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Comprehensive guide NAVLE > vet prep cont. part II > Flashcards

vet prep cont. part II Flashcards

1
Q

Fusobacterium necrophorum commonly causes what disease in young pigs? What about in cattle?

A

Causes necrotic rhinitis and foot rot in pigs; Causes hepatic abscesses, enteritis, metritis, and foot rot in ruminants

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2
Q

What is the causative agent of pleuropneumonia in pigs?

A

Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae

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3
Q

What causes diarrhea in piglets AND adults (finishers)???

A

Salmonella

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4
Q

What is associated with excess dietary calcium and vitamin D in young horses?

A

Osteochondrosis

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5
Q

What CS would you expect to see in a rabbit with a gastric trichobezoar?

A

Weight loss (they are hair balls that get stuck in the stomach)

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6
Q

What is the estrOUS cycle length in a cow?

A

21 days

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7
Q

in an occult HWinfection in a dog, what would results of a Knott’s test (checking for microfilariae) and HW antigen test most likely be?

A

Knott’s negative; antigen positive

the definition of an occult HW infection means that no microfilaria are circling so Knott’s test will be negative

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8
Q

What is the most common intranasal tumor in the dog? In the cat?

A

Dog = adenocarcinoma
Cat = Lymphosarcoma
(do not be tricked by this, cats get SCC of the nasal planum and rhinarium but get LSA of the INTRAnasal areas!!!)

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9
Q

Urine cortisol: creatinine ratio test for diagnosis of Cushing’s syndrome is _________.

A

Sensitive but not specific

most dogs with hyperadrenocorticism have elevated cortisol: creatinine ratio

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10
Q

How many 3-rooted permanent maxillary teeth are in the mouth of a dog?

A

6 (P4, M1, M2 on each)

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11
Q

Which hormone is responsible for milk let down?

A

Oxytocin (and prolactin which is produced when the teats are primed for milking/stimulated)

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12
Q

Cilia- associated respiration (CAR) bacillus in rats is associated with what other bacteria?

A

Mycoplasma pulmonis

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13
Q

How is cryptosporidiosis tx in reptiles?

A

There is no effective tx

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14
Q

What is the estrous length in sheep in a range of days? How long does estrus last?

A

14-19 days with estrUS an avg. of 36 hours

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15
Q

what are the common SE of aminoglycosides?

A

Ex are amikacain and gentamicin; CE = ototoxicity, nephrotoxocity, and vestibulotoxicity

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16
Q

In canine patients with primary hyperparathyroidism, a chemistry panel would show what?

A

Hypercalcemia, hypophosphatemia

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17
Q

If you lyse a mature CL, when would you expect to see estrus in a cow?

A

3 days

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18
Q

What are the CS associated with Sendai virus infection in mice?

A

Dyspnea, chattering and weight loss (and in rats and hamsters is usually subclinical)

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19
Q

An adult horse presents to you with multiple skin lesions, there are patchy areas of erythema, scaling, and alopecia along the ventral midline. There is a diamond-shaped lesion of erythema and scaling along the forehead. According to the owner, the lesions are not pruritic. What is the most likely cause of these lesions?

A

Onchocerca which can cause dermatitis in the horse due to hypersensitivity to dying microflaria and is non-seasonal and can also involve ocular lesions as well

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20
Q

What hypersens. aka sweet itch of horses occurs due to allergy of the saliva of the gnat and cause highly pruritic lesions and is worse in the warmer months and with age

A

itchy + hypersensitivity + older horses and warmer months means more affected= culicoides aka sweet itch in horses

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21
Q

What is the tx for a horse with onset of exercise intolerance that has irregular regular rhythm with variable heart sounds present and hr is 40 beats per minute and there are no other abn seen, and what is the issue needing to be treated?

A

This horse has A fib and tx is Quinidine

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22
Q

In canine patients with primary hyperparathyroidism, a chem panel would show what?

A

Hypercalcemia and hypophosphatemia

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23
Q

what stimulus induces the release of prolactin? But ultimately what is responsible for milk let down???

A

Priming the cow for milking; Oxytocin

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24
Q

what is the estROUS cycle length of sheep?

A

16 days (14-19 days) and ewes are in estrus for an average of 1-2 days, with ovulation occuring about 24 hours after the onset of estrus.

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25
Q

if you lyse a mature corpus luteum, when would you expect to see estrus in a cow?

A

3 days

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26
Q

A turkey has nasal discharge and ocular discharge and has weight loss, inappetence, and then died. You performed a necropsy and found pneumonia, multifocal necrosis of the liver and spleen and severe pericarditis. Histopathological findings included many basophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions found in the affected organs. What is most likely the cause of death?

A

Chlamydia psittaci aka ornithosis of turkeys

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27
Q

What does NOT cause metabolic bone disease of reptiles?

A

High Ca: P ratio

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28
Q

What do you use to tx horse with A-fib?

A

Quinidine via NG tub e at 2 hours intervals until there is conversion or toxicosis

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29
Q

You are asked by the owner of a large sheep flock to solve this problem, which is that many of his sheep are developing caseous lymphadenitis caused by Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis. what is the best LONG-TERM solution for this flock problem?

A

Vaccinate all sheep against C-pseudotuberculosis
BUT NEVER VAX FOR ORF

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30
Q

What CS should you monitor with reptiles fed a raw fish diet?

A

Neuro signs

31
Q

what is the best way to differentiate cataracts from lenticular sclerosis in dogs?

A

dilate the pupils and perform a slit lamp evaluation aka retroillumination which will allow you to identify the fundic reflection, and in an animal with cataracts, there will be obstruction of reflected light to some degree

32
Q

What is known to migrate through the portal vein and into the liver of horses?

A

Strongylus edentatus and Strongylus equinus

33
Q

What is a toxin that can cause sudden stringhalt in horses aka sudden flexion of one or both HL?

A

Sweet pea intoxication

34
Q

Many chickens on a poultry farm are affected of two syndromes. Some chickens develop nodules and scabs that are most prominent on the comb, wattles, feet, and vent. Other chickens develop a diphtheritic membrane in the mouth and pharynx. What is the best tx for this flock?

A

Control the mosquito populations and vaccinate the chicks and replacement chickens with a single immunization against the suspected disease (which is avian/fowl pox)

35
Q

What test is used to diagnose a Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis infection with internal abscesses in horses?

A

Synergistic hemolysis inhibition test

36
Q

what test is used to diagnose dermatophytes?

A

KOH for screening test and DTM for ddx

37
Q

Equine infectious anemia is caused by a _____

A

virus

38
Q

A dog all swollen from vax is a type ___ rxn

A

a type I which is IgE mediated hypersensitivity which results in an immune-mediated hypersensitivity

39
Q

Ingestion of Dictyocaulus sp. in this stage of the life cycle results in infection of ruminants. What is the stage ingested?

A

3rd stage larvae

40
Q

An owner calls concerned that her 2 month old kitten vomited a worm. You just saw the kitten for an exam the week before and gave a dose of Pyrantel during the appt. According to the owner, the worm looks like a piece of spaghetti. What course of action do you take for the most likely diagnosis?

A

Continue dosing with Pyrantel every 3 weeks until the kitten is 3-4 months old (suspected Toxocara infection which can be transmammary transmission)

41
Q

PLR is intact with what toxicity but not with what other toxicity?

A

PLR is present with salt poisoning, lead poisoning and they disappear with vitamin A deficiency as a result of retinal degeneration and construction of CN 2

42
Q

Three feedlot yearling steers in a small home ranch operation present with star-gazing blindness, diarrhea, anisocoria, and strabismus. On PE, the steers are found to be underweight and in poor condition. The animals are being fed supplemented wheat and straw. PLR are absent in both eyes of all 3 steers and the operator reports that yesterday another steer with similar signs convulsed and died when being brought to the squeeze chute. What is most likely the diagnosis?

A

Vitamin A deficiency

43
Q

You are in the process of doing an ECG on charloais cow with COPD and notice that the P wave is tall and slender and measures 0.48 mV (normal is less than 0.4 mV), a condition known as P pulomale, what conclusion as to the nature of the cardiac abn can you make from this finding?

A

Right atrial enlargement

Tall P wave is pulmonale and wide is P mitrale

44
Q

Left atrial enlargement on ECG is called ______ _____

A

P mitrale

45
Q

Right atrial enlargement is known as ___ _____

A

P pulmonale

46
Q

A cockatoo is brought to your clinic for a health concern and on ophthalmic exam, you notice the lack of blood vessels in both retinas. What do you inform the owner is the most likely cause of this anatomical finding?

A

Normal finding of the avian eye

47
Q

Cryptococcus neoformans is associated with the feces of which animal???

A

bird

48
Q

A 5 year old normal appearing mare is brought to you for anestrus during the breeding season and being non-receptive to stallions and not showing signs of estrous for 3 months. She previously had a normal pregnancy and live foals in past years. On rectal palpation, you find active follicles on one ovary, both ovaries have normal feeling and size on palpation. Based on rectal palpation and US the mare is not preg and what is most likely the cause of the mare’s signs?

A

Persistent CL and progesterone is made by the CL which is preventing estrus

49
Q

what developmental defect is seen in lambs born from ewes infected with bluetongue virus during pregnancy?

A

Hydranencephaly where the brain’s cerebral hemispheres are like Swiss cheese or absent and replaced by sacs filled with CSF

50
Q

A horse presents to you with a corneal ulcer, you are concerned because it appears to be infected. You perform cytology and find gram neg rods, what is the most appropriate tx for this infection?

A

Topical tobramycin (which is an aminoglycoside and is effective against most gram neg organisms)

51
Q

What dog breed is predisposed to copper storage disease?

A

Bedlington terriers

52
Q

What toxin can cause congenital abn of cyclopia, anophthalmos, cleft palate and metacarpal hypoplasia if ingested by a pregnant ewe?

A

Veratrum californicum

53
Q

A 3 y/o gelding presents for lameness and PE reveals moist, exudative dermatitis of the central and lateral sulci of the frog in his hind feet and a thick black discharge with a malodorous smell. which of the following is an appropriate way to tx the disease?

A

Trim away necrotic hoof material, apply antiseptic products and apply a bandage and educate the owner on proper hygiene since this p has thrush a condition caused usually by Fusobacterium necrophorum of horses

54
Q

Marek disease is caused by what type of agent?

A

Herpesvirus

55
Q

Lepto is usually observed when livestock come into contact with urine from an infected maintenance host. Which of the following is the most impt maintenance host of L. interrogans serovar Pomona?

A

Swine

56
Q

.

A

.

57
Q

The relationship among incidence, prevalence, and duration of disease is best expressed as…

A

P = ID

Prevalence = Incidence x Duration

58
Q

A pig infected with Trichuris suis will show which of the following CS?

A

Mucoid diarrhea (Trichuris is the whipworm and is usually in older pigs)

59
Q

How to tx a horse that ingested rat poison?

A

1-2 L of plasma, NEVER give horses vitamin K because it is nephrotoxic

60
Q

Which condition is assoc. with apical fx of the proximal sesamoid bones, avulsion fx of the palmar aspect of the 3rd metacarpal bone, or fx of the distal 3rd of the small metacarpal bones in horses?

A

Suspensory ligament desmitis

61
Q

Heavy parasite loads of ____ in ____ may lead to prolapse

A

pinworms in mice

62
Q

What is true about Diltiazem?

A

It slows the heart by inhibiting the influx of calcium into the myocardial cells. It is a calcium channel blocker used to slow the heart to treat supraventricular tachycardias, HCM, and hypertension

63
Q

“railroad tracks” seen under the microscope from exudate of a lesion caused by Dermatophilus congolensis is actually what?

A

Long chains of branching cocci

64
Q

What is the most common cause of infectious abortion in sheep in North America?

A

Campylobacter (vibrio)

65
Q

several turkeys recently moved to a new housing, which previously housed chickens, have died. One is brought to you for necropsy and you find marked inflammatory changes, cecal wall thickening and ulcerations. There also also rounded necrotic lesions present on the liver. What is most likely the diagnosis???

A

Histomonas meleagridis

66
Q

____ ______ is the parasite which hosts protozoan Histomonas meleagridis which causes CS of drooping wings, unkempt feathers, sulfur colored droppings and death with liver and cecal lesions

A

Heteakis gallinarum

67
Q

An adult sheep presents with CS of shaking its head, rubbing its nose, and stomping its feet. It has mucopurulent nasal discharge, stridor, and is sneezing. What insect is most likely responsible for the sheep’s signs?

A

Osetrus ovis which is when fly deposits its larvae in the nostrils of the sheep using its ovipositor and the larvae then migrate up the nasal passage into the dorsal turbinates and sinuses where they develop for weeks before coming out, excessive infestations result in CS and may elicit a hypersensitivity reaction

68
Q

A rat is presented for bleeding from its eyes, on PE the rat is exophthalmic, squinting and has a swollen face and neck. There is red discharge from both eyes. What is most likely your diagnosis?

A

coronavirus infection which causes the salivary glands to be inflamed and clogged and disease is self limiting but can lead to secondary issues

69
Q

The owner of a nearby dairy calls to have a wound on his heifer inspected, it is located ventral and on the brisket and the larvae are feeding on the tissue. The wound is approximately 5cm in diameter and has now become 6 cm deep as a result of larva feeding. As you approach the cow, you see a large metallic blue green colored fly leaving the wound. What is the diagnosis?

A

Cochliomyia hominivorax (aka screw worm) which is REPORTABLE

70
Q

The MLV of equine viral arteritis is safe for what groups of horses?

A

Stallions and non preg mares since the vax is MLV, it can cause CS in those with under developed immune systems such as foals

71
Q

What type of virus is the causative agent of bovine respiratory syncytial virus?

A

Paramyxovirus

72
Q

a dog comes in with MCT, what is the most appropriate therapy of the choices provided?

A. administer cisplatin
B. Administer levamisole and aspirin
C. Administer pred and cimetidine
D. Cryosurgical removal
E. Conventional surgical removal of the mass

A

C. Administer pred and Cimetidine (pred is cytotoxic to MCT and cimetidine is a gastric acid reducer)

73
Q

n acute outbreak of v/d in piglets that are 1 week old with high mortality and morbidity rates is most likely what?

A

Transmissible gastroenteritis

74
Q
A

Comprehensive guide NAVLE (16 decks)

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