Vet Tech Prep Flashcards
what is the maximum volume that can be injected intramuscularly in the larger muscle groups of a horse?
15 mL
what organism is verminous arteritis associated with in the horse?
Strongylus vulgaris
which parasite can infect a human by penetrating the skin and cause dermatitis via cutaneous migration?
Ancylostoma spp.
buccal
tooth surface that faces the cheek
labial
tooth surface that faces the lips
vestibular (dentistry term)
surface of a tooth that is directed outward toward the vestibule of the mouth which includes the buccal and labial surfaces
facial (dentistry term)
surface of the tooth visible from the front
same as vestibular surface but applies mainly to incisors
lingual
surface of the mandibular teeth that is adjacent to the tongue
palatal
surface of the maxillary teeth that is adjacent to the palate
mesial
portion of the tooth that is in line with the dental arcade and closest to the rostral midline of the dental arch
distal (dentistry term)
portion of the tooth that is in line with the dental arcade and closest to the most caudal aspect of the dental arch
opposite of mesial
apical
portion of the tooth closer to the tip of the root relative to another structure
coronal
portion of the tooth closer to the crown relative to another structure
why should Dexmedetomidine not be used on patients without normal heart function?
it can cause a significant reduction in cardiac output due to reduced heart rate
what would be a common laboratory change to see in parvo cases?
neutropenia
parvo causes vomiting and diarrhea which leads to dehydration, sepsis, fever
sepsis leads to a low neutrophil count (overwhelming infection)
what type of toxicity causes icterus and hemoglobinuria in sheep?
copper toxicity
anhidrosis
inability to sweat
which part of the intestine does the pancreas connect to?
duodenum (1st segment of intestine)
secretes digestive enzymes into intestine via pancreatic duct
what is the average cloacal temperature of a chicken?
107 F
what position is colic surgery most commonly performed in?
dorsal recumbency
true or false: an arthrocentesis should be a sterile procedure
true
in what species is it common to observe rouleaux formation in?
horses, cats, and pigs
but most common in horses
what should be included on every drug label?
Caution: federal law restricts this drug to use by the order of a licensed veterinarian
what is the most common early sign of lidocaine toxicity in dogs?
CNS depression
which breed most commonly has von Willebrand’s disease?
Doberman Pinscher
what is the most common cause of epistaxis in horses?
exercise-induced pulmonary hemorrhage
feline toxoplasmosis most often presents with which type of symptoms?
neurologic
what is the measurement for placement of a nasal oxygen tube?
measure to the medial canthus of the eye
why should atropine be used cautiously in horses?
excessive use can result in intestinal stasis (colic)
which test can be used to evaluate a patient for IMHA?
Coomb’s test
what is the reddish brown discharge that a bitch usually has for a few weeks after parturition called?
lochia
what is meconium?
the dark intestinal excretion from a newborn (“first stool”)
which 2 anesthetic drugs should not be drawn up into a plastic syringe and kept in a lockbox unless they are going to be used promptly?
Diazepam and Propofol
Propofol should not be stored at room temperature since the vehicle for Propofol is liquid emulsion that could be an excellent growth medium for bacteria
Diazepam will bind to the plastic and the proper dose will not be dispensed when injected
why is potassium citrate given to dogs?
to prevent bladder stones
Which hormone causes the vaginal cells of the female dog to proliferate and form cornified epithelium?
estrogen
what is the most common lead system for horse ECGs?
base-apex lead
llama gestation
350 days
horse gestation
330 days
11 months
cow gestation
280 days
sheep/goat gestation
150 days
pig gestation
114 days
dog/cat gestation
63 days
ferret gestation
42 days
why do rabbits need to be given preanesthetic drugs before using a mask or chamber to start gas agents?
to help prevent breath holding
what are the most common bone marrow collection sites?
dogs: humeral head, iliac crest, femoral canal
cats: humoral head
horses: sternum
which amino acid is critical for cats?
taurine
if a dog presents to the hospital in status epilepticus which drugs may be given?
propofol or valium
when processing fluid from a spinal tap what value may be increased when there is blood contamination?
nucleated cell count
which species has the bursa of Fabricus?
birds
what is the bursa of Fabricus?
an outpocketing of the cloaca
it is the site of hematopoiesis in young birds and is needed for B lymphocyte cell development
what type of parasite is Dipylidium caninum?
tapeworm
what is the intermediate host of tapeworms?
fleas
what is official ethics?
values formally adopted by organizations composed of members of that profession
what is the ideal age for spay/neuter?
5-6 months
what does carbon monoxide do to the blood cells?
displaces oxygen on hemoglobin molecules forming carboxyhemoglobin complexes which leads to tissue hypoxia
what is the most likely cause of bright red mucous membranes on a dog that was in a house fire?
carbon monoxide toxicity
what condition is often treated using Sulfasalazine?
colitis
it is a sulfonamide antibiotic
which suture material is not non-absorbable?
a. nylon
b. polypropylene
c. polydioxanone
d. silk
polydioxanone
which zoonotic disease is caused by Sporothrix schenckii?
rose gardener’s disease
cigar-shaped yeast typically found in soil in costal regions or river valleys and organism goes into skin wounds upon contact with soil
which species doesn’t have canine teeth?
a. pigs
b. ferrets
c. horses
d. rodents
rodents
what is the method called of collecting nematode larvae by allowing them to pass through a wire net or cheesecloth?
Baermann technique
what are normative ethics?
an individual’s attempt to discover what they believe to be the correct moral standard and norms for professional behavior
which drugs are commonly given as a CRI to hospitalized dogs in pain?
morphine, lidocaine, ketamine
MLK
what does “red bag” mean during birth in a mare?
protrusion of the chorioallantois and indicates premature placental separation
it’s an emergency situation where the chorioallantois needs to be broken down manually to assist in delivery of the foal
what can cause myositis in a horse?
prolonged recumbency during anesthesia
what should be removed during a spay of a reptile?
ovaries always need to be removed
oviducts shouldn’t be removed because it could cause egg binding
what is a normal central venous pressure reading?
0-10 cmH2O
blood pressure of thoracic vena cava that is helpful in monitoring hydration status
what do central venous pressure readings mean? (specific numbers)
< 0 = dehydrated
0-10 = adequate hydration
> 10 = fluid overload
what is minute volume?
the volume of air that is inspired by a patient in 1 minute
calculated by respiratory rate multiplied by tidal volume
which structure in the eye is responsible for focus?
lens
refracts light
which species has ovaries that look like grape clusters?
pigs
how many thoracic vertebrae do horses have?
18
how many thoracic vertebrae do dogs, cats, cows, and sheep have?
13
how many thoracic vertebrae do pigs have?
14-15
which parasite is commonly passed from a mother to her young via the transmammary route?
hookworms
you should not give a phenothiazine tranquilizer (acepromazine, chlorpromazine) to an animal with which disease?
epilepsy
where is the safest place to do an interperitoneal injection in a dog?
at the location of the umbilicus, 2 inches right or left of midline
what is stomatitis?
inflammation of the oral mucosal surfaces
what does a template bleeding time (TBT) test evaluate?
the functional ability of platelets to plug a minute wound
what do activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and prothrombin time (PT) evaluate?
if there are deficiencies in the coagulation factors
what is the diencephalon in the brain composed of?
the thalamus, hypothalamus, and pituitary gland
which drug has been associated with esophageal strictures in cats therefore a liquid preparation is preferred?
Doxycycline
what tissue is most sensitive to radiation therapy?
bone marrow
which type of urinary stone is lucent and does not typically show up on a radiograph?
urate and cystine
which test is best used to evaluate a dog with possible EPI?
serum trypsin-like immunoreactivity (TLI)
what is sodium fluoride used for?
mainly used as a glucose preservative
it is the preferred anticoagulant for measurement of blood glucose
which breed should not receive ivermectin for treating Demodex?
sheltie
collies, shelties, and australian shepherds are prone to having a MDR1 gene mutation that causes ivermectin toxicity
when is the best time to administer perioperative antibiotics?
within 1 hour of cut time
which disorder is an IV pyelogram most useful in detecting?
ureteral stones
what is an IV pyelogram?
an x-ray exam of the kidneys, ureters, and urinary bladder using iodinated contrast material injected IV and excreted by the kidneys
detects problems in the upper urinary tract
what radiology test would be helpful in detecting urethral stones?
a retrograde cystography
what type of placenta does a ruminant have?
cotyledonary placenta
have numerous smaller placentae instead of a single large contact area between mother and fetus
what does a double-contrast cystogram involve?
soluble positive-contrast media and air injected directly into the bladder
linear artifacts on a film are usually due to what?
grid not being centered correctly
which breed normally has an elevated PCV?
greyhounds
which principle will always improve radiographic image quality?
use the highest mA (milliampere) setting and the lowest time (s) setting possible to achieve the desired mAs
which type of dogs should thiopental not be used in?
sighthounds
they have little fat causing prolonged recoveries and greater complications with ultra-short acting barbiturates
what is cervical lymphadenitis?
swelling or abscess of the cervical lymph nodes in guinea pigs
it’s caused by Streptococcus zooepidemicus
commonly transmitted through broken oral mucosa
how is cervical lymphadenitis treated?
surgical draining and flushing of the abscess along with giving Enrofloxacin (Baytril)
which parasite is the most important cause of parasitic gastritis in cattle and is commonly known as the brown stomach worm?
Osteragia ostertagi
roundworm
if a dog sustains a humeral fracture which nerve would most likely be damaged?
radial nerve
it innervates the extensor and supinator muscles in the forelimb and provides distal sensation
most commonly injured nerve in a forelimb fracture
which component of a digital radiography unit has the biggest influence on image quality?
monitor
what is the definitive host for the causative agent of equine protozoal myelitis/myeloencephalitis
opossum
what is the correct order of the phases of the estrous cycle?
proestrus, estrus, metestrus, diestrus, anestrus
which drug given for diarrhea can cause stools to appear dark like melena?
Pepto bismol
it has bismuth subsalicylate which causes this
what are the 3 layers of the meninges?
dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater
what does a direct life cycle mean?
the parasite does not require an intermediate host
why is EDTA preferred over Heparin when collecting a blood sample that will be used for a differential?
Heparin interferes with white blood cell staining and causes white blood cell clumping
what is another name for the hock joint in a horse?
tarsocrural joint
which parasite can be associated with colic and respiratory disease in foals?
Parascaris equorum
what is the most common location for placement of an arterial catheter in a dog?
dorsal metatarsal artery
in the horse the condition known as Sweeney is caused by damage to what structure?
suprascapular nerve
what typically appears as hyperechoic on an ultrasound?
bone and gas
if the kidney has a drop in blood flow and a part of the kidney dies what would this area be termed?
infarcted
infarct = area of necrosis due to a local lack of oxygen due to a disturbance in blood flow to the area
what is the maximum recommended amount of blood that can be collected from a horse?
15-16 mL/kg
what are the typical signs of shock?
pale gums, increased heart rate, low blood pressure
oxidative damage to red blood cells commonly causes formation of which erythrocyte morphology?
Heinz bodies
they represent denatured hemoglobin caused by oxidative damage
when drawing blood for a fructosamine level how many hours do you need to wait after giving insulin to draw the blood?
doesn’t matter
where are microbiology materials and media stored?
refrigerator
which organism mostly produces endotoxins?
gram-negative bacteria
what is nervous tissue without myelin known as?
grey matter
true or false: white matter is myelinated
true
which of the following drugs should be handled with PPE due to being cytotoxic?
a. Metronidazole
b. Vincristine
c. Ascorbic acid
d. Sucralfate
e. Metoclopramide
Vincristine
chemotherapeutic agent
what is the end of the spinal cord called?
cauda equina
what is the most important light in a tortoise enclosure?
UVB light
needed to properly process and absorb calcium from the diet
what is the term for dental decay causing demineralization of the hard tissues of the tooth?
caries
condition where trapped food is fermented by bacteria forming acids that demineralize the hard tissue of the tooth
why are polyurethane catheters more appropriate for long-term use in horses?
they are the least thrombogenic
they can be left in place for more than a week
which ICU patient on fluids needs to be watched closely for jugular distension?
a. patient with heart murmur
b. patient with seizure history
c. patient in renal failure
d. aggressive patient
patient with a heart murmur
underlying cardiac disease patients are at the highest risk for pulmonary edema from fluid overload; an indication of fluid overload is jugular distension
how should a tibial fracture patient be positioned for surgery?
dorsal recumbency with affected leg temporarily hung until the patient is draped
what is a caudectomy?
tail removal
what is the most common feline blood type in the US?
type A
what is the best method for collecting a culture of the lower airways?
transtracheal wash
how many cervical vertebrae do cows have?
7
where is the best place for an IV catheter on a dehydrated rabbit before surgery?
marginal ear vein
where would you find an arrector pili muscle?
hair follicle
horses with laminitis should be fed what type of diet?
mostly grass hay
what is the best method of killing parvovirus?
bleach
which condition would cause the bowel to appear plicated?
string foreign body
which drug would be effective against tapeworms?
Praziquantel (Droncit)
what does pseudocyesis mean?
false pregnancy
what is the standard temperature and duration accepted for autoclaving? (Farenheit)
250 F for 13 minutes
what does pyuria mean?
white blood cells in the urine
what is the most commonly used fecal parasite testing for dogs and cats?
a. Baermann technique
b. direct smear
c. fecal cytology using H&E staining method
d. zinc sulfate centrifugation
zinc sulfate centrifugation
what is another name for herpes infection in psittacine birds?
Pacheco’s disease
what is the purpose of the condenser on the microscope?
to focus light on the object being viewed
what is the primary defense method for a pig?
biting
if a dog has a cervical disk compression causing forelimb paresis, where will the surgical incision most likely be made?
the ventral side of the neck
which type of radiograph is helpful in confirming the presence of free air or fluid if it is suspected based on survey films?
horizontal beam
what is the best way to recover Strongyloides stercoralis L1 in a fecal test?
Baermann technique
which substance should never be used for prepping the digits for a dewclaw if a laser is going to be used?
alcohol
lactose-forming bacteria such as Escherichia coli and Klebsiella appear what color on MacConkey agar?
pink or red
what does a beta-2 adrenergic agonist cause?
bronchodilation
what is the difference between rem and rad in radiation safety?
rem applies a quality factor to rad
what type of test is an FeLV snap test?
antigen test
which parasite is responsible for the transmission of Yersinia pestis?
Xenopsylla cheops
aka plaque or rat flea
which of the following drugs requires special handling because it can cause aplastic anemia in humans?
a. Chloramphenicol
b. Famotidine
c. Metronidazole
d. Phenylpropanolamine
e. Chlorpheniramine
Chloramphenicol
what color does gram negative bacteria stain?
pink or red
what does tractable mean in regards to a patient’s behavior/demeanor?
calm and well behaved
what color does gram positive bacteria stain?
purple
what type of gas is in a blue gas tank in the US?
nitrous oxide
what type of gas is found in grey gas tanks in the US?
carbon dioxide
what type of gas is found in yellow gas tanks in the US?
medical compressed air
what type of gas is found in black gas tanks in the US?
nitrogen
what type of gas is found in brown gas tanks in the US?
helium
which of the following drugs is a neuroactive steroid and general anesthetic?
a. Propofol
b. Thiopental
c. Telazol
d. Alfaxalone
Alfaxalone
interacts with GABA receptors to achieve its central effects
for which species is it most common to clip and clean the surgical site prior to anesthetic induction?
horse
the sacculus rotundus is part of the intestinal anatomy of which species?
rabbit
Novalsan is known as what?
Chlorhexidine
Hibiclens is the name of another chlorhexidine product
which toxicity is not a common concern in cattle?
iron toxicity
which urinary crystal is often found in Dalmatians only?
ammonium biurate
MRI-compatible equipment might be made of which metal?
aluminum
potassium citrate is most often given to dogs for what reason?
to prevent bladder stones
what is an indicator that a spinal needle has been successfully placed into the epidural space of a horse?
fluid is immediately drawn in when placed on the hub of the needle
how is a bull tested for Trichomonas foetus?
culture of smegma
what is cerumen?
ear wax
patients that have received prednisone chronically need to be tapered off slowly to avoid what?
signs of hypoadrenocorticism
what is the most frequently observed side effect associated with acepromazine use in geldings?
hypotension
which of the following parasites have a direct life cycle?
a. toxocara canis
b. fasciola hepatica
c. dirofilaria immitis
d. dipylidium canium
toxocara canis
which swine disease is reportable?
pseudorabies
what is true regarding the Schiff-Sherrington posture?
it causes paralysis of the hindlimbs
it’s an autonomic reflex that is seen when the animal is in lateral recumbency and the propriospinal tract in the T3 to L3 spinal cord is damaged and the forelimbs exhibit extensor hypertonicity; paralysis caudal to the lesion is often seen too
what is a common cause of feline acne?
hypersensitivity to plastic
what are the 3 chemical constituents of struvite crystals?
magnesium, ammonium, and phosphate
what is the causative agent of “Ich” in fish?
Ichthyophtirius multifiliis
which part of the brain coordinates motor activity?
cerebellum
which chemotherapeutic agent has been associated with cardiotoxicity?
Doxorubicin
what type of patient should Barium not be used in for an upper GI study?
patient with aspiration pneumonia
what is a common drug used to treat Cushing’s?
Trilostane
what clinical symptoms can Horner’s syndrome cause?
miosis
Horner’s syndrome can occur as a result of damage along the sympathetic trunk especially as the trunk goes through the middle ear
traumatic reticuloperitonitis or pericarditis in cattle is known as what?
hardware disease
Harderian glands are associated with which part of the anatomy?
eyes
what is the average toxic dose of theobromine in dogs?
60-100 mg/kg
which hormone is the trigger for ovulation and development of the corpus luteum?
luteinizing hormone (LH)
how long is the estrus and gestation of mice?
estrus: 4-6 days
gestation: 19-21 days
which drug may cause intense facial pruritus as a side effect?
Methimazole
which of the following is not usually given postoperatively to a horse?
a. Omeprazole
b. Procaine-penicillin G
c. Banamine
d. Dexamethasone
Dexamethasone
steroid
bacterial sepsis frequently causes which finding on a blood panel?
hypoglycemia
what is the ideal time period to withhold food in large ruminants prior to general anesthesia?
24-48 hours
what is true of a dog with polycythemia?
a. the dog has increased hematocrit
b. the dog has a low platelet count
c. the dog has an increased WBC count
d. the dog has a low RBC count
the dog has increased hematocrit
what is polycythemia?
an increase in the absolute number of circulating RBCs
after performing intestinal surgery what would be the consequence of an intestinal dehiscence?
septic abdomen
what is the treatment for Flagyl toxicity?
Valium
a fistulogram involves taking a radiograph after a contrast agent is administered into what location?
draining tract
which inhalant anesthetics are the most potent?
drugs with low minimum alveolar concentrations (MAC)
when conducting a food trial for a possible food allergy how long as a minimum should the trial last?
3 months
what is a sarcolemma?
the cell membrane which encloses a muscle fiber
what is a sacromere?
the contractile unit of a myofibril
repeating units located between Z lines of the muscle cells
what is perimysium?
connective tissue that groups individual muscle fibers into bunches or groups
which chemotherapy drug is contraindicated for use in cats?
Cisplatin
causes pulmonary toxicity
Cisplatin splats cats
what are the components of a typical x-ray cassette in order from front to back?
cassette front, padding, intensifying screen, film, intensifying screen, padding, cassette back
what type of catheter is used for total parenteral nutrition?
multi-lumen jugular catheter
what should be done prior to induction and intubation in horses?
throughly rinse the oral cavity
what is expected to find in a patient with hypervitaminosis D?
hypercalcemia
vitamin D is the building block of calcitriol which works with parathyroid hormone, calcitriol increases absorption of calcium and phosphorus from the intestines and decreases their excretion in the urine —> calcium levels in blood increase and PTH levels drop
besides unregulated diabetes what is another cause of ketouria?
starvation
where is the meibomian gland located?
eyelid
they secrete sebum and help prevent evaporation of the tear film
when is activated charcoal used?
after emesis is induced or after a gastric lavage
activated charcoal would be used for which of the following?
a. snail bait ingestion
b. thermal skin burns
c. fluoroscopy
d. foreign body ingestion
snail bait ingestion
where do adult heartworms live?
pulmonary arteries
when discussing the equine hoof which structure produces cells that become the hoof wall?
coronary band
hoof wall grows from the coronary band
it produces soft skin tissue similar to cuticles
if the coronary band is ever damaged the hoof may grow improperly and could cause lameness
what is an ergot on the horse hoof?
small pea-sized callous on the underside of the back of the fetlocks
Ivermectin should not be used when treating which parasite?
a. mites
b. ticks
c. trematodes
d. nematodes
trematodes (flukes)
Ivermectin works against ticks, mites, nematodes, lice
stimulates GABA which is an inhibitory neurotransmitter
what is Piroxicam and what is it used for?
NSAID that has some anti-cancer properties against transitional cell tumors and nasal adenocarcinoma in dogs
can cause renal papillary necrosis as a side effect so only use in cases with no underlying renal issues
what is the biting louse in dogs called?
Trichodectes canis
what is the biting louse in cats called?
felicola subrostratus
what is the sucking louse in cattle called?
Hematopinus asini
what is the biting louse in cattle called?
Damalinia bovis
Lufenuron, Fipronil, and Imidacloprid are all used to treat which parasite?
fleas
which retractor would you hand the surgeon if they need to be able to retract the liver out of the way?
malleable retractor
they are bendable and have no sharp edges
founder in horses refers to what?
inflammation of the laminae and subsequent rotation of the 3rd phalanx
which of the following foods is toxic to parrots?
a. avocado
b. blueberries
c. cheese
d. chicken
e. Habanero peppers
avocado
contain persin which is toxic to parrots
what is the causative agent of equine strangles?
Streptococcus equi
how can you differentiate between a male and female tortoise?
the plastron is concave in males
where would you find Anaplasma marginale?
erythrocytes of cattle
what is the causative agent of pinkeye in cattle?
Moraxella bovis
what is the dental formula for guinea pigs and chinchillas?
2(I 3/3, C 0/0, P 1/1, M 3/3)
which drug should be monitored closely due to its potential side effects that can occur due to toxic serum levels?
Digoxin
has a narrow therapeutic index
what should you do when you perform a medicated dip?
lubricate the dog’s eyes with protective ointment
dips can cause irritation and damage eye tissue
what are the 4 layers of the small intestine from inside to outside?
mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, serosa
which medication is considered a gastric band-aid?
Sucralfate
it’s a sticky paste that binds with proteins found in ulcers and adheres there like a band-aid in protection and healing
what is the purpose of the rheostat of the light source on the microscope?
to adjust light intensity
what is the minimum required height for fencing for goats?
6 ft
what is the “feline parvo” virus known as?
panleukopenia
what is true regarding non-screen film in comparison to screen x-ray film?
non-screen film is more sensitive to x-rays
which parasite is commonly transmitted transplacentally to puppies?
toxocara
what does cryptorchid mean?
has 1 or more testicles retained and not in the scrotum
which of the following is an example of a gram negative bacterium?
a. pseudomonas
b. clostridium
c. streptococcus
d. staphylococcus
e. lactobacillus
pseudomonas
what beta-lactamase inhibitor is added to amoxicillin to prevent the occurrence of the bacteria producing beta-lactamases that destroy or inactivate penicillins?
Clavulanic acid
which material is used to record impressions or imprints of the teeth for orthodontic evaluation?
Alginate
what are Gasterophilus intestinalis parasites?
bot fly larvae known as the stomach bot
species: G. nasalis, G. haemorrhoidalis, G. intestinalis
no CS but may lead to stomach rupture (rare)
septic shock may cause the gums to be what color?
dark red
what is an epulis?
a non-malignant oral tumor
how early can a pregnancy check via ultrasound be performed in the mare?
14 days
what species offspring is labeled “precocious”?
guinea pig
which structure in the body is most sensitive to radiation?
ocular lens
Ascaris suum
large roundworm of pigs
undergoes hepato-tracheal migration (egg with L2 is ingested, larvae undergo hepatic migration and molt to L3 then migrate to lungs where they are coughed up and swallowed)
they molt 2 more times and become adult roundworms in the intestine
Stephanurus dentatus
swine kidney worm
Trichuris suis
swine whipworm which lives in the cecum
which medication is used to treat coccidia?
sulfadimethoxine
what is the drug of choice for treating Tritrichomonas foetus in cats?
Ronidazole
all of the following are protection measures intended to decrease radiation to the vet tech except what?
a. collimating the beam to the smallest aperture necessary
b. use of lead gloves with at least 0.5mm lead equivalent
c. use of filtration at the portal of the x-ray tube
d. lead glasses
use of filtration at the portal of the x-ray tube
what 3 things help to minimize your exposure to radiation while taking radiographs according to the US Nuclear Regulatory Commission?
time, distance, shielding
what is the common term for Psittacosis?
parrot fever
what is the most likely reason for a patient to sustain a burn to the skin corresponding to the area where the electrocautery ground plate had been placed?
the ground plate had poor contact with the patient’s skin
which drug can be given as a tablet into the conjunctival sac in the eye to induce vomiting?
Apomorphine
also has an injectable form
acts by dopamine stimulation
what is the maximum amount of oral fluids that a horse should receive at a time?
6-8 L
average horse size’s stomach capacity is only about 4 gallons
what is the intermediate host of Dipylidium caninum and is important in its transmission?
Ctenocephalides felis
flea
which arrhythmia is common in horses and can be alleviated by exercise?
2nd degree AV block
common as a result of high vagal tone
most common in athletic horses
how can you calculate total blood volume?
80 mL/kg x body weight (kg)
which suture type is nonabsorbable and would be ideal for placing skin sutures in a laceration?
Ethilon
Mulberry heart disease in swine is caused by which of the following?
vitamin E and selenium deficiency
there is an enzyme in 40% of rabbits that neutralizes a common drug, what drug is not used in rabbits because of this?
atropine
which types of urinary stone is lucent and does not typically show up on a radiograph?
urate and cystine
culture or draining lesions of which bacteria gives a characteristic sweet smell?
Pseudomonas
which of the following medications blocks the chemoreceptor trigger zone to help reduce nausea and vomiting in small animals?
a. Metoclopramide
b. Famotidine
c. Metronidazole
d. Sucralfate
Metoclopramide
Trichomoniasis causes what condition in cattle?
abortions
caused by Trichomonas fetus which affects the reproductive tract
which bacteria are known for causing a head tilt and neurologic symptoms in ruminants?
Listeria
what does an Azostix strip test for?
BUN
what tool is intended to shield the user from the primary x-ray beam?
collimator
administration of which antimicrobial is most likely to result in diarrhea in the adult horse?
erythromycin
what is the name of the parasite that are ticks with large spines seen in horses?
Otobius megini
how long are sperm viable for?
7 days
how long does SQ fluids take to absorb?
5-8 hours
what does FHO stand for?
femoral head ostectomy
removal of the femoral head from the hip joint
done for arthritis, fractures, or disease to that hip joint
what percentage of mammary gland tumors in the cat are malignant?
90%
dogs: 45-50%
what is occurring in the x-ray machine while you are pressing the pedal down halfway?
anode rotates and filament is heated
a Jamshidi needle is used for what?
bone marrow core biopsy
which vessel should be avoided when performing venipuncture in pigs?
left jugular vein
pig blood draws are typically done on the right side to avoid the phrenic nerve in the left side neck
which medication is used to treat coocidia?
Sulfadimethoxine
what is the most common cause of flexural and angular deformities in horses?
abnormal development
what clinical syndrome can result from bedding a horse on shavings made from the Black Walnut (Juglans nigra) tree?
laminitis
you perform a vaginal cytology of a bitch in heat, what would you normally see?
mostly cornified cells
a dog has torn his cranial cruciate ligament and is having surgery, what area should you clip and aseptically prep?
stifle
what units are electrolytes measured in?
mEq/L
which protein is typically much higher in plasma than in serum?
fibrinogen
average minute volume in cats
180-380 mL/kg/min
what maintains the membrane potential in excitable cells?
sodium-potassium pump
which deficiency causes muscle spasms, drooling, and stiff gait in sheep?
magnesium
grass tetany
what is a female mule called?
Molly
what percentage on average of dogs and cats have periodontal disease?
75%
in which part of the intestinal tract is nutrient absorption the greatest?
jejunum
which material is used to record impressions or imprints of the teeth for orthodontic evaluation?
alginate
stimulation of the vagus nerve results in what response?
slowed heart rate
the elbow is extended by which muscle?
triceps brachium
which cranial nerve controls the lateral rectus muscle of the eyes?
VI abducens
which parasite is responsible for the transmission of Yersinia pestis? (scientific name)
Xenopsylla cheops
what is the scabies mite in cats?
Notoedres cati
where would you find a Sertoli cell tumor?
testicle
Sertoli cells are striated cells in the seminiferous tubules
what toxic effect do lilies cause in cats?
renal failure
which medication is often given to patients with organophosphate toxicity?
atropine
which drug is used to induce emesis in cats?
xylazine
for a cat with oral burns from chewing on an electrical wire what other organ system do we need to be concerned about?
lungs
most cats develop a non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema when electrocuted
myositis in horses can occur as a result of what?
prolonged recumbency during anesthesia
what does a positive Ortolani sign mean?
hip dysplasia
how is tularemia transmitted?
ticks
in horses what is the most common surgical approach to the abdominal cavity? (incision type)
ventral midline incision
the hock joint of the horse is more appropriately identified as what structure?
tarsocrural joint
the radiograph cassette is usually placed on the tabletop to radiograph which area in a medium-sized dog?
elbow
what is an ear canal ablation procedure?
surgical excision and closure of the external ear canal
the fetlock joint of the horse refers to what structure?
metacarpophalangeal joint
which specific parasite is usually the cause of a positive wood’s lamp test?
Microsporum canis
what is the function of the screen of an x-ray cassette?
to decrease the exposure necessary to create an image on the film
what is the purpose of a Potter-Bucky diagram on an x-ray machine?
eliminate grid lines on the film
which part of the brain is associated with regulation and coordination of movement, posture, and balance?
cerebellum
Quinidine is used to treat which condition in horses?
atrial fibrillation
what does a beta-2 adrenergic agonist cause?
bronchodilation
it’s estimated that BUN and creatinine levels become elevated when what percentage of kidney function is lost?
75%
keratoconjunctivitis sicca can result from the use of which medication?
Trimethoprim-sulfa (TMS)
the mucin clot test can be used when evaluating which fluid type
synovial fluid
in dogs which of the following are all permanent teeth with 2 roots?
a. mandibular premolar 1 and molars 2 and 3
b. maxillary premolars 2, 3, 4, and molar 1
c. maxillary molars 1 and 2
d. mandibular premolars 2, 3, 4 and molar 1
mandibular premolars 2, 3, 4, and molar 1
which of the following medications should be used with caution in cats as it could cause blindness?
a. Metacam
b. Clindamycin
c. Enrofloxacin
d. Amoxicillin
Enrofloxacin
how long can donated whole blood be stored in the fridge for?
35 days
lincosamides are contraindicated for use in which species?
equine
which medication is typically given through a filter?
Cefazolin
turtles that eat iceberg lettuce may have which deficiency?
vitamin A
which of these forms of chocolate contains the highest concentration of theobromine?
a. semi-sweet chocolate
b. milk chocolate
c. unsweetened baking chocolate
d. white chocolate
unsweetened baking chocolate
what organ do snakes lack?
bladder
which drug is used in GI hypomotility cases?
a. Metoclopramide
b. Omeprazole
c. Metroidazole
d. Famotidine
Metoclopramide
which retractor is designed to hold open the abdomen?
Balfour retractor
what is the most common cause of urate bladder stones in a Sulcata tortoise?
dehydration
bacteria sepsis frequently causes which finding on a blood panel?
hypoglycemia
what does Eimeria stiedai cause?
hepatic coccidiosis in rabbits
which breed is most at risk for developing degenerative myelopathy?
German shepherd
which breed most commonly gets intervertebral disk disease?
Dachshunds
in a cow that is having difficulty calving and seems to have her legs splaying out from underneath her, which nerve are you most concerned about damage to?
obturator
adducts the hindlimbs and runs from the spinal cord into the birth canal before it innervates the inner thighs
during birthing this nerve can become crushed and cause obturator nerve paralysis
what anatomical landmark should be used for placing a multi-lumen jugular catheter?
third thoracic vertebrae
how many blood types do dogs have?
13
which equine gastrointestinal parasite when deposited at an abnormal site on the skin or mm is responsible for causing the eosinophilic granulomas known as summer sores?
Habronema spp.
stomach worm
which anesthetic gas would be most likely to induce a cardiac arrhthymia?
halothane
because horses must retain a standing position in recovery following the use of gas anesthesia, what is the order of gas anesthetic drugs from most commonly used to least commonly used?
sevoflurane, halothane, isoflurane
which neurotransmitter is associated with the sympathetic nervous system?
epinephrine
which joint allows rotational movement of the head from side to side?
atlantoaxial
what is the best way to administer long-term medications to the eye of a horse with a severe corneal ulcer?
subpalpebral lavage system
which bacterium is gram positive?
a. campylobacter
b. salmonella
c. e. coli
d. streptococcus
streptococcus
developed radiographs that appear yellow are usually due to a problem with which of the following?
a. film storage
b. developer solution
c. intensifying screen
d. fixer solution
fixer solution
what is the cause of yellow-brown staining on a film?
incomplete washing of the film
a purse-string suture would be placed for which of the following surgeries?
a. enterotomy
b. cystotomy
c. enucleation
d. perianal mass excision
perianal mass excision
Clomipramine is a veterinary approved drug used most commonly to treat which condition?
separation anxiety
which of the following instruments would be least effective at cutting or removing bone from a patient?
periosteal elevator
pre-renal azotemia is most commonly caused by what?
dehydration
which of the following is a classic symptom of pyometra?
a. syncope
b. increased drinking and urinating
c. hives
d. seizures
increased drinking and urinating
which of the following statements is true regarding cesarean sections?
a. performing a cesarean delivery will result in decreased milk production
b. performing a spay at the time of surgery does not affect milk production
c. performing a cesarean delivery will result in the dog being unable to have another pregnancy
d. performing a spay at the time of surgery is not recommended as there is risk that the female will not display maternal instincts
performing a spay at the time of surgery does not affect milk production
blood lactate is a marker of what?
blood perfusion and oxygen delivery to tissues
what is the purpose of a Potter-Bucky diaphragm on a x-ray machine?
eliminate grid lines on the film
the best locations to administer IM injections such as penicillin to a horse include all of the following except what?
a. semimembranosus
b. pectorals
c. epaxial muscles
d. neck muscles
e. semitendinosus
epaxial muscles
broken leg with bone sticking out of the skin is which type of fracture?
compound
what is the most common anticoagulant used for hematology?
ethylenediaminetetracetic acid (EDTA)
average heart rate for a horse?
25-50 bpm
Amphotericin B is known for the potential to cause severe damage to which organ?
kidneys
the placenta supplies the fetus with oxygen via which structure?
umbilical vein
which local anesthetic is used in veterinary dentistry because it can provide 3-5 hours of pain relief?
bupivacaine
when collecting a sample when should the needle never be re-directed?
cystocentesis
when taking a lateral radiograph of a dog where should the field be centered?
5th rib and caudal border of the scapula
how do you make slides for a bone marrow aspirate?
place a drop on the end of the slide, tilt slightly, and pull to make a smear
what does MRSA stand for?
Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus
what can cause a false positive fecal occult blood test?
meat based diet
what is the gestation of a rat?
21-23 days
which species can develop dental caries?
rabbits and chinchillas
what opioid normally given by injection can be given orally for sedation or analgesia?
buprenorphine
what organism transmits Ehrlichia canis?
brown dog tick (Rhipicephalus)
impulses are carried away from the neuronal cell body by what structure?
axon
what does Eimeria stiedai cause?
hepatic coccidiosis in rabbits
which cranial nerve is known for having 3 major branches?
CN V: trigeminal nerve
1. ophthalmic nerve: sensory to the eye socket and its contents, anterior nasal cavity, skin of nose, and forehead
2. maxillary nerve: sensory to maxilla, nasal cavity sinuses, palate, and part of the face
3. mandibular nerve: sensory fibers to lower jaw, floor of mouth, anterior 2/3 of tongue, lower teeth, and supplies motor fibers for mastication
which region should be avoided when administering an IM injection in cattle?
gluteal muscle
what is new methylene blue stain used mostly for?
determining morphology of cells
what is a ranula?
sublingual mucocele
fluctuant swelling of connective tissue consisting of collected mucin from a ruptured salivary gland duct
what is a UMIC?
urine minimum inhibitory concentration
a UMIC would be performed on a urine sample to check for what?
infection and antibiotic susceptibility
what volume can the stomach of a kitten or puppy hold on average?
9 mL/kg
how long does estrus in the dog typically last?
4-13 days
cattle exposed to prolonged rainy conditions are most likely to develop what?
dermatophilosis
aka rain rot or rain scald
caused by bacterium Dermatophilus congolensis
common skin infection during rainy seasons or damp warm weather
ocular larval migrans is the result of what parasite?
toxocara canis
what is the definitive host for the causative agent of equine protozoal myelitis/myeloencephalitis?
opossum
hamster gestation period
15-22 days
Mannitol Salt Agar (MSA) selects for growth of which species of organism?
Staphylococcus
contains a high concentration of salt which inhibits most other bacteria
by administering Tensilon (edrophonium chloride) you are testing for what disease?
Myasthenia gravis
an acetylcholine receptor antibody blood test may also be used to diagnose this
what are analytical variables?
things that affect the way a test might vary between laboratories
ex: variation in temperature at which an assay is performed
before closing an exploratory surgery patient that has septic peritonitis from a perforated bowel, what does the surgeon lavage the abdomen with?
sterile physiologic saline
which of the following descriptions is consistent with PPN (partial parenteral nutrition)?
a. high concentration glucose, minerals, and electrolytes
b. patient is not receiving other nutrition
c. able to administer for extended time
d. IV catheter placed in a peripheral vein
IV catheter placed in a peripheral vein
total parenteral nutrition would involve a catheter placed in a neck or chest vein
chronic exposure to which hormone leads to pyometra?
progesterone
antifreeze causes the most damage to which organ?
renal
ethylene glycol damages the renal tubular epithelium causing a build up of oxalate crystals in the renal tubules and metabolic acidosis
which medication is typically given through a filter?
Mannitol
it forms crystals in solution so an in-line 5 micron IV filter or filter needle is recommended
when a horse is placed in dorsal recumbency for surgery how much padding should be placed between the surgical table and the horse?
at least 6 inches
in horses the condition known as Sweeney is caused by damage to which structure?
suprascapular nerve
atrophy of shoulder muscle
this nerve innervates the infraspinatus and supraspinatus muscles in the scapula
which drug is a neuroactive steroid and general anesthetic?
Alfaxalone
it achieves its central effects via interactions with GABA receptors
what is an expected finding in a patient with vitamin D toxicity?
hypercalcemia
vitamin D is the building block of calcitriol which works with parathyroid hormone
what can cause type II diabetes?
chronic corticosteroid use, obesity, pancreatitis
occurs due to insulin resistance
when placing craniocaudal radiographs of the stifle joint on a viewer how should the film be oriented?
the lateral side of the right limb should be to the viewer’s left and the lateral side of the left limb should be to the viewer’s right
Lufenuron, Fipronil, and Imidacloprid are used to treat what?
fleas
what are Dorzolamide ophthalmic drops used for and what do they do?
they help decrease aqueous production which lowers intraocular pressure
carbonic anhydrase inhibitor commonly used to treat glaucoma
which anticoagulant is appropriate for collection of blood from a donor horse for a blood transfusion?
citrate-phosphate-dextrose adenine (CPDA)
where on a primate’s body are they tested for tuberculosis?
eyelid
the viscosity of synovial fluid is directly related to which component in the fluid?
hyaluronic acid
in inflammatory conditions the fluid gets thinner and the overall quality of the joint fluid decreases
where is hyaluronic acid found in the body?
connective tissues, highest in joints
which bacteria is gram positive?
a. campylobacter
b. streptococcus
c. salmonella
d. e. coli
streptococcus
what does Eimeria stiedai cause?
hepatic coccidiosis in rabbits
where would you find Anaplasma marginale?
erythrocytes of cattle
which condition occurs least commonly in horses?
a. intestinal incarceration
b. laminitis
c. urolithiasis
d. enterolithasis
urolithiasis
which part of the intestine is the largest and therefore absorbs the most nutrients?
jejunum
gout is an accumulation of what?
uric acid
release of what molecule from the sarcoplasmic reticulum ultimately helps to achieve muscle contraction?
calcium
which plant is Pyrethrin derived or extracted from?
Chrysanthemum
what is the term to describe the wearing down of teeth by tooth-on-tooth contact during mastication?
attrition
what is the dental formula for guinea pigs and chinchillas?
2(I 1/1, C 0/0, P1/1, M 3/3) = 20
what is the purpose of the rheostat of the light source on a microscope?
to adjust light intensity
what is the average toxic dose of theobromine in dogs?
60-100 mg/kg
which species besides guinea pigs require vitamin C in their diet because they can’t synthesize it?
primates
potassium citrate is most often given to dogs for what reason?
to prevent bladder stones
which drug type is inappropriate to inject into the epidural space?
antibiotics
