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VTNE review > Clinpath > Flashcards

Clinpath Flashcards

Section 8: Laboratory procedures

1
Q

what is the morphology of Vibrio spp. bacteria?

A

bacillus

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2
Q

what are the important functions of bacterial fimbraie?

A

locomotion, ion transport, antibiotic resistance

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3
Q

blood levels of total bilirubin will not be a significant finding in ______
a. hepatocellular damage
b. bile duct injury or obstruction
c. hemolytic disorders
d. acute pancreatitis

A

acute pancreatitis

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4
Q

a bacterial genus is best described as _______

A

being composed of one or more species

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5
Q

which of the following is a lentivirus?
a. coronavirus
b. feline immunodeficiency virus (FIV)
c. herpes virus
d. parovirus

A

FIV

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5
Q

what is the temperature that must be reached and maintained for 13 minutes in a steam autoclave to destroy microorganisms?

A

121 C

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6
Q

what are 3 methods of culturing animal viruses?

A

lab animal inoculation, cell culture, embryonated egg inoculation

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7
Q

blood levels of total bilirubin are primarily used to evaluate function of which organ?

A

liver

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8
Q

what is a hospital-acquired disease called?

A

nosocomial

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9
Q

what laboratory test evaluates kidney function and is a breakdown product of protein?

A

BUN

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10
Q

nonrenal causes of increased levels of urea might include __________

A

the amount of protein ingested

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11
Q

a decrease in albumin may occur in cases experiencing ___________

A

gastroenteritis

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12
Q

which substance is used to evaluate kidney filtration and function, is excreted, and then is reabsorbed?

A

urea

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13
Q

glycosuria exists _______________________________

A

when blood glucose levels exceed the renal threshold for absorption of glucose

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14
Q

horses typically have higher ______ values than other species

A

AST

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15
Q

which blood chemistry test should be used to measure cholangiocyte damage?

A

GGT

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16
Q

for cytological evaluation what should be done immediately with the urine sample?

A

it should be centrifuged as soon as possible

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17
Q

what is the average specific gravity for an adult dog?

A

1.025

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18
Q

what is the average specific gravity for an adult cat?

A

1.030

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19
Q

if a dog is diagnosed with a urinary tract infection what method of urine collection should be done when the dog comes back for a urine recheck a few weeks after being on an antibiotic?

A

cystocentesis

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20
Q

aged urine samples left at room temperature and exposed to UV light may cause a false negative result in which biochemical test?

A

bilirubin

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21
Q

which of the following is not a method of culturing animal viruses?
a. laboratory animal inoculation
b. cell culture
c. agar plate inoculation
d. embryonated egg inoculation

A

agar plate inoculation

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22
Q

what is the function of hemolysins?

A

destroy red blood cells

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23
Q

urinary pH is not affected by the
a. patient’s diet
b. presence of bacteria in the urine
c. patient’s acid-base status
d. presence of crystals in the urine

A

presence of crystals in the urine

24
Q

what biochemical tests are not considered part of a primary hepatic profile?
a. BUN and creatinine
b. cholestatic enzymes
c. hepatocellular leakage enzymes
d. total protein and albumin

A

BUN and creatinine

25
Q

the current test of choice for evaluating liver function is what?

A

bile acids

26
Q

serum chemistry tests for acute pancreatitis include what?
a. amylase and lipase
b. lipase and trypsin
c. amylase and trypsin
d. amylase, lipase, and trypsin

A

amylase and lipase

27
Q

which of the following results may be found in a patient with a degenerative left shift?
a. leukocytosis
b. no bands present
c. lymphocytes outnumber neutrophils
d. bands outnumber mature neutrophils

A

bands outnumber mature neutrophils

28
Q

to make a smear with anemic blood:
a. increase the angle of the pusher slide
b. decrease the angle of the pusher slide
c. use a larger drop of blood
d. wait for the drop of blood to dry partially

A

increase the angle of the pusher slide

29
Q

what is the most useful way to report WBC differential results?
a. percentages
b. relative numbers
c. absolute numbers
d. decimal numbers

A

absolute numbers

30
Q

determination of which of the following is useful in the detection of inflammatory processes?
a. total protein
b. hematocrit
c. RBC morphology
d. fibrinogen

A

fibrinogen

31
Q

postrenal azotemia refers to:
a. an increase in BUN resulting from severe liver disease
b. an increase in BUN resulting from the inability to urinate
c. a decrease in BUN resulting from severe renal disease
d. an increase in BUN resulting from dehydration

A

an increase in BUN resulting from an inability to urinate

32
Q

which one of the following options would not affect a manual WBC count?
a. condensor in the farthest “up” position
b. length of time that the hemocytometer has been loaded
c. objective lens used
d. mini clots in blood

A

objective lens used

33
Q

which of the following options is not a sign of RBC regeneration?
a. polychromasia
b. nuclear remnants
c. spherocytes
d. anisocytosis with macrocytosis

A

spherocytes

34
Q

a left shift refers to increased numbers of:
a. immature neutrophils
b. immature RBCs
c. immature platelets
d. immature lymphocytes

A

immature neutrophils

35
Q

in a healthy animal diminished water intake or water loss would result in _____ urine specific gravity

A

increased

36
Q

crystals in urine sediment often indicate:
a. uroliths
b. nothing
c. inflammation
d. urethral blockage

A

nothing

37
Q

what gram-negative bacteria may “swarm” a blood agar plate, leaving a film over the entire surface?

A

Proteus spp.

38
Q

what microorganism is an etiologic agent of ringworm?

A

Microsporum spp.

39
Q

what serum component can be used as a screening test for hypothyroidism?

A

cholesterol

40
Q

fibrinogen is produced in the ______

A

liver

41
Q

which of the following samples can be frozen and successfully thawed for performing an analytic test at a later time?
a. feces for a fecal float test
b. whole blood for chemistry testing
c. serum for chemistry testing
d. whole blood for a CBC

A

serum for chemistry testing

42
Q

under the microscope you observe a leukocyte that you identify as an eosinophil. the eosinophil cytoplasm contains numerous rod-shaped granules. from which species was this sample most likely collected?

A

cat

43
Q

secondary hemostasis refers to:
a. coagulation cascade
b. vascular system
c. clot lysis
d. platelet plug formation

A

coagulation cascade

44
Q

a good presurgical screening test for von Willebrand disease is a/an:
a. total platelet count
b. buccal mucosal bleeding time
c. activated clotting time
d. activated partial thromboplastin time

A

buccal mucosal bleeding time

45
Q

when collecting blood for a coagulation profile, it is especially important to:
a. use a gray-top vacutainer
b. analyze the sample immediately
c. use EDTA as the anticoagulant
d. minimize vascular trauma during venipuncture

A

minimize vascular trauma during venipuncture

46
Q

when using Diff-Quik to stain bone marrow smears, it is especially important to:
a. use freshly filtered stain
b. dip the smear twice as long as blood smears
c. rinse thoroughly with distilled water
d. let the smear dry for 30 minutes before staining

A

dip the smear twice as long as blood smears

47
Q

the best urine collection method to assess the patency of the urethra is:
a. catheterization
b. manual expression
c. free catch
d. cystocentesis

A

catheterization

48
Q

which of the following statements regarding casts is incorrect?
a. a few hyaline or granular casts may be seen in normal urine
b. all casts are cylindric with parallel sides
c. casts dissolve in acidic urine
d. casts may be disrupted with high-speed centrifugation and rough sample handling

A

casts dissolve in acidic urine

49
Q

blood chemistry analysis is commonly performed to evaluate function of the __________ in an animal showing lethargy, obesity, mild anemia, infertility, and alopecia

A

thyroid gland

50
Q

ammonia is metabolized by the liver and eliminated by the kidneys. levels of which metabolic byproduct of ammonia are measured to assess kidney function?

A

ura nitrogen

51
Q

the red-top vacutainer tube should sit at room temperature for ______ before centrifugation allowing a clot to form

A

30 minutes

52
Q

Dioctophyma renale is often found in the ________ of dogs

A

right kidney

53
Q

in what species are the platelets normally larger then the red blood cells?

A

felines

54
Q

which of the following is the largest intermediate form of a tapeworm?
a. cysticercus
b. hydatid cyst
c. coenurus
d. cysticercoid

A

hydatid cyst

55
Q

what canine parasite causes nodules in the esophagus which may then become neoplastic?

A

Spirocerca

56
Q

which statement is true about dirofilaria infection in the cat?
a. the lifespan of heartworms is shorter in cats
b. microfilariae are commonly seen in cat infections
c. adult worm burden in cats is similar in numbers to that in dogs
d. dirofilaria causes a severe anemia in cats

A

the lifespan of heartworms is shorter in cats

57
Q

which of the following is not associated with a responsive anemia?
a. poikilocytosis
b. reticulocytosis
c. anisocytosis
d. polychromasia

A

poikilocytosis

58
Q

what large cell with multiple separate nuclei is found in bone marrow?

A

osteoclast

VTNE review (18 decks)

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