Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

VTNE review > Pharmacology > Flashcards

Pharmacology Flashcards

Section 5

1
Q

why are neonates less tolerant of drugs than older animals?

A

drugs are biotransformed more slowly in neonates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

the generic name of a drug can also be referred to as the ________ name

A

nonproprietary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the gold standard solution for filling a medication where the clinic only has 50mg tablets in stock but the patient’s dose is 25mg?

A

order 25mg tablets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is 10mL of a 2.5% solution in mg?

A

250mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the percentage of the total dose of a drug that reaches the bloodstream called?

A

bioavailability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are effects of cholinergic agents?

A

bradycardia, control vomiting, increase GI motility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is a medication substance that is toxic to cats?

A

acetaminophen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are the most common adverse effects of aminoglycoside antimicrobials?

A

nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, neurotoxicitiy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is a type of antimicrobial that has many bacteria that are resistant to them?

A

tetracyclines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

which drugs are closely related to penicillins?

A

cephalosporins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what drug is often effective against infections of the urinary tract due to how they are excreted?

A

sulfonamides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

which drug is not approved of by the FDA to be used in poultry?

A

fluoroquinolones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

which antibiotic should be avoided in food production animals?

A

Chloramphenicol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how are penicillins mostly excreted?

A

by the kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

which animal should acepromazine be used with caution in?

A

stallions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

which drug is commonly administered in combination with diazepam?

A

ketamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Griseofulvin acts on what type of organism?

A

dermatophytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

which of the following is not a side effect of sulfonamides?
a. crystalluria
b. keratoconjunctivitis sicca
c. seizures
d. thrombocytopenia

A

seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

which class of antibiotics when administered to juvenile animals can impair cartilage development?

A

fluoroquinolones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what type of bacteria are potentiated penicillins act against?

A

beta-lactamase-producing bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

which of the following statements is true when considering the use of xylazine?
a. it is safe in all dogs
b. it can be reversed with naloxone
c. it provides some analgesia
d. it can cause priapism in stallions

A

it provides some analgesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

which of the following statements is true regarding an iodophor?
a. it has a longer action than basic iodine compounds
b. organic materials do not inactivate it
c. it is not an irritant at concentrations generally used
d. it provides adequate disinfection with a single application

A

it has a longer action than basic iodine compounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

the active drug in ProHeart is moxidectin and it is a member of which drug class?

A

Milbemycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

a risk to veterinary technicians who administer prostaglandins is what?

A

inducing an asthma attack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

if it is accidentally administered as an IV bolus lidocaine may cause what?

A

sinus arrest

26
Q

aspirin may be safely used in cats as an NSAID but it should be noted that its half-life in this species is approximately how long?

A

40 hours

27
Q

which statement is most accurate pertaining to insect growth regulators?

A

they interfere with development

28
Q

what drug is approved for the treatment of old dog dementia?

A

Anipryl

29
Q

what is not a short-term effect of corticosteroid therapy?
a. polyuria
b. polyphagia
c. delayed healing
d. osteoporosis

A

osteoporosis

30
Q

which drug is not used in the treatment of glaucoma?

A

Chloramphenicol

31
Q

a chronotropic agent affects what?

A

rate of a contraction

32
Q

what is the main reason that generic forms of drugs are less expensive than trademark name drugs is because generic brands _________________________________

A

do not incur the expense of developing a new drug

33
Q

the regulatory agency that oversees the development and approval of animal topical pesticides is what?

A

EPA

33
Q

what are repository forms of parenteral drugs?

A

are formulated to prolong absorption of the drug from the site of administration

34
Q

which is an example of an antibiotic that is considered to be a beta-lactamase inhibitor?
a. amoxicillin
b. clavamox
c. tetracycline
d. penicillin

A

Clavamox

35
Q

in what class of antibiotic drugs are nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity potential side effects?

A

aminoglycosides

36
Q

a useful group of broad-spectrum drugs whose popularity has recently declines because of numerous potential side effects is which?
a. sulfonamides
b. macrolides
c. tetracyclines
d. fluoroquinolones

A

sulfonamides

37
Q

which of the following statements about tetracyclines is true?
a. tetracyclines are bactericidal
b. oral absorption of tetracyclines is increased in the presence of food
c. tetracyclines are potentially nephrotoxic and ototoxic
d. tetracyclines may lead to bone or teeth problems if given to young animals

A

tetracyclines may lead to bone or teeth problems if given to young animals

38
Q

Amoxicillin is prescribed to a dog, you would advise the client on all of the following except which?
a. she should call if she notices any adverse side effects as a result of the medication
b. she should complete all the medication dispensed even if the dog is feeling well and her symptoms have resolved
c. she must administer the medication on an empty stomach even if she vomits
d. the medication should be refrigerated

A

she must administer the medication on an empty stomach even if the dog vomits

39
Q

which of the following drugs is least likely to kill the normal flora in the gut of a rabbit thus avoiding severe diarrhea?
a. Clavamox
b. Clindamycin
c. Cefotaxime
d. Enrofloxacin

A

Enrofloxacin

40
Q

which of the following drugs is available over the counter?
a. codeine
b. dextromethorphan
c. hydrocodone
d. butorphanol

A

dextromethorphan

41
Q

which anticoagulant is diluted in saline or sterile water for injection to form a flush solution for preventing blood clots in IV catheters?

A

heparin

42
Q

which statement is true about the drugs used for cancer chemotherapy?
a. they are usually given po
b. they usually have relatively low margins of safety
c. they are available OTC
d. they are all nephrotoxic

A

they usually have relatively low margins of safety

43
Q

which of these tissues is not a normal site for drugs to accumulate to be released later thereby prolonging the effect of the drug?
a. pancreas
b. fat
c. bone
d. liver

A

pancreas

44
Q

which glucocorticoid has the shortest duration of activity?
a. hydrocortisone
b. prednisone
c. dexmethasone
d. triamcinolone

A

hydrocortisone

45
Q

which species generally clears NSAIDs most slowly?

A

cat

46
Q

what NSAID is administered to cats with a dosing interval of 2 days or more?

A

aspirin

47
Q

what is the most common side effect of NSAIDs?

A

GI ulceration

48
Q

malignant hyperthermia is a phenomenon associated primarily with the use of what inhalant anesthetic?

A

halothane

49
Q

for which gas does anesthesia demand the greatest degree of patient monitoring, because the anesthetic depth changes occur most rapidly?

A

desflurane

50
Q

which tranquilizer shouldn’t be used in stallions?

A

acepromazine

51
Q

why shouldn’t an open bottle of propofol be put back into the fridge after use?

A

bacteria will readily grow in propofol and will produce endotoxins so it is unwise to use the remains of an opened bottle

52
Q

the behavioral drug group that may be sent home to stimulate appetite in cats is what?

A

selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

53
Q

a progestin was often used in the past for the treatment of inappropriate elimination in cats and it has now fallen out of favor because of serious potential side effects including mammary hyperplasia and adenocarcinoma. this drug is known as ____________

A

Megestrol acetate

54
Q

Amphojel and Basaljel are drugs in the general category of __________

A

phosphate binders

55
Q

a heartworm preventative that is also approved for the treatment of ear mites and sarcoptic mange is __________

A

Selamectin

56
Q

which statement about organophosphates is incorrect?
a. they are neurotoxic
b. they are used for control of endoparasites andectoparasites
c. they have a narrow margin of safety
d. they have relatively few side effects

A

they have relatively few side effects

57
Q

oral hypoglycemic drugs such as glipizide (Glucotrol) are used to treat _________

A

non-insulin-dependent diabetes

58
Q

Altrenogest which is used for estrus synchronization in female animals is a synthetic __________

A

progestin

59
Q

what is not a potential side effect of the phenothiazine antiemetics?
a. CNS depression
b. diarrhea
c. lowering of the seizure threshold
d. hypotension

A

diarrhea

VTNE review (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions