

compound

363
Q

what is the most common anticoagulant used for hematology?

A

ethylenediaminetetracetic acid (EDTA)

364
Q

average heart rate for a horse?

A

25-50 bpm

365
Q

Amphotericin B is known for the potential to cause severe damage to which organ?

A

kidneys

366
Q

the placenta supplies the fetus with oxygen via which structure?

A

umbilical vein

367
Q

which local anesthetic is used in veterinary dentistry because it can provide 3-5 hours of pain relief?

A

bupivacaine

368
Q

when collecting a sample when should the needle never be re-directed?

A

cystocentesis

369
Q

when taking a lateral radiograph of a dog where should the field be centered?

A

5th rib and caudal border of the scapula

370
Q

how do you make slides for a bone marrow aspirate?

A

place a drop on the end of the slide, tilt slightly, and pull to make a smear

371
Q

what does MRSA stand for?

A

Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus

372
Q

what can cause a false positive fecal occult blood test?

A

meat based diet

373
Q

what is the gestation of a rat?

A

21-23 days

374
Q

which species can develop dental caries?

A

rabbits and chinchillas

375
Q

what opioid normally given by injection can be given orally for sedation or analgesia?

A

buprenorphine

376
Q

what organism transmits Ehrlichia canis?

A

brown dog tick (Rhipicephalus)

377
Q

impulses are carried away from the neuronal cell body by what structure?

A

axon

378
Q

what does Eimeria stiedai cause?

A

hepatic coccidiosis in rabbits

379
Q

which cranial nerve is known for having 3 major branches?

A

CN V: trigeminal nerve
1. ophthalmic nerve: sensory to the eye socket and its contents, anterior nasal cavity, skin of nose, and forehead
2. maxillary nerve: sensory to maxilla, nasal cavity sinuses, palate, and part of the face
3. mandibular nerve: sensory fibers to lower jaw, floor of mouth, anterior 2/3 of tongue, lower teeth, and supplies motor fibers for mastication

380
Q

which region should be avoided when administering an IM injection in cattle?

A

gluteal muscle

381
Q

what is new methylene blue stain used mostly for?

A

determining morphology of cells

382
Q

what is a ranula?

A

sublingual mucocele
fluctuant swelling of connective tissue consisting of collected mucin from a ruptured salivary gland duct

383
Q

what is a UMIC?

A

urine minimum inhibitory concentration

384
Q

a UMIC would be performed on a urine sample to check for what?

A

infection and antibiotic susceptibility

385
Q

what volume can the stomach of a kitten or puppy hold on average?

A

9 mL/kg

386
Q

how long does estrus in the dog typically last?

A

4-13 days

387
Q

cattle exposed to prolonged rainy conditions are most likely to develop what?

A

dermatophilosis
aka rain rot or rain scald
caused by bacterium Dermatophilus congolensis
common skin infection during rainy seasons or damp warm weather

388
Q

ocular larval migrans is the result of what parasite?

A

toxocara canis

389
Q

what is the definitive host for the causative agent of equine protozoal myelitis/myeloencephalitis?

A

opossum

390
Q

hamster gestation period

A

15-22 days

391
Q

Mannitol Salt Agar (MSA) selects for growth of which species of organism?

A

Staphylococcus
contains a high concentration of salt which inhibits most other bacteria

392
Q

by administering Tensilon (edrophonium chloride) you are testing for what disease?

A

Myasthenia gravis
an acetylcholine receptor antibody blood test may also be used to diagnose this

393
Q

what are analytical variables?

A

things that affect the way a test might vary between laboratories
ex: variation in temperature at which an assay is performed

394
Q

before closing an exploratory surgery patient that has septic peritonitis from a perforated bowel, what does the surgeon lavage the abdomen with?

A

sterile physiologic saline

395
Q

which of the following descriptions is consistent with PPN (partial parenteral nutrition)?
a. high concentration glucose, minerals, and electrolytes
b. patient is not receiving other nutrition
c. able to administer for extended time
d. IV catheter placed in a peripheral vein

A

IV catheter placed in a peripheral vein
total parenteral nutrition would involve a catheter placed in a neck or chest vein

396
Q

chronic exposure to which hormone leads to pyometra?

A

progesterone

397
Q

antifreeze causes the most damage to which organ?

A

renal
ethylene glycol damages the renal tubular epithelium causing a build up of oxalate crystals in the renal tubules and metabolic acidosis

398
Q

which medication is typically given through a filter?

A

Mannitol
it forms crystals in solution so an in-line 5 micron IV filter or filter needle is recommended

399
Q

when a horse is placed in dorsal recumbency for surgery how much padding should be placed between the surgical table and the horse?

A

at least 6 inches

400
Q

in horses the condition known as Sweeney is caused by damage to which structure?

A

suprascapular nerve
atrophy of shoulder muscle
this nerve innervates the infraspinatus and supraspinatus muscles in the scapula

401
Q

which drug is a neuroactive steroid and general anesthetic?

A

Alfaxalone
it achieves its central effects via interactions with GABA receptors

402
Q

what is an expected finding in a patient with vitamin D toxicity?

A

hypercalcemia
vitamin D is the building block of calcitriol which works with parathyroid hormone

403
Q

what can cause type II diabetes?

A

chronic corticosteroid use, obesity, pancreatitis
occurs due to insulin resistance

404
Q

when placing craniocaudal radiographs of the stifle joint on a viewer how should the film be oriented?

A

the lateral side of the right limb should be to the viewer’s left and the lateral side of the left limb should be to the viewer’s right

405
Q

Lufenuron, Fipronil, and Imidacloprid are used to treat what?

A

fleas

406
Q

what are Dorzolamide ophthalmic drops used for and what do they do?

A

they help decrease aqueous production which lowers intraocular pressure
carbonic anhydrase inhibitor commonly used to treat glaucoma

407
Q

which anticoagulant is appropriate for collection of blood from a donor horse for a blood transfusion?

A

citrate-phosphate-dextrose adenine (CPDA)

408
Q

where on a primate’s body are they tested for tuberculosis?

A

eyelid

409
Q

the viscosity of synovial fluid is directly related to which component in the fluid?

A

hyaluronic acid
in inflammatory conditions the fluid gets thinner and the overall quality of the joint fluid decreases

410
Q

where is hyaluronic acid found in the body?

A

connective tissues, highest in joints

411
Q

which bacteria is gram positive?
a. campylobacter
b. streptococcus
c. salmonella
d. e. coli

A

streptococcus

412
Q

what does Eimeria stiedai cause?

A

hepatic coccidiosis in rabbits

413
Q

where would you find Anaplasma marginale?

A

erythrocytes of cattle

414
Q

which condition occurs least commonly in horses?
a. intestinal incarceration
b. laminitis
c. urolithiasis
d. enterolithasis

A

urolithiasis

415
Q

which part of the intestine is the largest and therefore absorbs the most nutrients?

A

jejunum

416
Q

gout is an accumulation of what?

A

uric acid

417
Q

release of what molecule from the sarcoplasmic reticulum ultimately helps to achieve muscle contraction?

A

calcium

418
Q

which plant is Pyrethrin derived or extracted from?

A

Chrysanthemum

419
Q

what is the term to describe the wearing down of teeth by tooth-on-tooth contact during mastication?

A

attrition

420
Q

what is the dental formula for guinea pigs and chinchillas?

A

2(I 1/1, C 0/0, P1/1, M 3/3) = 20

421
Q

what is the purpose of the rheostat of the light source on a microscope?

A

to adjust light intensity

422
Q

what is the average toxic dose of theobromine in dogs?

A

60-100 mg/kg

422
Q

which species besides guinea pigs require vitamin C in their diet because they can’t synthesize it?

A

primates

423
Q

potassium citrate is most often given to dogs for what reason?

A

to prevent bladder stones

424
Q

which drug type is inappropriate to inject into the epidural space?

A

antibiotics

425
Q
A

VTNE review (18 decks)

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