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Comprehensive guide NAVLE > Ambulatory Study Material > Flashcards

Ambulatory Study Material Flashcards

1
Q

Herpes 1 and 4 in horses

A

the equine vaccine decreases virus but does not prevent neurological form of the disease
The two most significant are EHV-1, which causes respiratory disease, abortion, and neurologic disease; and EHV-4, which primarily causes respiratory disease and only occasionally can cause abortion or neurologic disease.

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2
Q

what abx has the shortest meat withdrawal drug and time

A

Ceftiofur (all forms); milk is zero bc does not cross milk plasma barrier, meat withdrawal is 4-14 days

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3
Q

These two contagious mastitis agents are difficult to treat with antibiotics

A

Mycoplasma bovis (lacks cell wall), Staph aureus (microabscesses and creates biofilm around the cell wall)

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4
Q

This type of ovarian cyst can cause persistent estrus in a cow

A

Follicular cyst

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5
Q

What do we use to tx pyometra in cows?

A

PGF2 alpha

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6
Q

Bovine pregnancy signs at 1 month (30-35 days; earliest signs)

A

Vesicle

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7
Q

a calf should have a minimum of what % of body weight colostrum, within a maximum time frame of ?

A

10% (body weight), 2-6 hours

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8
Q

The use of these vaccines should be limited to 3 at a time in healthy cows and 2 at a time in at-risk or heifers

A

Gram negative (due to endotoxin)
Lipid A of LPS is the toxic portion

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9
Q

50% of persistently infected BVDV calves die before weaning due to these two causes

A

Mucosal disease (CE virus superinfection), immunosuppression

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10
Q

Where is GnRH secreted?

A

hypothalamus

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11
Q

Where are LH and FSH secreted?

A

Anterior pituitary

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12
Q

where is progesterone secreted?

A

CL

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13
Q

where is prostaglandin secreted?

A

Uterus

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14
Q

Where is estrogen secreted?

A

Follicle

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15
Q

In cows, uterine involution should be complete by this time

A

30-40 days

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16
Q

Average age at first calving for heifers

A

24 months

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17
Q

Antibiotic labeled for clostridial infections

A

PPG

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18
Q

Higher production of this VFA leads to higher milk production

A

Propionate

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19
Q

Most common cause of contagious mastitis in the US

A

Staph aureus

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20
Q

What are the 4 groups of environmental mastitis pathogens?

A

Strep (dysgalactia, uberis), Coliforms (E. coli, Klebsiella, Enterobacter, Citrobacter), Pseudomonas, yeasts

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21
Q

What are the ketone bodies breakdown

A

BHBA (betahydroxybutyrate) breaks down to acetyloacetate, which reduces to acetone and CO2

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22
Q

average milk production of a Holstein

A

23, 000 lbs/ lactation

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23
Q

How long is estrus in a cow?

A

18 hours, ovulates at the end

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24
Q

CS of milk fever

A

hypersenstivity, off feed, excitable, unable to rise, s-shaped neck, rumen stasis

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25
Q

How to prevent milk fever?

A

Ca:P ratio to.7:1
anionic cation ration for close up cows

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26
Q

when does metritis commonly occur

A

7-14 days post calving

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27
Q

Polioencephalomalacia

A

due to thiamine deficiency
stargazing, blindness, ataxia, dorsomedial strabismus
tx: thiamine, pred

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28
Q

Lead toxicity CS and TX–>

A

central blindness and diarrhea
tx: CaEDTA, oral binders, rumenotomy

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29
Q

2 most common causes of lateralized neurological disease in cattle

A

listeria
TEME aka Thromboembolic meningoencephalitis assoc. With Histophilus

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30
Q

circling disease

A

listeria

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31
Q

Malignant Catarrhal Fever

A

hemorrhagic diarrhea, uveitis, bloody urine, CNS signs, mucopurulent exudate

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32
Q

what vaccines should adult beef cattle get prior to breeding

A

Lepto, BVD, Campylobacter and IBR

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33
Q

Clostridium chauvoei aka

A

blackleg

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34
Q

ringworm aka

A

trichophyton verrucosum

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35
Q

Bacillary Hemoglobinuria (Red Water Disease) aka

A

clostridium haemolyticum

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36
Q

Malignant edema aka

A

Clostridium septicum

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37
Q

management options for a hydrocele

A

remove vaginal tunic
scrotal ablation

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38
Q

mycoplasma pneumonia

A

most common casuse of chronic pneumonia and non-productive cough in Pigs and potentiates PRRS

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39
Q

Define:
1. Paraphimosis
2. phimosis
3. priapism

A
  1. Inability to retract the penis
  2. inability to extrude the penis
  3. persistent erection without stimulation
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40
Q

5 criteria for mare being induced

A

normal fetal presentation
verifiable pregnancy length of 335 days
presence of pre colostrum electrolytes
cervical softening

41
Q

what is the appropriate technique used to manipulate the mare’s cycle to expedite her transition back to cycling in the winter

A

putting them under light in the winter, continue for 60 days

42
Q

primary bacterial agents involved with BRD (bovine respiratory disease) are:

A

Mannheimia, Mycoplasma, and Pasturella

43
Q

if specificity of a herd is 65% what does this mean?

A

65% of the herd are apparently healthy

44
Q

A 21 preg rate in cattle being 64% means….

A

95% of the calf crop during a 63 day calving season

45
Q

How many days is normal estrous in cattle?

A

21 days

46
Q

the type of vaccine which is most likely to cause a cell mediated response to viral pathogen is….

A

whole virus modified live vaccine

47
Q

_ is a bacteria that can result in violation of increased SCC bacteria in dairy cattle

A

strep agalactia

48
Q

What are the 3 main contagious causes of mastitis in dairy cattle???

A

Strep agalactia, Staph aureus, Mycoplasma bovis

49
Q

What bacteria causes gangrene mastitis?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

50
Q

What bacterial agent causes high SCC in milk?

A

Strep agalactiae

51
Q

What method do we use to prevent contagious mastitis? How can we prevent environmental mastitis?

A

Contagious mastitis- use POST dipping teat protocols and for environmental, use PRE dipping teat protocols

52
Q

_______ causes outbreaks of mastitis with history of swollen joints, esp. disease that occurred in the past of the infected individual(s)

A

Mycoplasma

53
Q

What is a very very contagious bacterial agent that is also able to resist treatments

A

Mycoplasma

54
Q

What are all of the GI pathogens in hutch calves that we need to look out for

A

E. coli, Rotavirus, coronavirus, coccidia

55
Q

___ causing pneumonia is the most common cause of mortality in post-weaning dairy calves

A

Pasteruella

56
Q

Breed dairy heifers at _____-____ months
Avg. age at first calving is usually ______ months old and avg. conception rate of AI at estrus is __-___% but with a bull timing it, it is ____%

A

Breed dairy heifers at 13-15 months
Avg. age at first calving is usually 22 months old and avg. conception rate of AI at estrus is50-60% but with a bull timing it, it is 40%

57
Q

What is the number one main risk period for mastitis and how do we prevent it?

A

Dry off period; we use 1mm for prevention

58
Q

What diet causes more milk production? How about buttermilk fat?

A

Propionic acid; acetic acid

59
Q

PPE level ___ is the lowest and __ is the highest

A

D; A

60
Q

BVDV exists as a persistently infected animal, mucosal disease, transitional/transient infection and the virus is a member of the ____ virus family and is generally associated with ______, ________ and _______

A

Pestivirus;
early embryonic death, immunosuppressants, congenital abn

61
Q

How soon after giving prostaglandins do you expect parturition?

A

48 hours after giving it, parturition may occur anytime between 2 and 7 days but 2 days is the avg.

62
Q

what causes epizootic bovine abortions (EBA) aka Foothill abortions

A

Ornithodoros coriaceus tick vector
this vector can be found in fetal thymuses and causes late abortions and abortion storms in the last trimester, the cows will be healthy but the aborted fetuses will have hepatosplenomegaly, and generalized lymphadenopathy

63
Q

how can you prevent epizootic bovine abortions aka foothill abortions

A

exposure to endemic areas before breeding and/or controlling tick vector populations or prophylactic abx use in high risk regions

64
Q

What is a toxin that causes last trimester abortions and cow are usually moribund after delivery and hemorrhage?

A

Ponderosa pine needles

65
Q

high mtn disease testing results telling you they have it…

A

PAP (pulm. arterial pressure) testing done at 6,000 ft or above on animals over 12 months showing less than 40mmHg pressure

66
Q

What do you think this cow has?
A rancher bought these cattle a few days ago and now they are showing ataxia, head tilt, knuckling, staggering, coughing, RR abn, and have fevers. On CSF tap they all have xanthochromia, increased protein, and increased number of neutrophils.

A

Histophilus somni infection.
This is a systemic infection that may start in the resp. tract in young and stressed often transported cattle. Early tx is abx

67
Q

What do we see CS of a cow with polioencephalomalacia???

A

stargazing, head pressing, depression, blindness
it is caused by a thiamine deficiency

68
Q

Prevent milk fever

A

Ca:P ratio to 7:1
anionic cation ration for close up cows

69
Q

Why do cows displace their abomasums?

A

decreased rumen fill and the void left by recent calving

70
Q

acid base and electrolyte disturbances associated with LDA

A

hypokalemia
hypocalcemia
metabolic alkalosis

71
Q

which nerve is where there is latent herpesvirus infections (in cats and in cattle)???

A

Trigeminal

72
Q

what is the appropriate technique used to manipulate the mare’s cycle to expidite her transition back to cycling in the winter

A

putting them under light in the winter, continue for 60 days

73
Q

pigs housed indoors are more likely to suffer from this respiratory disease

A

actinobacillus pleuropneumonia

74
Q

pig with nose deviated to the side likely has what virus?

A

Bordetella aka atrophic rhinitis

75
Q

what marks the beginning of a dairy cow’s next lactation?

A

The dry period, which should be 60 days prior to expected calving (during the dry period you should use IMM tubes and feed her differently- less protein, fat and carbs then actively lactating cows!!!!!)

76
Q

what are DCAD diets?

A

Dietary-Cation-Anion-Diets
which are diets that influence blood acid-base status which effects calcium homeostasis
* cation rations–> results in metabolic alkalosis which depresses tissue response to PTH and is ideal for use in the NON-PREPARTUM COWS (aka the non-transition cow group)
*anion rations–> results in metabolic acidosis so calcium carbonate can be released from the bone due to response from PTH to correct the metabolic acidosis, therefore the carbonate buffers free acid and leaves calcium in excess by itself to be used during PRE-PARTURITION aka the Transition group

77
Q

major loss of contagious mastitis is clinical or subclinical, what about in environmental mastitis???

A

contagious= subclinical
enviro. = clinical mastitis

78
Q

what are the most common causative agents of mastitis?

A
  1. strep agalactiae
  2. staph aureus
  3. M. bovis
79
Q

what are some environmental mastitis pathogens?

A

Coliforms (GRAM -), strep agalactiae, strep uberis, pseudomonas, Nocardia (GRAM +), yeast

80
Q

what is an easier infection to tx for mastitis?

A

Strep agalactiae
TX is IMM infusion during lactation of dry period and dry cow mgmt

81
Q

what is the most common agent associated with heifer mastitis?

A

Coagulase neg STAPH- most common pathogen in heifers

82
Q

summer mastitis aka

A

T. pyogenes-not contagious, will cause nasty abscesses of the udder, no tx kill the quarter

83
Q

what mastitis agent is zoonotic and infected individuals should be culled? What mastitis is easy to tx with IMM?

A

Nocardia infections; strep agalact. (Which is gram pos.)

84
Q

why do MLV go lower on the neck than other vaccines?

A

Because the live vaccines must migrate and can cancel out the MLV when they do and this is where the lowest priced cuts of meat are

85
Q

tx of nitrate toxicity–

A

Methylene blue- converts Hgb back to

86
Q

what is the test that is done to test for Nitrates?

A

Diphenylamine test, if it turns blue then the sample contains potentially dangerous levels of nitrate

87
Q

what animal is most sensitive to salt toxicity? What species is a sinus arrythmia common?

A

Swine for both answers

88
Q

Tx cyanide toxicity =

A

Sodium thiosulfate IV repeated as needed and supportive care like O2

89
Q

Test for cyanide toxicity–

A

Picrate test and if positive will turn bright yellow

90
Q

pigs sneezing with nasal discharge

A

atrophic rhinitis caused by bordetella

91
Q

when does metritis in cows usually occur?

A

first 7-14 days post calving

92
Q

Theilers disease aka idiopathic acute hepatic disease- what are the CS?

A

Acute depression, anorexia, severe icterus, photosensitization, hepatoencephalopathy, pica (means excessive swallowing)

93
Q

fetal sizes

A
  • 60 d = mouse
  • 90 d = rat
  • 120 d = small cat
  • 150 d = large cat
  • 180 d = beagle dog
94
Q

Placentomes sizes

A
  • 90 d: dime
  • 120 d: quarter
  • 150 d: half dollar
  • 180 d: silver dollar
95
Q

when are the most impt nutrient requirements in cattle?

A

late pregnancy

96
Q

maternal side of placentome is ____ and fetal side is ____ and there are protein bonds holding it together for the transfer of nutrients

A

caruncle; cotyledon

97
Q

clostridial infections produce ___ so organ will be ____

A

gas; crepitus

98
Q

what organisms has been associated with spirochetal colitis in swine?

A

Brachyspira pilosicoli

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