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VTNE review > Anesthesia > Flashcards

Anesthesia Flashcards

Section 11

1
Q

which of the following statements define regional anesthesia?
a. loss of sensation in a limited area of the body produced by administration of a local anesthetic agent in proximity to sensory nerves
b. loss of sensation in a small area of the body produced by administration of a local anesthetic agent in proximity to the area of interest
c. loss of sensation of a localized area produced by administration of a local anesthetic directly to a body surface or to a surgical or traumatic wound
d. a drug-induced sleeplike state that impairs the ability of the patient to respond appropriately to stimuli

A

loss of sensation in a limited area of the body produced by administration of a local anesthetic agent in proximity to sensory nerves

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2
Q

which of the following opioids is preferable in the patient undergoing a painful ophthalmic procedure?
a. morphine
b. methadone
c. diazepam
d. midazolam

A

methadone

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3
Q

physical examinations are an important step when assessing a patient’s risk factor; which of the following statements is incorrect as it refers to PE findings?
a. dehydration increases the risk for hypotension
b. anemia predisposes the patient to hypoxemia
c. patients with bruising may be at a higher risk for potentially life-threatening intraoperative and postoperative bleeding
d. a dog with a BCS of 8/9 will require more anesthetic per unit body weight than a dog of the same breed with a BCS of 5/9

A

a dog with a BCS of 8/9 will require more anesthetic per unit body weight than a dog of the same breed with a BCS of 5/9

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4
Q

what is the American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) Physical Status Classification system rating for patient that is anemic or moderately dehydrated?
a. class P1
b. class P2
c. class P3
d. class P4

A

class P3

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5
Q

you have a calm canine patient that must be anesthetized; which of the following conditions could present the greatest risk to anesthesia?
a. wheezing while breathing
b. lethargy
c. temperature of 104.1F
d. sinus arrhythmia

A

wheezing while breathing

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6
Q

which inhaled anesthetic has a very low boiling point and therefore has to be contained within an electrically heated chamber?

A

desflurane

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7
Q

which of the following is often used to calculate a patient’s tidal volume?
a. 100 mL/kg
b. 200 mL/kg
c. 1-2 mL/kg
d. 10-20 mL/kg

A

10-20 mL/kg

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8
Q

what does the term minute volume mean?

A

the sum of gas volumes exhaled in 1 minute

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9
Q

all of the following statements regarding fluid infusion rates are false except:
a. standard shock doses of fluids are about the same as doses used during routine surgery
b. surgery patients with blood loss may require colloids instead of crystalloids
c. crystalloids are generally given at lower administration rates than colloids
d. hypertonic saline is administered in large volumes to patients in shock

A

surgery patients with blood loss may. require colloids instead of crystalloids

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10
Q

fluid overload can carry serious consequences; all of the following CS are consistent with that of fluid overload except:
a. ocular and nasal d/c
b. hypotension
c. increased lung sounds and. respiratory rate
d. dyspnea

A

hypotension

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11
Q

in the equine patient which heart rhythm is not normal?

A

3rd degree AV block

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12
Q

which of the following blood pressure measuring techniques is considered “gold standard” in terms of gas exhaled in 1 breath?
a. invasive BP measurements
b. doppler BP measurements
c. oscillometric BP measurements
d. all of the above

A

invasive BP measurements

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13
Q

which of the following opioids would be the best choice as a premedication in a patient with moderate to severe pain?
a. butophanol
b. diazepam
c. methadone
d. naloxone

A

methadone

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14
Q

what should the vaporizer be set at to maintain a surgical plane of anesthesia?

A

1.5 x MAC

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15
Q

which of the following opioids has been shown to have the lowest likelihood of causing vomiting in cats?
a. morphine
b. methadone
c. oxymorphone
d. hydromorphone

A

methadone

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16
Q

a tank of nitrous oxide is present in what state(s)?

A

liquid and gas

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17
Q

which condition causes a decrease in the requirements for general anesthesia?
a. hypoventilation
b. hyperthermia
c. hypothermia
d. hypotension

A

hypothermia

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18
Q

which of the following is not a recommended method of actively warming a patient while under anesthesia?
a. circulating warm water blankets
b. convective warm air devices
c. commercial bubble wrap
d. radiant heat via heat lamp

A

radiant heat via heat lamp

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19
Q

the reservoir bag’s minimum size can be calculated as what?

A

60 mL/kg

20
Q

what is the maintenance flow rate of non-rebreathing systems?

A

very high, > 200 mL/kg/min

21
Q

which of the following terms describes a diminished volume or lack of air in part or all of a lung lobe?

A

atelectasis

22
Q

all of the following techniques can be used to prevent laryngospasm in cats except
a. spraying the ET tube with lidocaine
b. spraying the larynx with local anesthetic
c. ensuring adequate depth before intubation
d. using a gentle intubation technique

A

spraying the ET tube with lidocaine

23
Q

when is the negative pressure relief valve important?

A

if there is failure of oxygen flow through the system

24
Q

what is the tidal volume of an anesthetized animal in mL/kg of body weight?

A

10 mL/kg

25
Q

for which of the following patients would it be advantageous to use a laryngeal mask airway?
a. brachycephalic dogs
b. rabbits
c. pigs
d. all of the above

A

all of the above

26
Q

which anesthetic that is used in today’s practice is associated with neurologic and adverse reproductive effects?

A

nitrous oxide

27
Q

which type of laryngoscope is composed of a straight blade with a light source on a handle?

A

Miller

28
Q

which of the following endotracheal tubes can be heat sterilized with steam from an autoclave?
a. silicone tubes
b. PVC tubes
c. red rubber tubes
d. all of the above

A

silicone tubes

29
Q

in the US the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) recommends that the levels of waste anesthetic gases for anesthetics such as isoflurane, halothane, or methoxyflurane should not exceed _____ ppm

A

2

30
Q

how many ppm is halothane when a person can smell it?

A

33

31
Q

which of the following is used to effectively monitor waste anesthetic gas?
a. odor of waste gas
b. passive dosimeter badge
c. radiation monitor
d. regular preventative maintenance by qualified personnel

A

passive dosimeter badge

32
Q

what can pale mm indicate?

A

vasoconstriction because of drugs

33
Q

if anesthetic waste gases are present in a room, how many air changes per hour should occur?

A

15

34
Q

all of the following sites are acceptable for palpating peripheral pulses in patients under anesthesia except
a. femoral artery
b. articular artery
c. dorsal pedal artery
d. lingual artery

A

articular artery

35
Q

what should be used to clean most monitoring devices?

A

mild soap and water

36
Q

an anesthetized dog that has a respiratory rate less than ________ should be reported to the vet

A

6 Bpm

37
Q

which anesthetic monitoring tool is important for patients on a ventilator to verify the efficiency of gas exchange and adequate ventilation?

A

capnography

38
Q

which of the following statements regarding body temperature is true?
a. body temperatures of 96.8 - 100.4 cause prolonged anesthetic recovery
b. dangerous CNS depression and changes in cardiac function may be seen at body temperatures < 89.6
c. there is no need to warm IV fluids before administration
d. circulating warm water blankets should be set at 111 F

A

dangerous CNS depression and changes in cardiac function may be seen at body temperatures < 89.6 F

39
Q

which of the following induction methods should be avoided in patients undergoing an ophthalmic procedure?
a. alfaxalone
b. propofol
c. thiopental
d. mask or box inductions

A

mask or box inductions

40
Q

where is nerve impulse transmission blocked with local anesthetics?

A

sensory, motor, and autonomic neurons

41
Q

which of the following techniques is useful for reducing intracranial pressure and therefore reducing brain size during nurosurgery?
a. controlled hyperventilation
b. controlled hypoventilation
c. starting a ketamine CRI
d. placing the patient in a head down position

A

controlled hyperventilation

42
Q

what effect do inhalant anesthetics such as isoflurane and sevoflurane have on intracranial pressure?

A

increased intracranial pressure

43
Q

which of the following opioids would be the best choice for emergency department patients who have experienced some sort of head trauma and may need serial neurological exams?
a. morphine
b. methadone
c. fentanyl
d. remifentanil

A

remifentanil

44
Q

if a cat was receiving an epidural what is the most caudal aspect that the epidural could be administered?

A

S1

45
Q

what is the maximum SQ dose of lidocaine in a dog?

A

10 mg/kg

46
Q

which inhalant anesthetic causes the most dramatic increase in cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure?

A

nitrous oxide

VTNE review (18 decks)

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