Surgical nursing Flashcards

Section 6

1
Q

if the autoclave is not sealing properly what issue will occur?

A

the pressure of the autoclave won’t increase so it won’t reach the correct minimum temperature

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2
Q

where does the ECG red lead go?

A

left hindleg

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3
Q

preparing the patient’s skin for surgery means ___________?

A

the bacterial flora on the skin will be reduced to a level that can be controlled by the patient’s immune system

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4
Q

what tasks should be completed by the scrub tech before surgery begins?

A

counting gauze squares, arranging instruments to be located easily and quickly, place scalpel blade on handle

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5
Q

what is the most correct way to schedule these surgeries: compound fracture repair, OHE, intestinal resection, cruciate repair

A

cruciate repair, OHE, compound fracture repair, intestinal resection

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6
Q

true or false: clipper burn causes follicular damage to the fur

A

false

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7
Q

where is the site for a dog neuter?

A

prescrotal prepuce

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8
Q

-otomy meaning

A

cutting into

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9
Q

-ostomy meaning

A

surgical creation of an artificial opening

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10
Q

where is the site of a dog spay?

A

abdominal ventral midline

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11
Q

which retractor should be used in an abdominal exploratory procedure?

A

Balfour retractor

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12
Q

if during surgery you notice an item at the edge of a sterile field you should…
a. ask others to find out whether it was contaminated
b. consider it unsterile if you are not absolutely certain
c. consider it unsterile
d. move it further into the sterile field

A

ask others to find out whether it was contaminated

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13
Q

which of the following statements about electrocautery is false?
a. if the patient is not properly grounded, the surgeon may receive a shock
b. the intensity if the current passed through the unit is adjustable
c. small bleeding blood vessels are sealed with a controlled electrical current that burns the bleeding end
d. all portions of the electrocautery unit can and should be sterilized

A

all portions of the electrocautery unit can and should should be sterilized

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14
Q

a semipermanent feeding tube may be placed in all of the following ways except what?
a. through the nose
b. through a pharyngostomy site
c. through a gastrostomy site
d. through the mouth

A

through the mouth

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15
Q

all of the following statements are true regarding GI surgery except…
a. it is absolutely essential that all patients fast before GI surgery
b. at no point is the GI tract sterile, therefore it is important to guard against contamination
c. irrigation of the peritoneal cavity with a sterile isotonic solution after GI surgery helps reduce the number of microorganisms that remain free in the peritoneum following the procedure
d. the surgical assistant must be alert to the possibility of intestinal contents contaminating the abdominal cavity and must help the surgeon prevent this from happening

A

it is absolutely essential that all patients fast before GI surgery
b. at no point is the GI tract sterile, therefore it is important to guard against contamination

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16
Q

when assisting the surgeon the technician should
a. always cut sutures on top of the knot
b. cut sutures with the middle tip part of the scissor blade
c. blot the surgical site with a gauze square to clear the site of blood
d. attach the scalpel blade to the handle using a pair of hemostats

A

blot the surgical site with a gauze square to clear the site of blood

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17
Q

staples and other metal clips can
a. resist infection
b. cause little scarring
c. be removed easily using scissors
d. be applied by hand without any special application device

A

resist infection

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18
Q

which of the following suture materials remains in the body for the longest period?
a. polydioxanone
b. prolene
c. chromic catgut
d. vicryl

A

prolene

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19
Q

scrotal swelling after orchidectomy is most likely caused by a…
a. hematoma
b. seroma
c. hemangioma
d. lipoma

A

hematoma

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20
Q

fracture apposition reduction refers to what?

A

placing bones back in their normal position

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21
Q

which of the following agents can be used as both an antiseptic as well as a disinfectant?
a. quaternary ammonium compounds
b. mercurial chloride compounds
c. isopropyl alcohol
d. formaldehyde

A

isopropyl alcohol

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22
Q

for which of the following surgeries are stay sutures not normally necessary?
a. cystotomy
b. gastrotomy
c. intestinal anastomosis
d. hepatic biopsy

A

hepatic biopsy

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23
Q

what is the minimum number of throws required when making a surgical knot?

A

4

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24
Q

when would it be considered an advantage to use a hand tie vs an instrument tie?

A

when suturing the linea alba or areas that are difficult to reach

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25
Q

the chemical or mechanical destruction of pathogens is known as what?

A

disinfection

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26
Q

what is an advantage of using monofilament suture vs multifilament suture?

A

passes through tissue more easily

27
Q

which of the following suture sizes is most appropriate for eye surgeries?
a. 0
b. 3-0
c. 6-0
d. 10-0

A

6-0

28
Q

what factor will not influence how rapidly the body absorbs suture materials?

A

age of the patient

29
Q

which of the following forceps should not be used to hold the edges of the incision open?
a. rat-tooth
b. brown-adson
c. crile
d. allis tissue

A

crile

30
Q

which of the following CS would not normally be seen if a dog were suffering from hemorrhage after an ovariohysterectomy?
a. decreased RR
b. pale mm
c. slow recovery from anesthesia
d. slow CRT

A

decreased RR

31
Q

you are monitoring a cat during exploratory surgery and notice the pupils are central and dilated, the cat is…
a. too light
b. too deep
c. under the influence of atropine
d. in a state impossible to determine without more information

A

in a state impossible to determine without more information

32
Q

which of the following does not cause an increase in RR in an anesthetized animal?
a. increased blood CO2
b. anesthesia is too light
c. increased PaO2
d. hyperthermia

A

increased PaO2

33
Q

which of the following is not a factor influencing the formation of exuberant granulation tissue?
a. presence of infection
b. amount of missing tissue
c. depth of the wound
d. location of the wound

A

depth of the wound

34
Q

which of the following agents has been associated with causing neurological disorders in cats?
a. chlorohexidine
b. povidone iodine
c. quaternary ammonium compounds
d. hexachlorophene

A

hexachloropene

35
Q

if a nonsterile person must move to the other side of a sterile person, the nonsterile person should pass:
a. back to back
b. front to front
c. facing the back of the surgeon
d. with his or her side facing the back of the surgeon

A

facing the back of the surgeon

36
Q

which of the following suture materials is most likely to cause stitch granulomas if left in too long?
a. silk
b. cotton
c. nylon
d. prolene

A

silk

37
Q

which of the following patterns is not suitable for the closure of an intestinal biopsy incision?
a. simple continuous
b. simple interrupted
c. everting
d. inverting

A

everting

38
Q

a laminectomy is used to treat what condition?

A

intervertebral disc disease

39
Q

which of the following disinfectants includes the weakest virucidal activity?
a. glutaraldehyde
b. quaternary ammonium compounds at standard concentrations
c. formalin
d. isopropyl alcohol

A

quaternary ammonium compounds at standard concentrations

40
Q

which of the following instruments is most suitable for the removal of bone to perform spinal surgery?
a. rongeur
b. curette
c. periosteal elevator
d. trephine

A

rongeur

41
Q

what does a change in color in autoclave tape indicate to a surgical nurse?

A

during the autoclaving process, steam has reached the tape

42
Q

when assisting a surgeon in a gastric dilation and volvulus surgery which of the following is not your immediate concern?
a. establishing IV access to deliver shock doses of fluids
b. calculating lidocaine dose for CRI
c. monitoring for cardiac arrhythmias intraoperatively and postoperatively
d. preparing the ultrasound unit to confirm gastric dilation and volvulus state of the animal

A

preparing the ultrasound unit to confirm gastric dilation and volvulus state of the animal

43
Q

what size scalpel blade fits on a No. 3 scalpel blade?

A

No. 10

44
Q

what size scalpel blade fits on a No. 4 scalpel handle?

A

No. 20

45
Q

all of the following are true regarding aseptic technique except what?
a. it provides a clean surgical environment
b. it prevents pathogenic microbes from entering the surgical suite
c. it provides a sterile surgical environment
d. it reduces the likelihood of fatal infections

A

it provides a sterile surgical environment

46
Q

rank the following from greatest tensile strength to least
a. 00 gut, 3-0 vicryl, 1 chromic gut, 6-0 silk
b. 1 chromic gut, 00 gut, 3-0 vicryl, 6-0 silk
c. 6-0 silk, 3-0 vicryl, 00 gut, 1 chromic gut
d. 6-0 silk, 3-0 vicryl, 1 chromic gut, 00 gut

A

1 chromic gut, 00 gut, 3-0 vicryl, 6-0 silk

47
Q

why must instrument milk be used after ultrasonic cleaning?

A

to replace lubrication removed by the ultrasonic cleaner

48
Q

which of the following operating room personnel should face the sterile field during a procedure?

A

all personnel, both scrubbed in and nonsterile

49
Q

all of the following sutures have a degree of capillarity except
a. polyglycolic acid
b. silk
c. surgical gut
d. polypropylene

A

silk

50
Q

an advantage of the braided suture over the monofilament is
a. knot security
b. tensile strength
c. it doesn’t hide bacteria in contaminated wounds
d. tissue reactivity

A

knot security

51
Q

when autoclaving the minimum temperature and exposure times for the center of. the surgical packs are what? (in Farenheit)

A

250 F for 13 minutes

52
Q

how can you help prevent strike through during surgery?

A

assist in keeping the surgical drapes and gown from becoming wet during surgery

53
Q

a Buhner needle is used in which kind of procedure?

A

the repair of bovine vaginal and uterine prolapses

54
Q

a pack double wrapped in muslin and kept in a closed cabinet is good for how long?

A

6-7 weeks

55
Q

while you are working as a sterile surgical assistant your mask slips down below your nose. what should you do?

A

the nonsterile assistant may secure the mask in position while standing behind you

56
Q

C-sections in cattle are most commonly performed via what surgical incision?

A

left paralumbar fossa

57
Q

which of these is not a common surgical site for the correction of a left-displaced abomasum in cattle?
a. right paralumbar
b. left paralumbar
c. ventral midline
d. right paramedian

A

ventral midline

58
Q

postoperative care for horses following castration
a. includes strict confinement to the stall for 1 week to prevent hemorrhage
b. includes suture removal at 10-14 days
c. involves antibiotic administration for 5 days after surgery
d. involves exercise twice daily to promote drainage

A

involves exercise twice daily to promote drainage

59
Q

which of the following is not an advantage to neutering a male dog?
a. decreased risk for perineal hernias
b. decreased roaming
c. it will prevent it from lifting its leg to urinate
d. decreased aggression toward other dogs

A

it will prevent it from lifting its leg to urinate

60
Q

which of the following need not be done before moving a horse into surgery for a general anesthesia procedure?
a. remove the shoes
b. rinse the mouth
c. clip as much of the surgical area as possible
d. perform a full tail wrap

A

perform a complete tail wrap

61
Q

which of the following statements regarding compartment syndrome in the equine surgical patient is correct?
a. compartment syndrome only affects the surgery compartment
b. the “up” side of the patient can be affected
c. following all proper precautions can prevent compartment syndrome
d. compartment syndrome rarely results in euthanasia

A

the “up” side of the patient can be affected

62
Q

a gastrotomy refers to a surgical incision into the ________

A

stomach

63
Q

which of the following is not a likely cause of dehiscence of an abdominal incision?
a. excessive physical activity
b. stormy recovery from anesthesia
c. surgical wound infection
d. suture material larger than needed

A

suture material larger than needed

64
Q

which of the following is not a characteristic of 1st intention wound healing?
a. minimal contamination
b. minimal tissue damage
c. no continuous movement of wound edges resulting from body movement
d. wound edges not approximated

A

wound edges not approximated