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VTNE review > CleverOrca > Flashcards

CleverOrca Flashcards

1
Q

according to the inverse square law the intensity of the radiation is ________

A

inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the source of radiation

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2
Q

which veins can be used for venous access on rabbits?

A

lateral saphenous, cephalic, marginal ear vein

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3
Q

which skin scraping technique should be used for a skin scrape to test for Cheyletiella?

A

hold and scrape the. skin superficially to collect loose scales and crusts

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4
Q

which is not a characteristic of cancer cells?
a. enlarged nucleus
b. increased number of nucleoli
c. condensed chromatin
d. multipolar spindle formation

A

condensed chromatin
chromatin needs to be unwound in order to rapidly divide

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5
Q

Ketoconazole can cause toxicity to which organ?

A

liver

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6
Q

which medication would be beneficial to a patient being treated for NSAID overdose?

A

Misoprostol

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7
Q

what is Misoprostol?

A

a protective prostaglandin used to treat NSAID overdoses by protecting the gastric mucosa

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8
Q

what can NSAID overdose cause?

A

a high incidence of gastric damage or ulceration; can also cause liver/kidney damage

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9
Q

what disease do these signs most likely indicate?: male cat who is urinating excessively, still eating and acting normal, specific gravity is 1.012 with presence of granular casts made of epithelial cells, urine protein is normal
a. renal tubular disease
b. renal glomerular disease
c. nephroliths
d. uroliths

A

renal tubular disease

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10
Q

which animal most commonly transmits leptospirosis to humans?

A

rats

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11
Q

what is the purpose of biological indicators in sterilization?

A

to monitor effectiveness of sterilization

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12
Q

which medical term means frequent urination throughout the day?

A

pollakiuria

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13
Q

which zoonotic disease in birds causes respiratory disease in people?
a. beak and feather disease
b. macaw wasting disease
c. parrot fever
d. Budgerigar fledgling disease

A

parrot fever (aka psittacosis)

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14
Q

what are signs of psittacosis or parrot fever in birds?

A

respiratory disease and characteristic split pea soup diarrhea

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15
Q

what are signs of beak and feather disease?

A

abnormal feather growth

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16
Q

what is beak and feather disease caused by?

A

a circovirus

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17
Q

what are signs of macaw wasting disease?

A

dilation of the proventriculus

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18
Q

what is macaw wasting disease caused by?

A

bornavirus

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19
Q

what causes Budgerigar fledgling disease?

A

polyomavirus

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20
Q

what are signs of Budgerigar fledgling disease?

A

abnormal feather growth, abdominal distention, head tremors, bird found dead

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21
Q

which bacterial disease commonly affecting dogs causes lethargy, anorexia, fever, and GI signs?

A

canine leptospirosis

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22
Q

types of antineoplastic drugs include all of the following except:
a. acidifying agents
b. alkylating agents
c. antimetabolites
d. antibiotics

A

acidifying agents

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23
Q

what is the primary use of digoxin?

A

control ventricular rate in atrial fibrillation

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24
Q

what type of drug is digoxin?

A

cardiac glycoside

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25
Q

which of the following conditions are fluoroquinolones used for?
a. respiratory disease in cattle
b. E. coli infections in day-old chicks and poults
c. footrot
d. acute bovine interdigital necrobacillosis

A

respiratory disease in cattle

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26
Q

what are fluoroquinolones?

A

broad-spectrum antimicrobials
2 types:
Danofloxacin- treats and controls respiratory disease in cattle
Enrofloxacin- treats and controls respiratory disease in cattle and swine

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27
Q

what are Debakey forceps and what are they used for?

A

thumb forceps designed to be atraumatic that are long and have coarsely ribbed arms
used for intestinal manipulation

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28
Q

tenaculum forceps function

A

commonly used to hold parts of vessels or organs
not common in vet

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29
Q

what is the purpose of administrating guaifenesin in horses?

A

muscle relaxation during induction of general anesthesia
believed to be related to central depression of nerve impulse transmission

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30
Q

which of the following drugs is used to treat pulmonary edema?
a. Aminophylline
b. Dexamethasone
c. Terbutaline
d. Furosemide

A

Furosemide (Lasix)
loop diuretic that can help reduce fluid accumulation in the lungs

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31
Q

what part of the brain is responsible for coordinating breathing?

A

brainstem

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32
Q

what 2 areas is the pontine respiratory center comprised of in the brain?

A

pneumotaxic center: inhibitory
apneustic center: stimulatory

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33
Q

which part of the brain (specific) coordinates respiratory rate?

A

medulla oblongata

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34
Q

what is the parietal lobe responsible for?

A

motor function

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35
Q

what is the temporal lobe responsible for?

A

auditory function

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36
Q

what is the frontal lobe responsible for?

A

motor function

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37
Q

what is a common cardiac drug that can be used transdermally on exposed skin in dogs?

A

Nitroglycerine

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38
Q

what is Nitroglycerine?

A

a vasodilator that relaxes smooth muscle and is used in emergency treatment of congestive heart failure

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39
Q

what is Enalapril?

A

an ACE inhibitor vasodilator that controls fluid retention in heart failure and renal failure patients

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40
Q

what is Pimobendane?

A

a cardiac drug used to treat congestive heart failure by improving cardiac output with less of a risk for adverse effects than digoxin

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41
Q

what is Digoxin used for?

A

strengthening heart contractions and restore heart rhythm
used for heart failure symptoms

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42
Q

which blood product should be transfused to a patient hemorrhaging from suspected rodenticide ingestion?

A

fresh frozen plasma

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43
Q

which OTC medication treats diarrhea?

A

Loperamide
active ingredient in Imodium

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44
Q

what is Famotidine?

A

ingredient in Pepcid
an antacid or H2-receptor antagonist or blocker that helps prevent or treat stomach ulcers

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45
Q

what is Diphenhydramine?

A

ingredient in Benadryl
antihistamine used for allergies and allergic reactions

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46
Q

what is Simethicone?

A

ingredient in Gas-X
used to reduce gas symptoms

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47
Q

what is a common drug for treating hypotension?

A

Ephedrine
a vasopressor that increases blood pressure by constricting blood vessels
often used in anesthesia to raise BP

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48
Q

if a dog is suspected to have an osteosarcoma on his distal radius, what is the main reason for performing a bone scan before surgery?

A

to identify possible additional bone that may represent bone metastases

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49
Q

what is a bone scan?

A

a nuclear medicine test that involves administration of a bone-seeking radioisotope (technetium phosphate) that is taken up in areas of bone turnover

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50
Q

what is the feline dental formula?

A

2 (I 3/3, C 1/1, P 3/2, M 1/1)

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51
Q

what is the swine dental formula?

A

2 (1 3/3, C 1/1, P 4/4, M 3/3)

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52
Q

which species is most at risk of hyperthermia in the heat?
a. goats
b. sheep
c. horses
d. dogs

A

sheep

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53
Q

a dog has a history of lethargy, anorexia, and vomiting. bloodwork shows elevated liver enzymes and a low platelet count, which is the best diagnosis?
a. acute pancreatitis
b. immune-mediated hemolytic anemia
c. parvovirus
d. canine leptospirosis

A

canine leptospirosis

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54
Q

what might a dog owner indicate to their vet that their dog may have hypothyroidism?

A

hair loss

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55
Q

what is the most common sign of a transfusion reaction in dogs and cats?

A

fever is often the first and most common transfusion reaction seen

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56
Q

which of the following conditions are associated with metabolic alkalosis?
a. diabetic ketoacidosis
b. renal failure
c. vomiting
d. acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

A

vomiting because there is a loss of acid in the body

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57
Q

a cat presents for weight loss and vomiting, bloodwork shows elevated liver enzymes and an abdominal ultrasound shows a mass on the liver, what is the most likely diagnosis?
a. hepatic lipidosis
b. hepatocellular carcinoma
c. hepatic adenoma
d. hepatic abscess

A

hepatocellular carcinoma

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58
Q

what part of a bird’s feather is the vane?

A

the outermost layer
made up of tiny barbs that interlock to form a smooth, flexible surface

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59
Q

what is the calamus on a bird’s feather?

A

the base of the feather that attaches to the bird’s skin

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60
Q

what is the rachis on a bird’s feather?

A

the central shaft that runs through the length of the feather

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61
Q

what are the barbs on a bird’s feather?

A

the branching structures that form the vane

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62
Q

which cranial nerve is not important regarding a neurological dental exam?
a. vagus nerve
b. abducens nerve
c. olfactory nerve
d. glossopharyngeal nerve

A

vagus nerve
main function of vagus nerve is to mediate the parasympathetic nervous system

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63
Q

which of these antibiotics is bacteriostatic?
a. Enrofloxacin
b. Cephalexin
c. Penicillin
d. Doxycycline

A

Doxycycline
tetracyclines are bacteriostatic

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64
Q

in a cystocentesis which cell type would not be present?
a. red blood cells
b. squamous cells
c. urothelium
d. transitional epithelium

A

squamous cells
there aren’t any squamous cells lining the urinary bladder

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65
Q

which of the following may occur because of anorexia lasting over 3 days in an obese cat?
a. hepatic lipidosis
b. constipation
c. diabetes mellitus
d. anemia

A

hepatic lipidosis
aka fatty liver syndrome

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66
Q

which of the following isn’t involved in x-rays?
a. secondary radiation
b. heat production
c. piezoelectric effect
d. magnetic field production

A

piezoelectric effect
important to ultrasound - refers to the ability of the crystals in the transducer to give off ultrasonic frequencies

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67
Q

which of the following could be used for hemostasis at the site of a liver punch biopsy?
a. silver nitrate sticks
b. absorbable gelatin sponge
c. bone wax
d. styptic powder

A

absorbable gelatin foam (Gelfoam) is a sterile compressed sponge for hemostasis
it allows absorption of blood and formation of a clot at the bleeding site and is particularly useful in liver biopses and dentals

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68
Q

what are silver nitrate sticks used for (specifically)?

A

hemostasis for superficial bleeding

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69
Q

what is the function of bone wax?

A

controls bleeding from the bone and functions as a mechanical plug that is pressed into the bleeding bone surface

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70
Q

what is the purpose of a microplate reader?

A

measures the concentration of multiple samples at once, designed to read the absorbance or fluorescence of samples in microplates which are small plastic plates containing multiple wells

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71
Q

verminous arteritis caused by an equine parasite results in the presentation of colic in a young male thoroughbred horse; what is the name of the parasite that causes verminous arteritis of the cranial mesenteric artery in horses?

A

Strongylus vulgaris

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72
Q

what is the normal respiratory rate of a sleeping or relaxed cat?

A

20-30 Bpm

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73
Q

what is the correct order of the x-ray beam being produced?

A

electron cloud forms at the cathode –> electron hits tungsten target –> photons are produced at the anode –> photons leave the x-ray tube

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74
Q

what are 2 common medications used for tapeworm treatment?

A

Epsiprantel and Praziquantel

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75
Q

what effects do Epsiprantel and Praziquantel have been used in combination with each other?

A

they work together to disrupt the regulation of calcium and other ions in tapeworms, the ion dysregulation leads to a tetanic contraction in the cestodes and causes paralysis

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76
Q

what is a common goat disease that can be caused by a virus and can cause respiratory and neurological symptoms?

A

encephalomyelitis

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77
Q

which disease is caused by spirochete bacteria?
a. leptospirosis
b. feline leukemia
c. heartworm disease
d. feline immunodeficiency virus

A

leptospirosis

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78
Q

what does the P wave represent on an ECG?

A

electrical depolarization of the atria
initiated by the SA node

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79
Q

what does the QRS complex represent on an ECG?

A

ventricular depolarization
masks atrial repolarization which occurs at the same time

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80
Q

what does the PR interval represent on an ECG?

A

the delay between atrial and ventricular contraction due to reduced contraction velocity at the AV node
this allows the ventricles to fill before contraction

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81
Q

what does the T wave represent on an ECG?

A

repolarization of the ventricular myocardium

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82
Q

which of the following diets are not recommended when testing an animal for food allergies?

A

grain-free diet
grains are rare to be allergens, it would be more beneficial to take out various types of proteins since those are very common to be allergens

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83
Q

which of the following parasites produces an ovum with a different morphology than the others?
a. Dioctyphema sp.
b. Ancylostoma sp.
c. Necator sp.
d. Toxascaris sp.

A

Dioctyphema sp.
oval shaped ovum with polar ends, none of the other ovum have polarity

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84
Q

what age should most kittens first be presented for initial immunization?

A

8-10 weeks

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85
Q

what is proparacaine used for?

A

ocular anesthesia

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86
Q

which of the following is not a common side effect of acepromazine?
a. hypotension
b. tachycardia
c. respiratory depression
d. hyperactivity

A

hyperactivity
acepromazine is a sedative and tranquilizer

87
Q

what is the procedure to repair a ruptured cranial cruciate ligament called?

A

TPLO
tibial plateau leveling osteotomy

88
Q

where would a pulmonary metastatic lesion most likely be if it is visible on a right lateral radiograph but not on a left lateral radiograph?

A

one of the left lung lobes

89
Q

what is a common sheep disease that is caused by a bacterium and can cause respiratory symptoms and abortion?

A

Chlamydiosis
caused by Chlamdophila abortus bacteria

90
Q

what drug is used as a euthanasia drug?

A

pentobarbital

91
Q

what are some functions of the liver?

A

filters toxins from the blood, produces bile, metabolizes nutrients
helps regulate glucose, cholesterol, and other important substances

92
Q

an arterial blood sample from a standing adult horse is best collected from which artery?

A

transverse facial artery

93
Q

what is the correct way to place a urinary catheter in a dog/cat?

A

insert a sterile catheter until urine flows, then advance 1cm further and secure

94
Q

which tooth is referred to as the “wolf tooth” in horses?

A

first upper incisor
they are small teeth that often sit in front of the large permanent teeth that eventually replace them
usually removed due to discomfort

95
Q

a dog presents with a deep, dirty puncture wound; which closure method would be the most appropriate?

A

second intention

96
Q

when is third intention healing used?

A

large or complex wounds

97
Q

what is the term used to describe the upper beak of a bird?

A

cere

98
Q

what is the anatomical site of periodontal disease?

A

gingiva
it is gum disease

99
Q

which of the following is true about retained deciduous canine teeth?
a. they have fragile roots that can fracture if removed incorrectly
b. they can prevent the first premolars from breaking through
c. they should be removed at 3 months of age to prevent orthodontic abnormalities
d. they will fall out on their own

A

a. they have fragile roots that can fracture if removed incorrectly

100
Q

what is the most common etiology (transmission) of Clostridium botulinum?

A

ingestion

101
Q

which lab procedure is useful for diagnosing pancreatitis in dogs?

A

amylase and lipase blood tests

102
Q

which restraint technique is used to prevent a cow from moving or kicking during a rectal examination?
a. halter and lead rope
b. hobbles
c. chemical restraint
d. tail tie

A

hobbles
involves tying the front legs together to prevent it from moving or kicking

103
Q

which of the following local anesthetics has the shortest duration of action?
a. bupivacaine
b. lidocaine
c. mapivacaine
d. procaine

A

procaine
has rapid onset of action and lasts ~1hr

104
Q

which local anesthetics are intermediate-acting and last up to 2-4 hours?

A

lidocaine and mepivacaine

105
Q

which local anesthetic is long-acting and lasts up to 6-8 hours?

A

bupivacaine

106
Q

what is a carnassial tooth in dogs?

A

cheek teeth used to tear flesh

107
Q

which teeth are carnassial teeth in dogs?

A

maxillary 4th premolar and mandibular 1st molar

108
Q

which teeth are carnassial teeth in cats?

A

maxillary 3rd premolar and mandibular 1st molar

109
Q

a horse should consume approximately what percentage of body weight in forage per day?

A

2%

110
Q

what disease in cattle will have PI (persistently infected) calves who are the main source for transmission within the herd?

A

BVD
bovine viral diarrhea
is often asymptomatic

111
Q

which antibiotics should not be administered with dairy products?
a. doxycycline
b. amoxicillin
c. enrofloxacin
d. cephalexin

A

doxycycline

112
Q

which of the following is a potential hazard associated with ultrasound use?
a. allergic reactions to the ultrasound gel
b. electrical shock
c. thermal injury to tissues
d. radiation exposure

A

thermal injury to tissues
especially a concern when doing longer scans or using a higher power setting

113
Q

which of the following cat breeds would most likely develop trichobezoars?
a. sphynx
b. maine coon
c. DSH
d. donskoy

A

maine coon
trichobezoars = hairballs

114
Q

how to reduce the amount of trichobezoars coughed up by a cat?

A

laxatives and daily brushing

115
Q

“bog spavin” refers to which condition?

A

tarsocrural effusion
accumulation of synovial fluid in the tarsocrural joint; presents as swelling around the hocks

116
Q

which of the following should be first applied when bandaging an open, clean wound?
a. medical honey
b. telfa pad
c. wet-to-dry adherent dressing
d. antibiotic ointment

A

wet-to-dry adherent dressing

117
Q

what is the purpose of lubricating surgical instruments?

A

to reduce friction and wear

118
Q

which stage of anesthesia is characterized by the loss of the swallowing reflex and the onset of regular respiration?

A

stage II

119
Q

what adverse effects can occur in cats given metoclopramide?

A

aggressive behavior

120
Q

what is metoclopramide?

A

an antiemetic used to stop vomiting
rare side effects are nervous, jittery, or aggressive behaviors

121
Q

what type of folding method is used for cloth drapes?

A

accordion folding

122
Q

which of the following is not commonly included in a pig’s diet?

A

diets high in nonprotein nitrogen (NPN)
swine can’t metabolize NPN into energy

123
Q

which part of an atom is responsible for its mass?

A

nucleus

124
Q

which of the following medications is commonly used to treat separation anxiety in dogs?

A

diazepam (Valium)
enhances effects of GABA which helps calm dog

125
Q

which of the following medications is given prior to anesthesia to control the nervous system simulation?
a. atropine
b. diazepam
c. itraconazole
d. erythromycin

A

atropine

126
Q

indications for diazepam

A

sedative, muscle relaxant, anticonvulsant, anti-anxiety

127
Q

what type of medication is Itraconazole?

A

antifungal

128
Q

what type of medication is erythromycin?

A

antibacterial

129
Q

which chemical compound is the light sensitive part in x-ray film?

A

silver halide

130
Q

which of the following drugs does not typically cause apnea or respiratory depression?

A

ketamine

131
Q

which ocular side effects are caused by mu agonists in dogs and cats?

A

miosis in dogs, mydriasis in cats

132
Q

which best describes the transduction phase of nociception?
a. the phase of physical, subjective experience of pain
b. nerve endings translate the noxious stimulus into nociceptive impulses
c. cerebral response to nociceptive signals that are projected by third-order neurons to the brain
d. propagation through the peripheral nervous system via 1st-order neurons

A

nerve endings translate the noxious stimulus into nociceptive impulses

133
Q

a dog presents with very recent ingestion of gasoline; which of the following treatments should not be considered?
a. stomach lavage
b. oral activated charcoal
c. emetics
d. oxygen therapy

A

emetics

134
Q

during a dental exam you notice that the left side of a dog’s face is drooping; cranial nerve is probably affected?

A

facial nerve
CN VII

135
Q

what is the trigeminal nerve involved with?

A

CN V
involved with mastication muscles

136
Q

what is the glossopharyngeal nerve involved with?

A

CN IX
controls swallowing and taste

137
Q

what is the hypoglossal nerve involved with?

A

CN XII
controls tongue movement

138
Q

how does a systemic antacid such as cimetidine act on the stomach?

A

prevents the production of hydrochloric acid

139
Q

what does cimetidine do?

A

indirectly protects the stomach lining by reducing the secretion of hydrochloric acid

140
Q

what does a medication like sucralfate do?

A

coats the stomach lining and protects defects/ulcers

141
Q

which radiograph view is used to visualize the nasal cavity?

A

lateral skull view

142
Q

what is the lateral skull view used to visualize?

A

nasal cavity, frontal sinuses, osseous bulla

143
Q

what is an open-mouth VD skull view used to visualize?

A

frontal sinuses and caudal portion of the pharynx

144
Q

what is a VD skull view used to visualize?

A

nasal cavity and nasal septum

145
Q

what is a frontal skull view used to visualize?

A

frontal sinuses

146
Q

which term refers to a dog/cat being unable to urinate due to an obstruction in the urinary tract?

A

obstructive uropathy

147
Q

what is obstructive uropathy?

A

a condition where there is an obstruction in the urinary tract that prevents the animal from being able to urinate

148
Q

urolithiasis

A

bladder stones

149
Q

what is Sante’s rule?

A

(2 x thickness of body part in cm) + SID + grid factor = kVp

150
Q

which of the following would present as a proliferative honeycomb beak with scaly, crusty lesions on the legs and feet of a bird?
a. avian pox
b. avian chlamydiosis
c. tuberculosis
d. Cnemidocoptes pilae

A

Cnemidocoptes pilae

151
Q

which of the following abnormal rhythms is characterized by an inverted P wave?
a. atrial flutter
b. PVC
c. atrial premature contraction
d. sinus arrhythemia

A

PVC
premature ventricular contraction

152
Q

what does an atrial flutter look like on an ECG?

A

sawtooth formation between QRS complexes

153
Q

what does an atrial premature contraction look like on an ECG?

A

P-R interval can be short, normal, or long

154
Q

what does a sinus arrhythmia look like on an ECG?

A

QRS complex and QRS interval vary, there is a P wave for every QRS complex

155
Q

at what age is a kitten considered fully grown?

A

12 months

156
Q

why is epinephrine added to local anesthetics such as lidocaine?

A

it prolongs the effect of the anesthesia
epinephrine is a vasoconstrictor so blood flow is reduced to a certain area and the drug is absorbed slower

157
Q

which of the following describes colic in a horse?
a. abdominal pain due to internal hemorrhage
b. abdominal pain caused by GI gas buildup
c. abdominal pain that can be secondary to multiple etiologies
d. abdominal pain caused by the consumption of sand or other indigestible matter

A

c. abdominal pain that can be secondary to multiple etiologies

158
Q

which tool is most likely to cause too much pressure and can cause suffocation?
a. flat leash
b. E-collar
c. protective gloves
d. cat restraint bag

A

protective gloves
they’re made of a thick material which makes it harder to grasp the scruff which can lead to applying too much pressure

159
Q

which lab procedure is used to diagnose Lyme disease?

A

Western blot
used to confirm a positive ELISA test for Lyme

160
Q

how is a Western blot test performed?

A

run the blood sample through a gel electrophoresis process which separates the proteins by size; separated proteins are transferred to a membrane where they are probed with antibodies specific to Lyme disease bacteria

161
Q

the intestines are often the primary site where parasites reside; considering the definitive host which of the following live elsewhere in adult form?
a. ascarids
b. paragonimus
c. trichuris
d. cestoda

A

paragonimus
genus of flukes that exist in dog lungs in adult form, transmission through ingestion of infected mollusks

162
Q

what type of blood transfusion reaction occurs when the recipient’s immune system attacks the donor’s red blood cells and destroys them?

A

hemolytic

163
Q

which of the following is a common condition in geriatric cats that can cause decreased appetite and weight loss?
a. hyperthyroidism
b. hypothyroidism
c. diabetes mellitus
d. chronic renal failure

A

chronic renal failure
kidneys gradually lose function leading to a buildup of waste products in the bloodstream

164
Q

how many 3-rooted permanent maxillary teeth are in a dog’s mouth?

A

6
P4, M1, M2

165
Q

during a cat’s dental exam you cannot fully open the mouth; which muscle is being affected?

A

m. temporalis (temporal muscle)
originates from the temporal fossa and inserts at the coronoid process of the mandible
has a major role in closing the jaw and allowing mastication

166
Q

what is masticatory myositis?

A

an immune-mediated inflammatory condition where the immune system attacks muscles involved in mastication causing inflammation and leading to problems with a cat opening its mouth

167
Q

pterygoid muscle origin and insertion

A

(m. pterygoideous) has lateral and medial heads that originate from the region of the pterygoid muscle and inserts near the temporomandibular joint and the ramus of the mandible

168
Q

m. pterygoideous function

A

involved in opening the jaw and allowing side-to-side movements

169
Q

m. levator labii superioris muscle function

A

involved in facial expressions and upper lip elevation

170
Q

m. digastricus location and function

A

found between the sides of the mandible and is involved with swallowing

171
Q

hoof-and-mouth disease can affect all except which of the following?
a. swine
b. horses
c. ovine
d. cattle

A

horses
only effects cloven-hoofed animals

172
Q

what causes hoof-and-mouth disease?

A

a member of the family Picornaviridae

173
Q

what symptom may a cat exhibit that would indicate possible hyperthyroidism?
a. weight gain
b. polyphagia
c. anorexia
d. hypertension

A

polyphagia = increased appetite

174
Q

which topical anesthetic is used for tonometery?

A

proparacaine
topical anesthetic used for eyes

175
Q

what bacteria is most often associated with skin infections in dogs?

A

Staphylococcus aureus
most common type of bacteria associated with pyoderma = presence of pus filled lesions

176
Q

where is Candidiasis usually found and what is it?

A

a type of fungus that is found in ear infections

177
Q

what is Escherchia colis associated with?

A

urinary tract infections

178
Q

what is streptococcus pyogenes associated with?

A

step throat in humans

179
Q

which of these is an effective drug to induce emesis in dogs?
a. magnesium hydroxide
b. apomorphine
c. azathioprine
d. cefpodoxime

A

apomorphine
opioid dopaminergic agonist that acts on the chemoreceptor trigger zone to induce vomiting in dogs

180
Q

what is magnesium hydroxide?

A

a laxative

181
Q

what does azathiprine do?

A

suppresses the immune system

182
Q

what is cefpodoxime?

A

an antibiotic

183
Q

why is nitrous oxide contraindicated in GI surgery?

A

nitrous buildup can cause the bowel to rupture since nitrous oxide + anesthesia can cause dilation and accumulate in the digestive organs

184
Q

what is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis in dogs?

A

dietary indiscretion particularly high-fat meals

185
Q

what parasite may cause extreme allergic dermatitis in animals?

A

fleas

186
Q

which species is prone to seizures if restrained in a stressful or frightening manner?

A

gerbils

187
Q

what is the recommended maximum volume of blood that can be safely transfused to a dog or cat?

A

15% of their BW
20% of their BW if they are receiving IV fluids

188
Q

a proptosed globe is most common in what breed (specific)?

A

brachycephalic cats

189
Q

which medication causes perivascular tissues sloughing if given out of the vein?

A

Phenylbutazone
aka Bute
equine NSAID

190
Q

which parasite causes scours?

A

Cryptodporidium

191
Q

what is the most common type of heart disease in felines?

A

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

192
Q

which fluid is hypertonic?
a. 0.45% saline
b. 5% dextrose in 0.9% sodium chloride
c. lactated ringer’s solution
d. 5% dextrose in water

A

5% dextrose in 0.9% sodium chloride

193
Q

which statement is false?
a. progestins lyse the corpus luteum
b. estrogens induce estrogen after progesterone treatment
c. prostaglandins are easily absorbed through the skin
d. oxytocin causes uterine contraction and milk let-down

A

progestins lyse the corpus luteum

194
Q

what non-infectious disease in cattle is genetic in nature, presents as ventral edema, and is due to pulmonary hypertension?
a. brisket disease
b. hardware disease
c. Bang’s disease
d. Johne’s disease

A

brisket disease
genetic component occurs when cattle exceed around 5,000ft in elevation —> hypoxia due to lower oxygen at higher elevations —> hypertension —> right sided heart failure

195
Q

which of the following is true concerning a dog with a fractured canine?
a. treatment is unnecessary for canine tooth fracture
b. tooth root fracture can be diagnosed without radiographs
c. fractures can be treated with endodontic therapy
d. canine teeth are most likely to have slab fractures

A

c. fractures can be treated with endodontic therapy

196
Q

which tapeworm can be contracted if the dog eats infected livestock?

A

Taenia hydatigena

197
Q

ketoconazole works by which mechanism?
a. inhibition of nucleic acid production
b. disruption of development of microbial cells wall
c. damaging cell membrane in static/adult populations
d. interference with microbial protein synthesis

A

a. inhibition of nucleic acid production

198
Q

respiratory disease and colic in foals are associated with which parasite?
a. Parascaris equorum
b. Rhodococcus equi
c. rotavirus
d. cryptosporidium

A

Parascaris equorum

199
Q

what is the most common way to detect pregnancy in cattle?

A

manual rectal palpation

200
Q

what frequency transducer is most used for ultrasound exams performed on animals weighing less than 33lbs?

A

7.5 MHz

201
Q

which frequency transducer is preferred for an ophthalmic ultrasound study?

A

10 MHz

202
Q

which frequency transducer is used for a large animal echocardiography?

A

3.5 MHz linear array transducer

203
Q

which frequency transducer is used for vascular, breast, or pelvic ultrasound imaging?

A

5.0 mHz

204
Q

what would be the best way to immediately stabilize an open tibial fracture if a patient also presents with trauma-induced pulmonary contusions?

A

Robert-Jones bandage

205
Q

why would you need to place an orogastric tube?

A

gastric dilation volvulus

206
Q

which organ produces sounds in birds?

A

syrinx
located at base of the trachea

207
Q

which drug is often given before administering a distemper vaccine in ferrets?

A

diphenhydramine

208
Q

which parasite cannot be detected in a fecal float?
a. paragonimus
b. giardia
c. anclyostoma
d. trihuris

A

paragonimus

209
Q

which radiographic view is used to evaluate the lateral femoral condyle?

A

caudocranial stifle

210
Q

in which condition would ketone bodies not be expected to be found in urine?

A

hypoadrenocorticism
ketone production is not associated with low cortisol levels

211
Q

which feline viral disease causes respiratory and ocular signs as well as oral ulcerations and fever?

A

feline calicivirus (FCV)

212
Q

what is activated clotting time (ACT)?

A

the evaluation of intrinsic and common pathways of the coagulation cascade

213
Q

what are 2 names for cestode eggs?

A

hexacanth and oncosphere
hexacanth: 6-hooked larvae that are the direct product of cestode embryogenesis and are responsible for invading the intermediate host
oncosphere: cestode eggs that have 1 or 2 embryonic envelopes wrapping around the hexacanth

VTNE review (18 decks)

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