Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Comprehensive guide NAVLE > Super Boards NAVLE comprehensive Study Guide > Flashcards

Super Boards NAVLE comprehensive Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

Black widow spiders

A

Latrodectus mactans, L. hesperus

acetylcholine is the toxin binds calcium channels leading to ascending motor paralysis and destruction of peripheral nerves

p wil be recumbent, being in pain, vocalize, rigidity and muscle spasms and death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

warfarin

A

An anticoagulant – interferes with II, VII, IX, and X

Give Vitamin K1, if chronic give plasma as well

Prothrombin time (PT) will be prolonged soonest after ingestion – because VII has shortest half life and is part of extrinsic system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Brodifacoum

A

D-con – inhibits epoxide reductase (loss of Vitamin K – interferes with II, VII, IX, and X)

Give Vitamin K, monitor prothrombin time (PT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Cholecalciferol

A

gets converted to active Vitamin D to cause increased resorption of calcium and gut absorption of calcium leading to sometimes fatal HYPERcemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Ethylene glycol

A

High anion gap, azotemia, calcium oxalate crystalluria, metabolic acidosis, hyperglycemia, and either polyuria or oliguria (anuria in worst case), hypocalcemia (from chelation of Ca by EG metabolites)

Treatment aimed at alcohol dehydrogenase – give 4- methylpyrazole (4-MP) – does not work in CATS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Organophosphate

A

Inhibit acetylcholinesterase causing muscarinic signs such as hypersalivation, incoordination, and bloat

Treatment = atropine or 2-PAM (pralidoxime – anticholinesterase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

.

A

.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Strychnine is snail bait

A

Competitively antagonizes action of glycine – loss of impulse contractility in the spinal cord and brainstem – affects striated muscle

Give methocarbamol (for convulsions), prevent stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Acetominophen in cats

A

cats lack glutathione and glucoronyl transferase- leads to methmeogobinemia and tx with N-acetylcysteine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

HEINZ BODY ANEMIA

A

methylene blue, molybdenum deficiency, rye grass, brassica family

Zinc and onions can cause hemolytic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what lesion(s) do you see with salt toxicity

A

perivascular infiltration of eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

cooper toxicity is common in ____ and ____ are resistant

A

sheep; pigs are resistant

sheep will get hemolytic anemia and will see methemoglobinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what does deficiency of copper look like in sheep? What about toxicity?

A

def- ataxia, swayback and ascending paralysis

copper toxicity in sheep will have hemolytic anemia and will see methemoglobinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Grapes and raisins cause renal failure in dogs, but in cats we mostly worry about ____

A

lilies (the stargazer lily from the lillium family is the worst)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what affects pigs by acting as a potent estrogenic metabolite produced by Fusarium causing hyperestrogenism and pseudopregnancy?

A

Zealalenone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

salt poisoning causes what lesion specifically?

A

perivascular infiltration of eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

copper toxicity vs deprivation in sheep

A

toxicity- hemolytic anemia and methemoglobinemia
deficiency- swayback, ataxia, progressive ascending paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

grass tetany aka staggers

A

Hypomagnesia can cause which is important for the nervous system function and enzyme reactions and occurs in lactating animals in early spring with lush pastures that are well fertilized
causes restlessness, staggers, over alertness, excitable, convulsions and maybe even death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Slaframine

A

moldy red clover, causes hypersalivation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

oak leaves and acorns

A

hemorrhagic diarrhea, abdominal pain, tenesmus, colic, death
in cattle it causes renal damage but not the case for horses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Ergotism

A

Caviceps purpura aka a parasitic fungus (found in rye oats, wheat and KY bluegrass), alkaloids causes vascular constriction, thrombosis, colic, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are the toxic plants that are neurotoxins (there are 7 of them)

A

Blue green algae, night shade, water hemlock, perennial ryegrass, lead poisoning, sorghum, yellow start thistle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what neurotoxin causes a lesion that is myelomalacia of the lower SC?

A

Sorghum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

yellow star thistle causes what lesion?

A

nicropallidal encephalomalacia where there will be loss of prehension (dystonia of the lips and tongue) and has grave prognosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what are the (5) reproductive toxins?

A

False helbore
Locoweed
Fescue
Lupine
Pondersoa Pine Needles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what does bracken fern do as a toxin?

A

bone marrow suppression and thiaminase

Can cause polioencephalomalacia due to thiaminase – more so in HORSES than other animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what toxin is a vitamin K antagonist that causes hemorrhage but NOT hemolysis and PT time will be prolonged

A

Moldy sweet clover

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

all ____ are toxic to HORSES

A

ionophores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what are the 3 pulmonary toxins?

A

Perilla mint
Moldy sweet potatoes (produces 4-ipomeanol)
Brassica plants which are cabbage, kale, etc. (Causes FOG fever via 3-methyl-indole)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what are the (2) hepatic toxins?

A

pyyrolizidine alkaloids (like fiddleneck, ragwort, st johns wort, senecio) and alflatoxins (mycotoxin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is the difference between primary and secondary photosensitization?

A

*Primary photosensitization =
Contain hypericin which causes large areas of skin sloughing, mainly unpigmented areas
*Secondary photosensitization due to liver disease – usually chlorophyll in diet is converted to phylloerythrin and excreted by the liver – with hepatic disease it is deposited in skin – UV reacts with it and causes dermal damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

aflatoxin is a _____

A

mycotoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

how can we cross match blood types?

A

Major= donor’s RBCs vs. recipient plasma

Minor= donor plasma vs. recipient RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

to raise PCV 1%, how much do we need to raise packed RBCs in ml/kg

A

to raise PCV 1% we need to give 1mL/kg of packed RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what does suppurative mean? Granulomatous? Pyogranulomatous?

A

Suppurative means full of neutrophils

Granulomatous means mononuclear cells (lymphocytes, macrophages, plasma cells)

pyogranulomatous means mixed neutrophils and mononuclear cells (lymphocytes, macrophages, and plasma cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Von willebrands

A

Dobies, def of factor VIII (Hemophilia A) or IX (Hemophilia B) related antigen, so platelet function abn due to inability to adhere subendothelial collagen, tx with cryoprecipitate or Desmopressin which is an ADH inhibitor and clotting drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

canine thrombopathia

A

inherited where platelets fail to aggregate and secrete their granules, coagulation and platelet numbers are normal, seen in Basset Hounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Microcytic (smaller) hypochromic (less red) non-regenerative anemia means

A

iron deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what cytokine is most impt in systemic inflammation response syndrome aka SIRS???

A

Interleukin 1 (IL-1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

hypersensitivities

A

Type 1- IgE mediated, immune mediated (like vax rxn)
Type 2- Antibody dependent reactions, occurs due to IgG or IgM made against normal self antigens
Type 3- immune complex mediated (like sulfa drugs in doberman pinchers)
Type 4- delayed hypersensitivity cell mediated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

ECF to ICF ratio is

A

1:2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

ECF to ICF

A

1/3 ECF 2/3 ICF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Heart sounds S1-S4

Lub dub sounds

A

S1 = closure of the AV valves

S2 = closure of pulmonic and aortic valves-diastole

S3 = very subtle ventricular relaxation

S4 = very subtle, atrial contraction

The first “lub-dub” is the sound of the mitral and tricuspid valves closing. The second “lub-dub” is the sound of the aortic and pulmonary valves closing soon after.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

failure of closure of the foramen ovale causing shunting from ____ ____ to ____ ____

A

from left atrium to right atrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is the most common congenital heart defect in cattle, horses, and cats???

A

Ventricular septal defect (VSD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Dextropositioned aorta (overriding aorta), pulmonic valve stenosis, ventricular septal defect, right ventricular hypertrophy is what condition?

A

Tetralogy of fallot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Everything that went wrong with Tetralogy of Fallot? What does it cause?

A

Overriding aorta, pulmonic valve stenosis, ventricular septal defect, right ventricular hypertrophy causing right sided heart failure and a right to left shunt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

PDS are usually what side to what side?

A

usually left to right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what will we hear with PDA? What will we see on rads?

A

Continuous washing machine murmur (hear on both sides of chest) with waterhammer pulses

Radiographs = enlarged left heart with bulge of aorta near PDA on DV if left to right shunt which most of them are–> Only see right ventricular enlargement with PDAs that are shunting right to left which is not common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the most common congenital heart defect in dogs and how is it treated?

A

PDA and is treated with surgical ligation of the PDA, coil embolization BUT ONLY FOR LEFT TO RIGHT SHUNTS (which are the most common ones)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what heart valve in the cow is most commonly affected by valvular endocarditis?

A

tricuspid valve (and mitral)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what heart valve in the small animal and horse is most commonly affected by valvular endocarditis

A

aortic valve (also mitral)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

diagnosis of valvular endocarditis is….

A

vegetative lesions of heart valves, positive blood culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

why do we not give furosemide to pericardial effusion cases?

A

causes decreased preload on the right heart causing circulatory failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

ECG with hyperkalemia

A

no p wave, tall tended T waves, increased P-R interval and widened QRS complexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what causes right heart failure in cattle?

A

traumatic reticulopericarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Aspiration pneumonia characteristics on rads and on auscultation

A

Harsh lung sounds and crackles heard cranioventrally

Radiographs show alveolar pattern in right cranial and middle lung lobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

UMN signs

A

hyperreflexes, increased muscle tone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

LMN signs

A

decreased or absent spinal reflexes and decreased muscle tone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Localizing lesions

A

C1-C5- all 4 limbs show signs of UMN
C6-T2- LMN signs to thoracic limbs, UMN signs to pelvic limbs
T3-L3- UMN signs in pelvic limbs, normal thoracic limbs
L4-S4 -LMN signs in pelvic limb (and anus and bladder), normal thoracic limbs, dropping feces and urine and will not have anal reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

assess cranial nerve 2 (optic nerve) with what?

A

papillary light reflex and dazzle reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

assess cranial nerve 3 (oculomotor nerve) with what?

A

strabismus of the eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what does it mean if an animal has medial strabismus?

other eye notes in description answer

A

Loss of CN VI (Abducens nerve)

Eye movements are controlled by the oculomotor (III), trochlear (IV) and abducens nerves (VI).

With loss of CN III (oculomotor nerve) a ventrolateral strabismus occurs

CN IV (trochlear nerve) loss results in an outward rotation of the top of the eye. In an animal with a round pupil like the dog, this can be detected by the position of the vessels in the fundus.

Loss of CN VI (abducens nerve) function results in medial strabismus and absent globe retraction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

a CN lesion where causes dysphonia, dysphagia, abnormal vocalizing, inspiratory dyspnea, megaesophagus

A

CN 10 which is the vagus nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what are all of the characteristics of horners syndrome?

A

3rd eyelid protrusion, enophthalmos (retracted globe), ptosis (dropping eyelid), miosis (constricted pupil); in large animals may also see sweating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

MONONUCLEAR PLEOCYTOSIS on CSF tap, microabscesses in brainstem and cranial nerve roots is what disease?

A

Listeria (tx with penicillin- it is zoonotic so beware)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

IN CATTLE- NEUTROPHILIC PLEOCYTOSIS on CSF tap, xanthochromic/cloudy due to increased neutrophils is what disease?

A

Thromboembolic Meningoencephalitis (TEME) = Histophilus somnus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what does it mean when you find xanthochromic CSF fluid?

A

evidence of prior hemorrhage (yellow discoloration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what do we do in a patient in active epilepticus?

A

Give diazepam rectally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what is the tx goal in patients with head trauma and why?

A

minimize intracranial pressure by keeping a HIGH PaO2 to keep cerebral bf low without causing any hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what is the cushings reflex?

A

bradycardia and hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

how does the inner ear connect with the pharynx and such?

A

eustachian tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

what form of shock is ALWAYS associated with primary heart disease?

A

Cardiogenic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

what are some causes of metabolic acidosis in cattle? What about alkalosis in horses?

A

Cattle- acidosis from salivation or dehydration

Horse- alkalosis- loss of chloride in saliva and sweating in horses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

low ___ is called hypoxia

A

low PO2 is called hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Lyme disease is caused by ___ tick from what animal most commonly?

A

Ixodes tick; usually from white-footed mouse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Canine granulocytic ehrlichia is caused by what tick?

A

(E. wingii) caused by Amblyomma aka lone star tick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

canine monocytic ehrlichiosis

A

(Ehrlichia canis) caused by Rhipicephalus (brown dog tick)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What tick is responsible for causing rocky mountain spotted fever (causing bacteria Rickettsia rickettsii)?

A

Dermacenter (American dog tick)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

CS of rock mtn spotted fever is the same as Ehrlichia, how can you differentiate them?

A

rocky mtn spotted fever CS is over in 2 weeks and causes more vasculitis (tx the same thooo= Doxycycline)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Tularemia

A

zoonotic, rabbits carry it with the tick being the vector, can be used for biological warfare and cats affected more than dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Cytauxzoon felis

A

cat disease caused by the Dermacenter tick and is almost 100% fatal, causes ring shaped orgs in RBCs or schizonts in the spleen, liver, blood, BM, or LN and causes anemia with poor prognosis

needs heparin blood transfusion and azithromycin for Tx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Anaplasma marginale in cattle

A

TICK – but any blood feeding insect can transmit, so can needles/veterinary instruments
!!!EXTRAVASCULAR HEMOLYSIS – NO HEMOGLOBINURIA (how you differentiate from leptospirosis, bacillary hemoglobinuria, and anthrax)!!!!

Tx is oxytetracycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Babesia is a malaria like parasite causing RBC destruction and what two breeds are predisposed? What is the vector? What is the tx?

A

Greyhound and pitbulls predisposed; Boophilus ticks are vectors
TX is imidocarb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Epizootic bovine abortion aka foothill abortions in california foothills vector and CS

A

vector is Ornithodoros coriaceus (soft tick) and the CS is aborted fetuses with enlarged LN, spleen, and destructive lesions to the thymus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

what are the ticks that like to irritate cattle ears?

A

Otobius megnini

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

what does Histoplasma look like under microscope what is the CS?

A

small intracellular cysts and causes large bowel diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Cryptococcosis CS, where is it found and what does it look like under the microscope? How is it tx?

A

resp and ocular disease with roman nose, lymphadenopathy; survives in pigeon droppings, will see small yeast with large capsule and narrow based budding; tx is Fluconazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Aspergillosis on histopath looks like this…. what is the Tx?

A

Branching fungal hyphae on HISTOPATHOLOGY (not cytology!!!), can also see fungal plaques and tx with Clotrimazole (post recovery may see severe laryngeal edema)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Coccidiomycosis- what will you see on microscope? What are CS?

A

Will see spherule with is double walled containing endospores; CS similar to blasto but you will ONLY SEE SOME SKIN LESIONS IN CATS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

ketoconazole causes ____ in cats

A

vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What causes cutaneous larval migrans in people?

A

Hookworm (Ancylostoma caninum)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

what causes visceral and ocular larval migrans in humans?

A

Round worms (Toxocara canis/cati)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

tx of tapeworms is______ tx of whipworms is _____

A

tapeworms is praziquantel; tx of whipworms is fenbendazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

a kitten with unresponsive diarrhea likely has what flagellated parasite? How do you tx it?

A

Tritrichomonas foetus; tx with Ronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

what parasite causes sheep, pig, dog, and cat abortions or stillbirth sometimes? What is the tx?

A

Toxoplasma gondii; tx with Clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

what causes larval migrans to the brain causing CNS disease in humans?

A

Racoon roundworm aka Baylisascaris procyonis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

leishmania is transmitted by …

A

sand flies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Types I ostertagia ostertagii (cattle roundworm)

A

acute weight loss and diarrhea in naive cows, occurs in winter and spring, egg counts high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Type II ostertagia ostertagii (cattle roundworms)

A

chronic weight loss and diarrhea, in older cows, occurs in fall and winter and LOW egg counts with thousands of larvae in the abomasum “Moroccan leather”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

ostertagia osteragii tx

A

ivermectin or fenbendazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

what are some marked differences between Ostertagia ostertagii 1 and 2 in cattle (which are the roundworms of cattle)??

A

Type 1 has low egg counts and occurs in winter AND spring and not assoc. with abomasum

Type 2 is in the fall and winter, LOW egg counts, THOUSANDS i the abomasum and causes “Moroccan leather” appearance of the abomasum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

what parasite has rectangular look under microscope and is found in cattle?

A

Monezia aka cattle tapeworm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

what is the scientific name for threadworm in cattle?

A

Strongyloides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

what parasite in horses causes resp. signs bc migrates through the lungs and can cause intestinal impaction colic in YOUNG foals and can cause hypersensitivity in adults??

A

Parascaris equorum aka roundworm (ascarid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

what parasite causes diarrhea in foals and they get it from their dam’s milk?

A

Strongyloides westeri (can give preg mare ivermectin to prevent this)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

horses near cattle are at increased risk for this parasites?

A

Trichostrongylus axei aka small stomach worm aka hairworm and Haematobia irritans (horn/face fly) which causes crusting on ventral midline that is NOT itchy and will have wheels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

what is the stomach bot where you see little yellow fly bot eggs?

A

Gasterophilus intestinalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

where does Hypoderma bovis migate? Where does hypoderma lineatum migrate?

A

Hypoderma bovis migates to the epidural fat in the SC; Hypoderma lineatum migrates to the esophagus

(tx with ivermectin in fall)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Onchocerca cervicalis

A

dermatitis due to hypersensitivity of dying microfilaria, aberrant migration causes some eye changes, diamond shaped lesions, and ventral midline dermatitis

vector is culicoides and is tx with ivermectin for microfilaria but there is no tx for the adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

what is sweet itch?

A

Culicoides (type 1)hypersensitivity, seasonal in warmer months, tx by decreased exposure and steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Horse with ventral dermatitis that is non itchy can be what parasitic causes?

A

Onchocerca cervicalis and Haematobia irritans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

what causes summer sores in horses?

A

Habronema muscae aka stomach worm from stomoxys calcitrans (housefly) vector (the lesions will have calcified centers of larvae and causes gastritis, eosinophilic granulomas which are the famous “summer sore”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What is the vector for Habronema muscae aka stomach worm

A

stomoxys calcitrans (housefly)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

scabies is most economically important in what species?

A

swine (causes hyperkeratotic ear lesions mostly and they will be soooo pruritic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

scabies tx

A

ivermectin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Chorioptes equi aka equine mange mites lesions and tx

A

near the foot/fetlock, causes pruritic dermatitis
tx with ivermectin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Thelazia lacrymalis

A

Caused by musca autumnalis aka face fly of horses as the vector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

how to treat Thelazia lacrymalis aka eyeworm from Musca autumnalis (face fly) in horses?

A

manual removal and then 10% Levamisole drops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

A sheep with sneezing and head shaking presents to you. The sheep is not up to date on anything as they just purchased it from a local farm. What is a parasitic ddx? How is it treated?

A

Oestrus ovis which is where fly deposits larvae in the nostils and they migrate up the nose
cytology shows eosinophils and mast cells
Tx is Ivermectin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

what are the blood-sucking louse in cattle? How is it diagnosed?

A

Hematopinus species; causes in anemia in calves and can cause pneumonia; diagnosis with skin scrape seeing lice which have 6 legs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

what is the vector causing Trypanosomiasis which causes “Nagana” in cattle and sleeping sickness in humans

A

Tsetse fly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What is the vector of Chaga disease?

A

Reduvid beetle causes Chaga’s disease which is has the parasite Trypanosoma cruzi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Chaga disease from parasite ____ _____

A

Trypanosoma cruzi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

what parasite in rigs causes the following:
Migrates thru liver and causes milk spots and migrates thru the lungs and causes thumps and can cause death from intestinal impaction?

A

Ascaris suum (roundworm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

what is the tx for ascaris suum (roundworms) in swine?

A

fenbendazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

what parasite causes MUCOHEMORRHAGIC DIARRHEA in swine in all ages and seen by double operculated egg aka football shape

A

Trichuris suis (whipworm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

what is the pork tapeworm? What does it cause in humans?

A

Taenia solium; zoonotic and causes cysticercosis

(this is gross but pigs are the IH and eat infected human feces so then cysticerci are in the pig’s muscle and humans eat that pig meat undercooked and get it)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

what parasite causes high mortality in pigs under 3 weeks old and looks like E. coli but WILL NOT respond to any Abx???

A

Isospora suis aka coccidiosis (needs to be tx with Amprolium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

what is a worm that pigs get from colostrum in sows that are not UTD on dewormings?

A

Strongyloides randomi (threadworm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

A swine eating earthworms is at risk for what parasites (2)?

A

Metastrongylus aka lungworm and Stephanarus dentatus which is the kidney worm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

what are the two parasites that humans can get from eating undercooked pork?

A

Taenia solium (tapeworm) and Trichinella spiralis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

how do pigs get trichinella spirals and how do humans get it?

A

Pigs get it from eating garbage/meat of other infected animals and humans get it from eating encysted larvae from undercooked pork meat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Doxorubicin is ____ in dogs and _____ in cats

A

cardiotoxic in dogs and renaltoxic in cats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

what chemo drug can cause sterile hemorrhagic cystitis

A

cyclophosphamide (super hydrate the animal before giving)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

what chemo drug can cause paralytic ileus

A

vincristine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

what chemo agent can cause anaphylaxis? What about fatal pulmonary edema in cats?

A

L-asparaginase; Cisplatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

what chemo drug cannot be used in cats?

A

Cisplatin (will cause fatal pulmonary edema– “Cisplatin makes cats go spat”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

what chemo drug is neurotoxic in cats?

A

5-Fluorouracil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

enucleate a cow eye with lymphoma is TOC T/F

A

False, euthanize and meat cannot be used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

goats and sheep get this neoplasia in their nasal passages due to a virus

A

nasal adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Carcinoma is tumor of what cells? What do you see on cytology?

A

epithelial cells; see cohesive clusters of cells with tight junctions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Sarcoma is a tumor of what cells? What do you see on cytology?

A

mesenchymal cells; will see spindle shaped cells with elongated cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Round cell tumor examples

A

Lymphomas, mast cell (will see granules), plasma cell, histiocytic cell tumors, TVT (will have vacuoles)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

a rise in ____ means a fall in GFR

A

creatinine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

___% or more of renal function must be loss for a dog to be azotemic

A

75%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What stimulates the release of Anti-diuretic hormone?

A

Release is stimulated by = hyperosmolality and decreased circulating blood volume
It increases renal water resorption and urine osmolality by increasing permeability of collecting tubules
Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus detect changes in plasma osmolality and release ADH accordingly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Umbilical arteries become what? What do umbilical vein become? What about urachus?

A

Umbilical a= round ligament of bladder (caudal)

Urachus becomes middle ligament of bladder

Umbilical v= falciform ligament (cranial)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

what nerve provides sympathetic innervation to the bladder? What about parasympathetic?

A

Sympathetic is hypogastric nerve and parasympathetic is pelvic nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

what nerve provides somatic innervation to the bladder?

A

pudendal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

what has to occur for bladder emptying?

A

parasympathetic stimulation and sympathetic inhibition where pelvic n. stimulates detrusor muscle that results in contraction of the bladder to express urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

STORAGEEEE of urine involves what two nerves being activated?

A

Sympathetic and somatic nerves being activated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

why does renal failure cause metabolic acidosis?

A

low bicarb bc kidneys are injured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

renal failure tx

A

SQ fluids and renal diet, H2 receptor antagonist, oral phosphate binding agents, restrict dietary proteins, calcium channel blocking agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

what are some sequelae conditions from renal failure?

A

loss of ability to make calcitriol (active form of vitamin D), chronic weight loss, gastric ulcers, secondary hyperparathyroidism)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

what are the 4 main components for nephrotic syndrome (which occurs with PLN)?

A

Proteinuria, hypercholesterolemia, edema/ascites, hypoproteinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Urolithiasis in equine is made up of ___ _____ and form in acidic or alkaline urine

A

calcium phosphate; alkaline urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

what is the most common stone in sheep eating off a lush pasture (and is the most common urolith in equids also)

A

calcium carbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

What stones are common in cattle and sheep grazing on western rangeland?

A

silica stones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

struvite is made of what 3 components? what type of pH does it form in?

A

calcium, magnesium, and phosphate and forms in alkaline urine (seen in animals getting a lot of grain or in dogs/cats in conjunction with UTI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Calcium oxalate forms in what pH of urine?

A

acidic urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

can you see cystine or urate on rads?

A

nope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

urate stones

A

common in PSS patients and Dalmatians (defect in urate metabolism) and tx with allopurinol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

what form of dermatophytosis aka ringworm do cattle and goats get?

A

Trichophyton verrucosum mostly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

what are the most common serovars of Leptospirosis in dogs (3)?

A

Grippotyphosa, Bratislava, Pomona

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

what do progesterone and estrogen do during proestrus? What about estrus? diestrus?

A

Proestrus- Progesterone drops and estrogen rises
Estrus- progesterone lowers, estrogen is high (cornified epithelium and LH surge)
Diestrus- progesterone is high (this is where pyometras occur)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

pig gestation is ____ days and pregnancy depends on ____ sources of progesterone

A

114 days; depends on ovarian sources of progesterone throughout all of gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

sheep and goat gestation is ____ days and sheep estrous is ____ days whereas goat estrous is ____ days

A

gestation is 150 days; sheep estrus is 16 (14-19 days) days; goat estrus is 21 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

cattle estrous length is ___ days with a ___ day estrus cycle

A

21 days; they are in estrus for 8-20 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

when do cattle ovulate?

A

about 24 hours after onset of estrus (do intrauterine insemination around this time)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

In what ways can you synchronize estrus in cattle?

A

give 2 injections of PGF-2 alpha (prostaglandins) 11-14 days apart to lyse CL and will see estrus in 3 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

when can you use dexamethasone and PGF2 alpha to abort a cow’s fetus?

A

After 4 months of gestation—but if you want to be able to use just PGF2 alpha then you can do it after 8 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

when can you provide light to mares so she will start cycling again? How long is a horse in estrus?

A

provide artificial light for 16 hours per day 60 days prior to the start of breeding; a horse has estrus for 2-10 days (average is 6 days)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

takes ___ days for spermatogonia to mature to sperm

A

60 days (2 months)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

dog and cat gestation is ___ days

A

63 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

a rise in prolactin and fall in progesterone can cause _____

A

pseudopregnancy (will have mammary development, lactation, nesting, mothering of toys, etc.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

T/F 70-90% of mammary gland tumors in cats are considered malignant and majority of them will metastasize

A

True!!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Stats on dogs spayed and chance of mammary gland tumors

A

dogs spayed prior to estrus are 0.05% times as likely to develop mammary tumors as an intact dog, risk rises to 8% and 26% after one or two heats respectively with no decrease in risk if they are spayed after the third heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

mammary tumors in cats vs dogs

A

in cats 70-90% are malignant and tx is radical sx of the chain but in dogs, only 50% are malignant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

use the spay hook to get what specific structure (according to NAVLE)

A

Broad lig of uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

what will you see on cytology of a cat you think has ovarian remanent syndrome??

A

mostly cornified epithelial cells (also will have low LH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

pyometra occur when? during the influence of what hormone? what are the 2 main causes/predilections to pyometra???

A

occur in diestrus under the influence of progesterone

common causes are E. coli; or if dog is over 8 years old, may be cystic endometrial hyperplasia (which develops from repeated exposure to progesterone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

Salter Harris fractures 1-5 (remember, salter harris only applies to physeal fractures (physis is the GROWTH PLATE)

A

Type 1 = physis

Type 2 = physis and metaphysis

Type 3 = physis and epiphysis

Type 4 = metaphysis, epiphysis, physis

Type 5 = compression/crush injury to physis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

what do we want for articular fx fixations?

A

rigid fixation, anatomic realignment, early return to function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

HO vs HOD

A

HO is due to thoracic mass with limbs also affected

HOD is in young and large growing breeds and may be contributed to Ca/Phosphorus imbalance and is SUPER PAINFUL and affects the metaphysis “double physis line” but usually resolves on its own

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

what are the layers of the tear film?

A

Mucous portion – goblet cells

Aqueous portion – lacrimal gland, gland of third eyelid

Lipid portion – meibomian glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

What is the most common cause of cataracts in cats?

A

anterior uveitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

what is the tx of cataracts (which is increased opacity of the lens)

A

phacoemulsification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

tx of glaucoma

A

IV mannitol (decrease IOP through osmosis), oral or topical methazolamide/dorzolamide (carbonic anhydrase inhibitor – decreases aqueous production), topical latanoprost (prostaglandin analog)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

Prognosis of glaucoma

A

if they have glaucoma in one eye, will develop in other eye within 6-12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

what are the signs of anterior uveitis?

A

Rubiosis iridis (small fine blood vessels everywhere- neovascularization aka making new bf everywhere), aq. flare, hyphema (blood in the anterior chamber), decreased IOP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

what are the sequelae of anterior uveitis?

A

cataracts, glaucoma, corneal scarring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

T/F KCS is a common sequelae of anterior uveitis

A

False, ant. uveitis cannot extend that far into the lacrimal gland and cause KCS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

what is this disease:

gray spots throughout the fundus, retinal hemorrhage, hyperreflectivity

A

Chorioretinitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

Anisocoria definition

A

one pupil dilated and one constricted (sign of severe head trauma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

Lens luxation is common in what breeds? what type of luxation would require immediate lens removal?

A

common in TERRIERS; anterior luxation needs immediate lens removal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

what is the normal aging change to center of the lens?

A

nuclear sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

what is the tx for KCS??

A

cyclosporine eye drops (revereses immune mediated process, stimulates tear production, topical steroids (reduces immune destruction of lacrimal gland)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

what drugs can cause KCS?

A

TMS, atropine, anesthesia, etodolac aka strong NSAID I ain’t never heard of

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

immune mediated adenitis is the main cause of what eye condition?

A

KCS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

what is normal STT

A

15mm/60 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

Uncomplicated eye ulcers will heal in less than ___ days (present less than 1 week means uncomplicated)

A

5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

what is the tx of complicated eye ulcers

A

conjunctival flap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

what is the tx for melting corneal ulcer?

A

swab for cytology and culture (always assume its infected)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

Uveal cyst vs. uveal melanoma

A

Cyst = brown, round circular FREE FLOATING mass in anterior chamber – will TRANSILLUMINATE

Melanoma = brown, round circular NON-free floating mass – will NOT transilluminate and usually has more irregular boarders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

what abx cause cartilage abn in young animals?

A

enrofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

do not use what abx in rodents?

A

Streptomycin (anything ending in -ycin because causes clostridial enterotoxaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

what abx do we like to use in rodents?

A

enrofloxacin, chloramphenicol and TMS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

most foodborne illnesses in the US is caused by bacteria T/F

A

False, 2/3 of it is caused by viruses in the US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

what, in humans, is a syndrome lead on by resp. or GI infections (like food poisoning)

A

Guillian- Barre Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

____ produces shiga-like toxins?

A

E. coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

cattle have no symptoms for E. coli so how do we test for it/check for carriers in the herd? What media is it grown on?

A

ID carrier by sending a stool sample out for 0157:H7 fecal culture from random sampling of the herd and it will be grown on sorbitol MacConkey agar bc it ferments sorbitol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

raw honey sometimes has what zoonotic pathogen

A

botulism (do not feed to babies)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

psychrophilic means

A

grows at low temperatures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

What does listeria cause in humans?

A

abortions and stillbirths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

what is a primate disease causing dysentery in humans???

A

Shigella

217
Q

what is from shellfish that causes GI signs in humans?

A

Vibrio cholera

218
Q

fish anesthesia

A

MS-222 has 21 day meat withdrawal

219
Q

Who regulates catfish? Who regulates salmon?

A

USDA regulates catfish; FDA regulates Salmon

220
Q

Snuffles in small mammals is caused by what?

A

Pasturella multocida

221
Q

what is the most common vertebra to be fx in small mammals?

A

L7

222
Q

____ ____ is the rabbit ear mite, how is it tx? What med do we avoid at all costs?

A

Psoroptes cuniculi; tx with ivermectin or selamectin DO NOT use Fipronil (Frontline) bc it is veryyy toxic to rabbits

223
Q

why should you never house rabbits and guinea pigs together?

A

bordetella bronchiseptica

224
Q

in rats, what causes Tyzzer’s disease?

A

Clostridium piliforme (causes focal areas of hepatic necrosis and inflammation of ileum)

225
Q

what is the disease in a rat bleeding from its eyes?

A

Sialodacryoadenitis caused by a coronavirus

226
Q

Mammary tumors in rats vs. mice

A

rats- benign (fibroadenoma)
mice- malignant associated with retrovirus - can be found anywhere, even on dorsum

227
Q

what is the ringworm in mice/rats called?

A

Trichophyton mentagrophyte

228
Q

Adenoma in ferrets secretes ___ which causes what? What is the tx?

A

Estradiol; causes vulvar hyperplasia (females), hair loss, pruritus, behavioral changes, prostatic issues; TX is adrenalectomy

229
Q

T/F ferrets get mediastinal and multicentric lymphoma instead of GI like in cats

A

Trueeee

230
Q

what abx cause cartilage abn in young animals?

A

enrofloxacin

231
Q

Mammary tumors in rats vs. mice

A

rats- benign (fibroadenoma)
mice- malignant associated with retrovirus - can be found anywhere, even on dorsum

232
Q

progressive unilateral leg lameness with mass and weight loss is consistent with what disease in birds?

A

renal adenocarcinoma

233
Q

is the level of calcium high, normal, or low in a bird that is egg bound?

A

LOW

234
Q

Adenovirus causes what in chickens?

A

egg drop syndrome

235
Q

what is a true ER in pet birds?

A

egg binding

236
Q

what nutritional derangement causes nutritional encephalomalacia and exudative diathesis with myopathy?

A

Vitamin E deficiency

237
Q

choline def in turkeys causes _____ on histo

A

chondrodysplasia

238
Q

what is the most serious disease in crows that is from mosquitos and also affects geese but not really chickens or turkeys?

A

WNV

239
Q

infectious bovine rhinotracheitis (IBR) is bovine herpesvirus 1 and causes what? Where can it lay latent?

A

Causes upper respiratory signs with white plaques on conjunctiva and nasal epithelium and abortions, can lay latent in the trigeminal ganglia

240
Q

cows with hocking cough, pulmonary edema and emphysema likely have what?

A

Bovine respiratory syncytial virus which is in the Paramyxovirus family and is known for interstitial emphysema and edema due to ruptured bulla and syncytial cells

241
Q

BVDV is what type of virus?

A

flavivirus

242
Q

What are 3 related pox viruses that are all zoonotic?

A

pseudocowpox, contagious ecthyma (orf) , and bovine papular stomatitis

Vesicular stomatitis is also zoonotic but it is caused by Rhabdoviridae virus

243
Q

bovine papular stomatitis

A

seen as small raised lesions in the mouth around the gums and on dental pad and show recover in less than a month

244
Q

tx of lumpy jaw aka ___ ____

A

Actinmoyces bovis (gram +) tx is sodium iodide but usually just CULL

245
Q

Woody tongue aka _____ _____ and tx

A

Actinobacillus lingieresii (gram -) tx is IV sodium iodide like in lumpy jaw, but also tetracycline and change feed to be less poky

246
Q

calf diphtheria will kill a calf in a week without tx and causes severe resp. signs. What is the causative agent?

A

Causative agent is Fusobacyerium necrophorum

247
Q

a cow with fever, diarrhea of foul smelling watery green feces and decreased rumen contractions likely has what? What is the tx? Is it zoonotic?

A

Salomonella typhimurium which is a gram neg facultative anaerobe and tx is Ceftiofur and is zoonotic

248
Q

what form of salmonella causes green foul smelling watery feces in cattle?

What form of salmonella affects calves and they get it from the dam in her milk and causes SEPTICEMIA and tx is CULL?

A

Salmonella typhimurium zoonotic; Salmonella dublin (death in calves)

249
Q

salmonella dublin

A

seen in calves from their dam’s milk, causes septicemia and death and histopath shows serosal and SubQ petechial hemorrahges with very heavy and wet lungs and tx is CULLLL carries, but can vax calves to prevent

250
Q

M. bovis transmission is ____ and causes what CS? What do you find on necropsy? What is the TOC?

A

via milk; causes resp. signs, inner ear infections, lameness, swollen joints and fever
on necropsy, will find lungs with abscesses and culture using Hayflick agar and tx is Tulathromycin (tetracycline + tilmicosin)

251
Q

remember ____ lacks a cell wall so what 2 drugs may be bad choices

A

mycoplasma so cannot use penicillins or cephalosporins because they will not work since they target bacterial cell walls

We use Tylomycosin/Tilosin or Enrofloxacin

252
Q

T/F campylobacter fetus subspecies venerais causes abortions, temporary infertility and EED in cattle.

A

Trueee

253
Q

hypocalcemia in periparturient cows that recently freshened is from …

A

milk fever

254
Q

uterine lochia red and mucoid and “ s shaped” neck in recently freshened cow means…

A

milk fever

255
Q

how can we prevent milk fever in cattle?

A

DCAD diet which makes cows more acidotic so they have more PTH which makes the cow absorb more calcium (urine should be between 6.2-6.8 to be deemed acidotic) and give cattle this DCAD diet for 2-3 weeks before calving

256
Q

Hypomagnesia causes grass tetany. How does it occur?

A

It occurs from cattle being on lush pastures that are high in potassium and low in magnesium

257
Q

what do you suspect in a cow that recently freshened experiencing hypophosphatemia?

A

postparturient hemoglobinuria from hemolysis bc low phosphorus

258
Q

in cattle, phosphorus levels < _____ mg/dL causes hemolysis

A

<2 mg/dL

259
Q

calves with diarrhea have metabolic acidosis or alkalosis?

A

Acidosis (and hypovolemia with hyperkalemia and risk of sepsis!!!)

260
Q

What type of abomasal ulcers are the bleeding ulcers that need 4-8 L of fresh whole blood IV as tx along with supportive care?

A

Type 2 ulcers are bleeding ulcers

261
Q

what does this cow likely have:
Recently freshened, right sided ping from 9th-13th rib, no rumen contractions and hypochloremia hypokalemia metabolic alkalosis

A

Abomasal volvulus/torsion

262
Q

what does this cow likely have:
scant blackberry jam-looking feces with dilated small bowel, sausage shaped mass on rectal exam and hard and painful mass on the right where the ileum is

A

intussusception

263
Q

how do you tx intussusception?

A

right flank surgery

264
Q

vagal ingestion in cattle and the different types:

A

Type 1- free gas bloat (failure to eructate)
Type 2- failure of omasal transport- will have fluid filled rumen with dorsal gas
Type 3- failure of pyloric outflow- will be SICK AF
Type 4- abomasal impaction- more common in suffolk sheep than in cattle

Know difference from looking at their electrolyte levels!!

265
Q

peak lactation is __-__ weeks postpartum

A

4-8 weeks

266
Q

to reduce contagious mastitis, pre/post dip, what about to prevent environmental mastitis

A

contagious mastitis- post dip
environmental mastitis- pre dip

267
Q

what are some pathogens that are considered contagious mastitis pathogens? What are the environmental ones?

A

Contagious- staph aureus, strep agalactiae, M. bovis

Environmental- coliform (so like Nocardia, E. coli), Strep, Klebisella, Pseudomonas, Archaebacterium, Proteus

268
Q

What is the only mastitis pathogen that responds during lactation to intramammary infusions and causes high SCC?

A

Strep agalactiae

269
Q

what is the mastitis pathogen that causes joint infections and ear infections also and is known for causing fibrosis of glandular tissue and tx is CULL?

A

M. bovis

270
Q

what is the TOC of a cow with M. bovis mastitis?

A

CULLLLL

271
Q

Udder is swollen, hot and painful and she has serum coming out of her teat ends with clumps of fibrin in it. She also is down and has scleral injection with low rumen motility. What is likely her diagnosis???

A

Mastitis due to Coliform pathogen

272
Q

what is TOC of cow with coliform mastitis? What about Nocardia?

A

Frequent milking, NSAIDs, Abx, IV fluids; cull with Nocardia bc zoonotic potential

273
Q

what is shipping fever?

A

Pneumonia from mannhemia hemolytica

274
Q

Pasteurella multocidia in cattle

A

causes enzootic pneumonia, usually have cranioventral consolidation, also diarrhea, common in calves 3-8 months old and is economically devastating bc poor weight gain without major CS so sneaks up on ya

275
Q

coxofemoral luxation is usually what direction?

A

cranial and dorsal displacement

276
Q

horse or cow able to extend the hock and flex stifle at the same time has what ruptured?

A

ruptured peronesus tertius

277
Q

fly scapula is the ___ ___ muscle is ruptured

A

serratus ventralis muscle

278
Q

what is spastic paresis?? How is it tx?

A

hereditary disease that causes stiffness of the hocks from 3 weeks to 1 year of age and will have hocks that will not flex bc gastroc tension and tx is tibial neurectomy or gastroc tenectomy

279
Q

Charolaise cattle are predisposed to ____ deficiency

A

myophosphorylase deficiency which is a glycogen storage disease

280
Q

def. diagnosis of copper deficiency is

A

liver biopsy

281
Q

what metabolic derangements will occur in cattle with a ruptured bladder?

A

Hyponatremia, hypochloremia, hyperphosphatemia with azotemia and possible hyperkalemia

282
Q

what is a herpes virus causing white plaques on the vagina of cows?

A

Infectious pustular vulvovaginitis

283
Q

FIP is a ___ virus that has fecal to oral transmission

A

coronavirus

284
Q

what do you tell an owner who is concerned because she just euthanized her two year old cat due to FIP in regards to the other cats she has at home?

A

FIP Is fecal to oral transmission, can live in environment for up to 2 weeks but cleaning will get rid of it usually bc not stable, also feline enteric coronavirus has to mutate to become FIP which only happens in young, immunosuppressed cats. Its NOT considered contagious so just because one of her cats had it does not mean the others will get it

285
Q

what is gold standard diagnosis of FIP?

A

Biopsy and histopathology

286
Q

FIP is a poor prognosis/fatal disease T/F

A

Trueee

287
Q

a cat comes in with oral ulcers, stomatitis, and lameness. What do you suspect?

A

Feline calicivirus

288
Q

what is the tx for calicivirus?

A

Clindamycin, sucralfate (coat GI ulcers), analgesia, esophagotomy tube (if won’t eat on own), L-lysine (antiviral)

289
Q

what virus do 80-100% of cats carry without any CS?

A

Feline herpesvirus aka feline viral rhinotracheitis virus

290
Q

what virus in cats usually lays latent until they are stressed and can cause URI signs but also linear dendritic ulcers of the eye but not really any oral ulcerations? What is the tx?

A

Feline viral rhinotracheitis virus aka feline herpesvirus; Tx is L-lysine (antiviral) and decreasing stress

291
Q

what bacterial infection of cats causes URI signs without oral ulceratiosn and tx is tetracyclines

A

chlamydophilia felis (also mycoplasma causes URI signs WITHOUT oral lesions)

calicivirus is the one with oral ulcers!!!! will also has chemosis and nasal discharge

292
Q

what bacterial agent in cats causes feline infectious anemia and tx is doxycycline (but be careful about esophageal strictures!!!)???

A

Mycoplasma haemofelis

293
Q

what is the causative agent of cat scratch fever?

A

Bartonella henselae (infects RBCs of cats and is transmitted by FLEAS – cat gets flea dirt in their claws then scratches human) tx is doxycycline, flea tx, and they will always be carriers so only treat when symptomatic

294
Q

A cat who likes to play with rodents presents to you for fever, mandibular lymphadenopathy with a draining tract under the chin, covered in fleas, and the dog in the house also has lymphadenopathy. What is the first thing you should think? How do you slam-dunk this diagnosis? What is the Tx?

A

I think it is Yersinia pestis aka The Plague from rats/ fleas; cytology showing bi-polar safety pin appearance, ddx based on culture tho; tx is lancing tracts called “buboes” and flush it and it will recover on its own BUT HIGHLY ZOONOTIC

295
Q

what is the TOC for cat with megacolon?

A

subtotal colectomy (ileocolic artery will limit the amount you can resect)

296
Q

what is the tx for hairballs?

A

laxatone, high quality diet, metoclopramide (promotility)

297
Q

What are the CS with feline lower urinary tract disease (FLUTD)??

A

dysuria, pollakiuria (frequent abn urination), hematuria, stranguria (likely to recur even if you successfully tx the underlying cause the first time…)

298
Q

how do you use glucose levels from a tap to see if there is infectious effusion?

A

decreased glucose in the effusion compared to the serum means infectious

((When the glucose of the abdominal effusion is found to be at least 20 mg/dL less than the peripheral blood glucose, the effusion can be diagnosed as a septic abdominal effusion with 100% sensitivity and 100% specificity in canines))

299
Q

what are some examples of beta 2 agonists (great for feline asthma p)

A

Terbutaline, theophylline, albuterol

300
Q

why do we avoid atropine in cats with asthma?

A

it will thicken the bronchial secretions and cause mucous plugging in the airway (same reason why we do not like it in cattle I think)

301
Q

basal cells tumors are _____ in origin

A

epithelial in origin

302
Q

what do we ALWAYS suspect in a cat that had trauma to the eye awhile ago and is now blind?

A

feline traumatic sarcoma of the eye which is VERY MALIGNANT in cats and TOC is removing the eye even if they is no pain associated with it

303
Q

what is the medical term for eye damage causing blindness?

A

phthisis bulbi (think feline traumatic sarcoma in cats!!!)

304
Q

young male cats that are neutered and obese are at higher risk for what orthopedic dysplasia?

A

Capital physeal dysplasia where there is a fx across the femoral head physis

305
Q

A cat jumped off the fridge and hyperextended his carpal joint. What is the TOC and prognosis?

A

arthrodesis of the joint and has pretty good prognosis

306
Q

what eye issue does taurine deficiency cause in cats? what heart condition might they develop?

A

Central retinal degeneration; they might get dilated cardiomyopathy

307
Q

what does central retinal degeneration look like in cats (seen with taurine deficiency diets)

A

Elliptical area of tapetal hyperreflectivity starting in area centralis dorsolateral to the optic disk that progressies to a horizontal band and eventually can involve the entire fundus

308
Q

what dog virus causes GI signs, neuro signs, and respiratory signs in puppies?

A

Distemper virus (which is a paramyxovirus) also causes enamel hypoplasia which is pathognomonic for dogs infected in puppy hood

309
Q

what age puppies are most susceptible to distemper virus?

A

3-6 months old

310
Q

what is the agent if the p has mucoid diarrhea with cytology showing motile, S-shaped or “gull shaped” rods?

A

Campylobacter jejuni

311
Q

what agent is common in dogs fed the BARF (raw) diet?

A

Salmonella

312
Q

what causative agent of bloody diarrhea has tx being Pepto

A

C. dif

313
Q

what agent is filamentous and branching and a normal inhabitant of the oropharynx with being assoc. with grass awn migration?

A

Actinomyces

314
Q

Neorickettsia helminothoeca aka ____ _____ disease. What is the vector?

A

Salmon poisoning disease; the vector is Nanophyetus salmincola

315
Q

Collie eye anomaly–

A

congenital in Collies (see in 80% of breed)
Choroidal hypoplasia
Some are completely blind and some show no visual deficits

316
Q

What eye thing do Golden retrievers sometimes get?

A

Extraocular polymyositis– acute onset of bilateral exophthalmos WITHOUTTTTTTT pain or swelling and due to autoimmune reaction against the muscle (like with masticatory muscle myositis) and tx is prednisone +/- azithioprine

317
Q

Middle aged obese female dogs with Cushing’s are predisposed to what eye condition???

A

Sudden Acquired retinal degeneration syndrome

318
Q

toy and mini poodles are predisposed to what eye issues causing night blindness due to loss of rods/cones and on fundic exam the optic disc will be pale and there will be gray lines on the fundus?

A

Progressive retinal degeneration/atrophy

319
Q

what is a normal aging of the eye seeing scalloped margins of the pupil?

A

Iris atrophy

320
Q

chronic superficial keratitis

A

seen in GSD, PANNUS due to UV light exposure causing an immune reaction
and diagnosis is normal STT and dying and tx is topical steroids with cyclosporine lifelong

321
Q

What dermatologic condition is common in Dachshunds and is genetic and causes hyperpigmentation of axillary and groin regions

A

Acanthosis nigricans

322
Q

Dogs with acanthosis nigricans (seen mostly in Dachshunds where they have hyperpigmented axillary regions and groins) have a high risk of secondary infections, like what?

A

bacterial and yeast infections and seborrhea

323
Q

color dilution alopecia

A

seen in fawn colored and dobermans and yorkies
hereditary alopecia that affects the color diluted areas, develops in animals with less melanin
no tx warranted

324
Q

canine familial dermatomyositis is seen in what breeds? What are the CS? what is the tx???

A

Seen in collies, shetland sheepdogs; CS are atrophy of muscles, crusting and alopecia of the skin which worsens with heat and UV rays
Tx is steroids, vit E and omega 3 FA but may not even work

325
Q

Discoid lupus erythematosis

A

Depigmentation/ulceration of the nasal planum, alopecia and crusting of the muzzle/lips/around eyes

326
Q

lupoid dermatosis is seen in what breed? what does it cause?

A

German shorthaired pointers; a FATALLLLL disease initially causing crusting and scaling of the head and dorsum

327
Q

pemphigus foliaceus causes ___, ____, and ____ of the nasal planum

A

erythema, ulceration, and depigmentation

328
Q

Atopic dermatitis CS, diagnosis and TX

A

Pruritis and erythema of the face, ears, and feet SEASONALLY (when high pollen in environment)
Diagnosis = intradermal skin testing (IDST), serum ELISA (measures antigen specific IgE in animal)
Treatment = hyposensitization (injections of allergen into patient to increase their tolerance) – cyclosporine, antihistamines, and corticosteroids too

329
Q

pyoderma is usually from what causative agent?

A

staphylococcus pseudointermedius

330
Q

what is the most common benign skin tumor in dogs? What about malignant?

A

Sebaceous gland tumor (most common in cocker spaniels, beagles, poodles, and mini schauzers) and more common malignant skin tumor is mast cell tumor

331
Q

what breed is predisposed to familial hyperlipidemia/hypertriglyceridemia?

A

Mini schnauzers

332
Q

how to know abdomen is septic using glucose levels???

A

compare blood glucose to peritoneal fluid glucose (peritoneal fluid glucose will be >20 mg/dL less than blood glucose – provides rapid and reliable diagnosis)

333
Q

what breed is predisposed to perianal fistulas? What is the tx?

A

GSD; the tx is immunosuppressive drugs and sx is used if severe but beware of fecal incontinence

334
Q

what is a hepatoid tumor that is testosterone dependent and is found in intact males and tx is castration?

A

Perianal adenoma

335
Q

PLE occurring due to ______ is the dilation/dysfunction of the GI’s lymphatic syndrome which leaks protein-rich lymph into the intestinal lumen and causes lymphocytes, proteins, and cholesterol to be lost

A

lymphangiectasia

336
Q

what will you see on labwork of a patient with lymphangiectasia?

A

Hypoproteineima and low calcium

337
Q

why do we NOT use corticosteroids for CCL rupture?

A

causes eakening of the ligaments

338
Q

patellas most commonly luxated medially or laterally??

A

Medially esp in small dogs

339
Q

Positive ortalani sign tells you that there is what?

A

tells you that there is hip laxity (hip dysplasia)

340
Q

what is an Ehmer sling and what is it used for?

A

it is used for closed reduction of hip laxation issue that prevents weight bearing and aids in maintaining some degree of abduction and internal rotation of the affected limb (leave on for 7-10 days)

341
Q

what are the most common anatomical sites for OCD in dogs?

A

STIFLE TALUS SHOULDER ELBOW

large animals rarely have elbow involvement

caudal aspect of humeral head of shoulder, medial aspect of humeral condyle in elbow, tarsocrural joint of the trochlear ridge of the talus, and the femoral condyle of the stifle

342
Q

distal radial fx are common in what sized dogs and why? What is the TOC for fixation?

A

usually in smaller dogs due to lower bf to the distal aspect of the radius; TOC is internal fixation but not with bone plate and screws and remember no IM pin and cerclage wire because interferes with the joints or somethin

343
Q

What is coonhound paralysis?

A

Aka Idiopathic polyradiculoneuritis; associated with racoon exposure, acutely progressive paralysis in the HL and progresses to the FL and affects all motor nerves and tx is supportive care (it is self limiting)

344
Q

What is canine degenerative myelopathy?

A

seen in GSD, it is progressive degeneration of the axons in the SC that causes symptoms similar to hip dysplasia

345
Q

what is myasthenia gravis???

A

Causes progressive tetraparesis, weakly ambulatory, delayed CP in all four feet

Radiographs = megaesophagus, aspiration pneumonia, mass in cranioventral abdomen (thymoma)

TOC is edrophium (anticholinesterase) that reverses signs of myasthenia within minutes

346
Q

what is discospondylitis?

A

hematogenous spread of bacteria to the SC from some infection somewhere else in the body (do bacterial culture and look for vertebral endplate lysis on rads)

347
Q

How is trigeminal nerve (CN V) neuropathy different than Masticatory muscle myositis???

A

progressive muscle loss on the skull, atrophy of the masseter and temporalis muscles on ONE SIDE (unilateral) if BILATERAL it is called masticatory muscle myositis which is an autoimmune condition that leads to atrophy of the same muscles on both sides!!!

348
Q

what tumor is common in cryptorchid males that releases estrogen and causes male feminizing syndrome?

A

Sertoli cell tumor

Does NOT cause pu/pd– one of the VetPrep Q lol

349
Q

Spayed females most likely get this tumor which are usually very small and common CS is hypercalcemia due to PTH secretion of the tumor

A

Apocrine Gland Anal Sac Adenocarcinoma (AGASACA)

350
Q

castration does not decrease the risk of ____ ____ but DOES decrease the risk of _____

A

prostatic neoplasia; prostatitis

351
Q

what is the maintenance energy requirement formula?

A

dogs and cats = 30 X BW kg + 70

or 70 X (BW kg)^0.75

352
Q

what dog breed is predisposed to having amyloidosis which causes 4 signs of nephrotic syndrome being proteinuria, hypercholesterolemia, edema/ascites, and hypoproteinemia

A

sharpi

353
Q

Amyloidosis causes what 4 signs of nephrotic syndrome? What will you see on histology/necropsy? what is tx?

A

proteinuria, hypercholesterolemia, edema/ascites, and hypoproteinemia

kidneys will be grayish to white and enlarged on histopathology; Tx is ACE inhibitors and dietary protein restriction and aspirin

354
Q

hypothyroidism in dogs is usually caused by what?

A

immune mediated lymphocytic thyroiditis

355
Q

pheochromocytoma is a tumor of the ___ _____ and secretes ______

A

adrenal medulla; catecholamines

356
Q

Parts of the adrenal gland CORTEX—»>

A

zon glomerulosa-aldosterone
zona fasciculata- glucocorticoids
zona reticularis- androgen

357
Q

medulla of the adrenal gland-

A

chromaffin cells- catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine)

358
Q

Primary hyperparathyroidism–

A

adenoma of the parathyroid gland is most common, hypercalcemia, hypophosphatemia (calcium and phosphorus move opposite to one another)

359
Q

too much vitamin D leads to what in terms of calcium and phosphorus levels?

A

Leads to high calcium and high phosphorus

360
Q

Concentric hypertrophy is defined as what?

A

thickened wall of L ventricle and impairs diastolic filling but there is no problem with contractility

361
Q

concentric is fat walls of the heat whereas eccentric is thin walls of the heart T/F

A

Trueee

362
Q

HCM

A

seen in main coons but all cats, assoc. with hyperthyroidism, hypertension and aortic

363
Q

HCM is ____ hypertrophy but DCM is _____ hypertrophy

A

HCM is concentric; DCM is eccentric

364
Q

what is pulmonic stenosis will have murmur where on auscultation? What is the tx?

A

will have murmur over left heart base and tx is balloon dilation valvuloplasty (inflated balloon in the stenotic region)

365
Q

aortic stenosis occurs in larger or smaller dog breeds usually? What about pulmonic stenosis?

A

Aortic stenosis usually occurs in larger breed dogs whereas pulmonic stenosis is usually in smaller breed dogs

366
Q

pulmonic stenosis usually occurs in smaller dog breeds, besides what large dog breed that gets it?

A

Mastiffs

367
Q

aortic stenosis—what is the tx?

A

tx is abx, beta blockers (atenolol for example to reduce the myocardial O2 demand) and balloon dilation (but results are usually not great)

368
Q

tricuspid valve dysplasia

A

signs of right heart failure (ascites, hepatomegaly), systolic murmur at RIGHT mid-thorax, prognosis depends on the degree of regurg, will see severe cardiomegaly with marked right atrial and ventricular enlargement on rads

369
Q

severe cardiomegaly with marked right atrial and ventricular enlargement on rads means what heart issue? What breeds are predisposed?

A

Tricuspid valve dysplasia; large breed male dogs predisposed esp LABS AND GSD

370
Q

mitral valve dysplasia

A

dysplasia- congenital form where large breeds are predisposed most in cats actually

degeneration- older animals, small breeds

both have same PE and rad findings which are regurg jet across the mitral valve with murmur at left heart apex and enlarged left atrium on rads

371
Q

.

A

.

372
Q

how to diagnose Boxer cardiomyopathy aka right ventricular arrhythmogenic cardiomyopathy

A

24 hours Holter monitor (will see VPCs occurring with syncope)

373
Q

canine esophagus anatomy

A

straited muscle

374
Q

feline esophagus anatomy

A

2/3 is straited and rest is smooth (1/3)

375
Q

what glands of the stomach produce HCL in response to gastrin?

A

Parietal cells of the stomach

376
Q

____ stimulates appetite in small animals and ____ induces vomiting in cats

A

Cyproheptadine; Xylazine

377
Q

what is the most common site for intussusception

A

illeocolic (second most common site is jejuno-jejunal)

378
Q

how to find out if it is a prolapse or an intussusception????

A

pass blunt probe alongside prolapsed tissue – if probe only goes short distance is prolapse, if goes significant distance (i.e. 5-6 cm) is an intussusception

379
Q

tx gastric ulcers with ____ which is a ___ ___ inhibitor

A

omeprazole; a proton pump inhibitor

380
Q

what will you see on his of a dog or cat with IBD?

A

lymphoplasmacytic inflammation of the GI tract

381
Q

SIBO in dogs is low ____ and high _____

A

low cobalamin (which is vit B12 absorbed in the ileum) and high folate (which is absorbed in the jejunum)

382
Q

metabolic derangements with foreign body

A

hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis

383
Q

what form of hernia is alwaysss congenital and never occurs from trauma?

A

peritoneopericardial diaphragmatic hernia

384
Q

what is the toc for a primary lung tumor?

A

lung lobectomy

385
Q

what is an equine infectious disease that is sometimes compared to human HIV and caused by tabanidae flies

A

equine infection anemia

386
Q

equine infectious anemia is caused by ____flies and CS are…what is the diagnosis?

A

Tabanidae flies; CS are abortion, anemia, pale mm, fevers, normocytic normochromic anemia and diagnosis with Coomb’s test showing antibodies against the virus AND ALWAYS CONFIRM with an ELISA test

387
Q

Equine herpesvirus-1 causes respiratory diseases in _____ and LATE TERM abortions in ____

A

Foals; mares

388
Q

what is the most common cause of infectious abortion (will be late term) in horses?

A

Equine herpesvirus-1

389
Q

horses are vax against what at 5, 7 and 9 months to prevent infection and cause late term abortions and respiratory signs in foals?

A

Equine herpesvirus-1

390
Q

Equine herpesvirus-3 causes ___ _____ and _____

A

coital exanthema and balanposthitis

391
Q

equine herpesvirus-3 causes coital exanthema and balanposthitis from veneral transmission, what is the TOC?

A

self-limiting, usually goes away in about 2 weeks and can breed once lesions clear

392
Q

Equine viral arteritis (EVA) aka a togavirus causes what CS? How is it transmitted? how to prevent it?

A

Transmission is venerally and aerosol; causes mild resp. signs and vasculitis leading to edema, conjunctivitis, and rhinitis and abortions and prevent with vax that lasts 1-3 years

(testing is not useful once vax because will show up positive if been vax for it)

393
Q

what is an upper resp. tract infection of horses that can cause lower resp. tract infection also in immunosuppressed and causes FATAL PNEUMONIA in affected foals?

A

Equine adenovirus

394
Q

foal with FPT and fatal pneumonia likely has…

A

equine adenovirus Arabians predisposed bc SCID

395
Q

Equine influenza is an _____ (type of virus) and transmission is aerosol and it causes high fever and coughing

A

Equine influenza virus is an orthomyxovirus

396
Q

Equine influenza virus diagnosis

A

nasopharyngeal swab of the virus for viral isolation (or can so paired serology titers)

397
Q

Gram - bacteria have bacterial lipopolysaccharide that can cause _____

A

endotoxemia

398
Q

what two things in horses are caused by Brucella abortus

A

Fistulous withers- which causes draining lesion over the supraspinous bursa between 2nd and 5th thoracic vertebrae and tx is drain and give abx

Poll evil- inflammation of the bursa near the nuchal ligament

399
Q

tx for strangles in horses aka Streptococcus equi spp. equi

A

ISOLATE (highly contagious), lance abscess ventrally, DO NOT GIVE ANTIBIOTICS (prolongs course of disease – may lead to internal (bastard) strangles where you DO use antibiotics

400
Q

purpura hemorrhagica is a type ____ hypersensitivity resulting in immune-complexes in the blood vessels causes _____ and ____ and stiff gaits

A

type 3 hypersensitivity; vasculitis; edema of extremities and urticaria

401
Q

GP empyema in horses–

A

purulent material in guttural pouch with chronic nasal discharge, dysphagia, leukocytosis, swollen/tender lateral throat area, food reflux from nose (due to pharyngeal paresis from damage to CN 9 and 12)

will need to do daily cautery of the pouches to lavage them out

402
Q

what crosses the medial side of the GP in horses? What about the lateral pouch?

A

CN 7, 9-12 and sympathetic trunk and internal carotid artery cross the medial; external carotid crosses the lateral pouch

403
Q

what is the MOST COMMON infectious cause of infertility in horses in the US (not the most common cause of abortion so do not get confused)??? What is tx?

A

Streptococcus equi spp. zooepidemicus which is a common inhabitant of the mare and stallion genitalia and tx is pencillin

404
Q

What is the causative agent of contagious equine metritis?

A

Taylorella equingenitalis

405
Q

Taylorella equingenitalis is rare enough that it is though to be eradicated. Horses do not show CS besides infertility and if positive should not be bred T/F

A

Trueeee

406
Q

___________ _______ causes pneumonia in foals with nasty abscesses in their lungs but overall _____ is the most common cause of pneumonia in foals (without abscesses being the key word) and _____ is the number one cause of severe FATAL pneumonia in foals and usually occurs with FPT

A

Rhodococcus equi; streptococcus; equine adenovirus

407
Q

What does it mean if you do a TTW in a foal with resp. signs and see gram + rods that are pleomorphic?

A

Rhodococcus equi infection

408
Q

what is the tx of foal with Rhodococcus equi infection?

A

Erythromycin and rifampin for 2 months

409
Q

what is a common cause of diarrhea in pigs and weanling foals?

A

Lawsonia intracellularis

410
Q

Protein losing diarrhea and ventral edema in weanling foals and/or pigs is–

A

Lawsonia intracellularis

411
Q

Pigeon fever aka ___ ______ causes ulcerative lymphangitis of the limbs and abscesses of the pectoral regions with diagnosis being hemagglutination inhibition test showing internal abscesses

A

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

412
Q

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis aka pigeon fever causes what?? What is the diagnostic test? What is the tx???

A

causes ulcerative lymphangitis of the limbs and abscesses of the pectoral regions with diagnosis being hemagglutination inhibition test showing internal abscesses (hyperfibrinogenemia and hyperglobulinemia); tx is hot packing all the abscesses and draining them, only use abx in severe cases and horses with systemic signs bc like strangles it will prolong the infection

413
Q

what is an autoimmune disease where antibodies are formed against the intracellular adhesion proteins of the skin causing vesicles, erosions, and ulcerations???

A

Pemphigus foliaceus

414
Q

Pemphigus foliaceus CS, diagnosis, tx and prognosis

A

autoimmune disease where antibodies are formed against the intracellular adhesion proteins of the skin causing vesicles, erosions, and ulcerations (esp where mucocutaneous junctions are)

Type two hypersensitivity

Diagnosis is biopsy of skin showing acantholytic cells

TOC is immunosuppressive doses of corticosteroids

adults have worse prognosis of recovery

415
Q

what is the name of hives for animals? what is the TOC?

A

urticaria; TOC is dexamethasone and can use diphenhydramine BUT NEVERR IV

416
Q

what are eosinophilic granulomas?

A

nodular necrosis of collagen, aka collagenolytic granuloma
biopsy will show collagen degeneration and granulomatous inflammation with eosinophils
will see nodular lesions of the lateral neck in the p
TOC is steroid injections, surgical excision, or systemic abx

417
Q

nodular necrosis of collagen, aka collagenolytic granuloma aka _____ ______ will be seen as lateral neck nodular lesions and biopsy will show what?

A

Eosinophilic granulomas; Biopsy will show collagen degeneration and granulomatous inflammation with eosinophils

418
Q

what do you have to do in horses to see if they have regenerative or non-regenerative anemia??

A

bone marrow aspirate bc horses do not have reticulocytes in circulating bf

419
Q

horses have ____ ____ anemia

A

normocytic normochromic anemia

420
Q

what blood antigens are involved with neonatal isoerytholysis?

A

Aa and Qa

421
Q

potomac horse fever aka Ehrlichia risticlii aka Neorickettsia risticii lives in what cells?

A

monocytes/macrophages

422
Q

potomac horse fever aka Ehrlichia risticlii aka Neorickettsia risticii tox

A

tetracycline

423
Q

There is a genetic form of night blindness that is seen in what breed of horses (they are also prone to moon blindness which is ERU)

A

appaloosas

424
Q

what is the most common cause of cataracts and blindness in horses?

A

equine recurrent uveitis (ERU)

425
Q

what nerve block works on the palmar foot of horses?

A

palmar digital nerve block

426
Q

what block works on the foot, pasterns, and fetlock jt?

A

low 4 point block

427
Q

what block works on the leg distal to the carpus/tarsus in horses (so work metacarpal region and below)

A

high 4 point block

428
Q

what block works on the foot and pastern jt?

A

abaxial sesamoid block

429
Q

what is the best tx for laminitis and why? Why do we not want corticosteroids???

A

PHENOXYBENZAMINE (a-agonist that promotes vasodilation and restoration of blood flow to the digitis) – can also use acepromazine, isoxsuprine, hydrochloride, DMSO, heparin, nitroglycerin for this

DO NOT GIVE CORTICOSTEROIDS – believed to induce this condition

430
Q

navicular syndrome causes hoof pain where? what do the rads look like of the foot?

A

Will have palmar foot pain esp on hard surfaces; diagnosis on rads is bone remodeling, enlarged vascular channels, osteophyte formation on navicular bone

431
Q

what is club foot in horses?

A

DDFT contracture, tx is distal check ligament desmotomy and corrective shoeing

432
Q

what is the most commonly injured tendon in a horse?

A

SDFT

433
Q

Stringhalt in horses–
What is the treatment?

A

Myoclonic disease affecting one or both pelvic limbs (may be associated with sweet pea poisoning) = HYPERFLEXION OF LEG  when horse lifts hindlimb it draws foot up sharply until it touches abdomen and then strikes it violently at ground

Treatment = tenectomy of lateral digital extensor tendon – not all cases respond to treatment

434
Q

osteoarthritis of the hock is called ___ ____. What is it called when there is osteoarthritis of the phalanges?

A

Bone spavin; ringbone

435
Q

chronic synovitis of the tibiotarsal joint is called ____ ___

A

Bog spavin

436
Q

can extend hock and flex the stifle at the same time with a ____ ___ rupture

A

peroneus tertius rupture

437
Q

HYPP

A

mutation of the skeletal muscle sodium channels resulting in excitability of the muscles; autosomal dominant; causes hyperkalemia and causes muscle fasciculations
Tx is feed timothy hay which is low in potassium and regular exercise

438
Q

.

A

.

439
Q

tying up aka monday morning sickness aka ______ causes pigment nephropathy and can cause renal failure from myoglobin

A

myositis

440
Q

myositis aka monday morning sickness aka tying up causes ___ _____ from myoglobin being filtered by the kidneys

A

pigment nephropathy

441
Q

Sarcocystis neurona causes what in horses?

A

Equine protozoal myeloencephalitis (EPM)

442
Q

what does this horse have?
Vague ASYMMETRICAL/multifocal neurologic signs with MUSCLE ATROPHY and what is the diagnosis and tx??

A

EPM; diagnosis is serum and CAF immunoblotting and tx is Ponazuril (Marquis is the brand name)

443
Q

what is wobblers syndrome in horses?

A

Cervical vertebral stenotic myelopathy, see in horses UNDER 1 year old, wide base stance with neck pain and ataxia and SYMMETRICAL (unlike with EPM) HL issues, ts is surgery to stabilize the cervical vertebrae and decompression of the SC

444
Q

what are the two forms of wobblers syndrome aka cervical vertebral stenotic myelopathy in horses???

A

first form is cervical vertebral instability where there is SC compression of C3-C4 or C4-C5 with ventroflexion of the neck

the second form is cervical static stenosis where there is compression and pain of the SC regardless of the neck position

both occur in horses under 1 year and both require sx and NSAIDs

445
Q

Equine herpes myeloencephalopathy (EHM)

A

Vasculitis of the CNS– hindlimb ataxia, dog sitting, intermittent dribbling of urine, hypotonia of tail/anus

Usually see MULTIPLE horses at same barn affected – signs are generally acute

446
Q

Equine encephalomyelitis

A

INcludes WEE, VEE, EEE (worst form with over 90% mortality)
prevent with vax, zoonotic potential, causes cortical and thalamic lesions that are asymmetrical and progress as CNS signs over days (death like a week after onset of CS), diagnosis with CSF tap showing proteins and mononuclear pleocytosis

transmitted by mosquito

Looks like listeria in horses but when horses get listeria (which is super rare, it shows as more of a colic episode thing)

447
Q

what is the most fatal form of equine encephalomyelitis?

A

Eastern Equine Encephalomyelitis (EEE)

448
Q

what is a disease seen mostly in Arabians where there is ataxia, intention tremors (head tremors), NORMAL mentation, and hyperreflexia with no tx available???

A

Cerebellar abiotrophy

449
Q

intention tremors mean _____ tremors

A

head

450
Q

cerebellar abiotrophy is mostly seen in what breed of horse?

A

Arabian

451
Q

what are the two horse shock organs? What about the dog? The cat?

A

Horse is lungs and colon; cat is lungs and GI also and dogs is GI

452
Q

what is the most common form of colic in mini horses?

A

Small colon impaction

453
Q

what does it mean if a horse is refluxing brownish to orange, foul smelling reflex? What might he/she also have? q

A

Duodenitis-proximal jejunitis (DJP) which is ANTERIOR/PROXIMAL ENTERITIS; might also have Clostridium difficle

454
Q

what is the tx for Duodenitis-proximal jejunitis (DJP) which is ANTERIOR/PROXIMAL ENTERITIS (horse will have foul smelling brownish to orange reflux and signs of colic and may or may not also have Clostridium difficle infection)

A

Decompress stomach with nasogastric tube, remove excess GI fluid, IV fluids, replace electrolyte deficiencies, analgesics, correction of acid-base abnormalities

455
Q

Nephrosplenic entrapment causes ____ ____ ____ displacement

A

left dorsal colon displacement

456
Q

where is the colon displacement if you can palpate the colon between the cecum and body wall on rectal exam?

A

right dorsal colon displacement

457
Q

what two things might occur in horses with overuse of NSAIDs?

A

right dorsal colitis and renal medullary crest necrosis aka renal papillary necrosis

458
Q

arabians in cali and Florida have an increased risk of what? Why?

A

Enteroliths; idk about breed but because alfalfa hay in these regions have high magnesium and results in magnesium ammonium phosphate enteroliths

IN THE COLON

459
Q

what do we use psyllium for in horses?

A

sand enteropathy aka sand colic

460
Q

most common cause of colic in foals is..

A

meconium impaction

461
Q

gastric ulcers occur on the ______ region of the stomach and tx is _____

A

squamous region of the stomach; tx is omeprazole

462
Q

Foal heat diarrhea

A

7-14 day old foals
having mild diarrhea due change in GI flora

Called foal heat diarrhea due to relationship of occurrence of post-foaling estrous in mare

463
Q

What is lethal white syndrome? What causes is?

A

offspring of PAINT mares who give birth to all white foals and have agangliosis of the intestines which leads to not being able to poop

464
Q

cerebellar abiotrophy occurs in _____ but lethal white syndrome occurs in ____ (breeds)

A

Arabians; paints

465
Q

A middle aged horse with end expiratory wheezes and neutrophils seen on the BAL means what diagnosis? What is the Tx?

A

Recurrent airway obstruction (RAO) (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, heaves); the Tx is environmental changes, Beta-2-agonist (Clenbuterol, Terbutaline) to stimulate the airway dilation by relaxing smooth muscles, corticosteroids (anti-inflammatory and can reduce mucus and neutrophil accumulation)

466
Q

where does bleeding in the lungs occur with exercise induced pulmonary hemorrhage?

A

caudodorsal lung lobes (bilateral)

467
Q

what is it called in horses where a recurrent laryngeal nerve is damaged? What side is most commonly affected and what are the CS?

A

Laryngeal hemiplegia; the left side; CS are exercise intolerance, noisy breathing, inspiratory dyspnea with whistling on inspiration

468
Q

Guttural pouch tympany

A

pouch becomes distended with AIR and is thought to be due to defect in Eustachian tube or pharyngeal tissues; NONPAINFUL air filled swelling will be in the parotid region, p fine
tx is to fenestrate the membrane between the normal and affected pouch

469
Q

Guttural pouch mycosis is due to what causative agent?

A

Aspergillus nidulans

470
Q

Guttural pouch mycosis causative agent is ASPERGILLUS NIDULANS; what CN are affected?

A

Dysphagia, Horner’s syndrome, hemorrhage if involves vasculature (epistaxis – due to fungus eroding internal carotid artery), NOT vestibular signs (CN8 not involved)

Treatment for persistent epistaxis = ligate internal carotid, surgical occlusion (embolization coil, balloons) of artery

471
Q

What passes through the medial and lateral parts of the Guttural Pouch?

A

CN 7, 9, 10, 11, 12 and the sympathetic trunk and internal carotid pass through the medial pouch and the external carotid passes through the lateral pouch

472
Q

___ (a hormone) made by CL prevents _____

A

progesterone made by CL prevents estrus

473
Q

what is the tx of persistent CL in horses?

A

PGF2- alpha (prostaglandins) which lyse the CL

474
Q

A mare just foaled and now has low PCV and tachycardia. What do you suspect is the issue and how do you tx it?

A

Uterine hemorrhage post-foaling
Tx with aminocaproic acid

475
Q

what is the most common cause of non-infection abortion in horses? when should you do U/S guided manually reduction of one of them?

A

Twinning;between 13-15 days like we did on theiro

476
Q

in caslick surgery, place horizontal sutures at the ______ aspect of the ______ and increased the weight of the mare (bc seen in thin mares)

A

dorsal aspect of the labia

477
Q

windsucking aka pneumovagina predisposes mares to what two things specifically?

A

Vaginitis and endometritis

478
Q

Obese draft mares in late pregnancy are predisposed to what?

A

ruptured prepubic tendons (she will have ventral edema and become tachypneic/painful)

479
Q

Uterine torsion in mares
predisposition, CS, and Tx

A

Seen in mares in their last trimester of pregnancy with signs of colic and pollakuria, on rectal palpation will feel broad ligament pulled tightly over the uterus from right to left and tx is anesthesia and rolling her (plank to flank) but sx may be needed

480
Q

How can you diagnose a uterine infection (endometritis) in horses?

A

Uterine cytology showing high neutrophils +/- bacteria seen

481
Q

what is the most common form of renal failure in horses?

A

Glomerulonephritis

482
Q

Diagnosing bladder rupture in a foal–

A

HYPERKALEMIA, hyponatremia, hypochloremia
Prob also hyperphosphatemia
creatinine in fluid will be TWICE as much as the serum creatinine

483
Q

A young horse presents to you with urine scald and history of urinary incontinence. What is your diagnosis??

A

congenital ectopic ureter

484
Q

What is sensitivity? What is Specificity?

A

Sensitivity = the proportion of disease-positive animals that are test-positive

specificity = the proportion of disease-negative animals that are test-negative

485
Q

a low sensitivity has more ____ ____

A

false negatives

486
Q

65% sensitivity means __% true pos and __% false neg

A

65% true pos and 35% false neg

487
Q

the specificity is determined by the % of ____ _____ and ___ ___

A

true neg and false positives

488
Q

what is PPV

A

Proportion of test positive animals that are disease positive (affected)

489
Q

what is NPV

A

Proportion of test-negative animals that are truly disease negative (unaffected)

490
Q

the group of animals that are disease free and test negative is sensitivity or specificity????

A

Specificity

491
Q

what is the least common site for OCD in larger animals?

A

Elbow

492
Q

In a litter of 2-week old piglets, there is incoordination, salivation, opisthotonos, and seizures. You suspect pseudorabies and perform virus isolation to confirm your diagnosis. How will you tx this issue?

A

there is no tx and you must depopulate the herd

493
Q

The auriculopalpebral nerve block blocks what nerve??

A

the motor to the orbicularis oculi

494
Q

You are an associate veterinarian paid a base salary of $55,000 annually, plus a 8 % bonus based on receipts above your monthly production goal of $23,000. Bonuses are paid quarterly. Your last three month’s production were:

$23,000, $28,000, and $27,000.

How much is your quarterly bonus?

A

If $23,000 is the monthly production goal, then the month you brought in $23,000 does not count towards a bonus.

In the second month, $ 28,000 = $5000 above goal

In the third month $ 27,000 = $4000 above goal

Total above production goal = $5000+$4000= $9000

$9000 X (0.08 bonus rate) = $720.

495
Q

An aged intact female potbellied pig presents for evaluation of abdominal distension. A large mass contiguous with the uterine wall is discovered with ultrasound exam of the abdomen. Which of the following choices is the most likely cause of this finding?

A

A uterine leiomyoma. These tumors do not typically metastasize so a cure may be achieved by surgical removal of the uterus

496
Q

Damage to the left recurrent laryngeal nerve is associated with “roaring” in horses. The left recurrent laryngeal nerve is a branch off of which cranial nerve?

A

Vagus nerve (CN X)

497
Q

A 5 year old female spayed Cocker Spaniel is presented with a strange expression. Her right ear and lip appear to droop. There is ptosis O.D. (right eye) and the dog is drooling on the exam table. What anatomic structure is damaged?

A

The facial nerve

498
Q

A 10-year old male intact Doberman mix dog is presented with one testicle that is grossly enlarged and nonpainful and the other atrophied. What condition(s) are expected to be seen in association with this presentation?

A

Nonpainful unilateral testicular swelling in an old dog should make you think of neoplasia, especially an estrogen-secreting sertoli cell tumor, which can cause feminization syndrome. See gynecomastia, penile atrophy, pendulous prepuce, attraction of other males, blood dyscrasias, +/-bone marrow depression (via high estrogen), bilateral alopecia.

499
Q

Cows are predisposed to post-parturient bovine metritis by many things, including:

A

-Dystocia
-Overfeeding in dry period
-Ca-P imbalance in feed

500
Q

In canine patients with primary hyperparathyroidism, a chemistry panel would show:

A

hypercalcemia and hypophosphatemia

501
Q

what mite of the dog is not contagious to other dogs?

A

Demodex mite

502
Q

Which one of the following choices includes the cardinal sign of trigeminal neuritis?

A

Inability to close the mouth

503
Q

Masticatory myositis is characterized by …….

A

pain on opening the mouth and swelling of the muscles of mastication (acute) or atrophy of the temporalis and masseter muscles with the inability to open the mouth due to fibrosis (chronic).

504
Q

Dysphagia, dyphonia, and stridor are most often associated with dysfunction of what nerve?

A

vagus nerve, cranial nerve 10 (CN 10).

505
Q

.

A

.

506
Q

A pig farm has several sick and dying adult pigs. Affected animals are febrile and depressed.
Some seem constipated and others have diarrhea. A few are ataxic. A necropsy on one of the dead pigs shows widespread petechial and ecchymotic hemorrhages in the kidneys, bladder, spleen, and larynx. Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis?

A

classical swine fever or African swine fever (caused by soft tick) (they present the same and need ELISA or PCR to differentiate)

507
Q

A commercial pig farm experiences an explosive outbreak of respiratory disease with high mortality, primarily in young pigs under 6 months of age.

Affected pigs show severe respiratory distress, fever up to 107°F (41.5°C), anorexia, and reluctance to move. Some animals display open-mouth breathing with a blood-stained, frothy nasal and oral discharge. On necropsy, the lungs are bilaterally dark and swollen and ooze bloody fluid from the cut surface. Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae

508
Q

A group of chickens presents with scabby, proliferative, and ulcerative lesions on the comb, wattles, eyelids, feet, and legs. Mortality is low. Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis?

A

avian pox aka fowl pox (not zoonotic)

509
Q

why would you do a digital rectal exam on a 12 hour foal that is swishing its tail, rolling from side to side and straining?

A

Foals with meconium impaction will swish their tail from side to side, roll, and strain to defecate. A digital exam of the rectum will aid in rapid diagnosis

510
Q

Which one of the following choices is the most common etiology of canine cholangiohepatitis?

A

ascending infection– enteric bacteria migrate up the bile duct from the intestines and create an infection in the liver and biliary tract in most cases of canine cholangiohepatitis

511
Q

Which one of the following choices is the best initial treatment in the patient with a moderate elevation of calcium caused by idiopathic feline hypercalcemia?

A

Diet

512
Q

What is the earliest stage post-breeding that an experienced practitioner can reliably feel placentomes rectally in the gravid uterine horn in a pregnant cow?

A

70-75 days but can feel the vesicle as early as 35 days;

One way to remember these is that the EARLIEST occurs in REVERSE alphabetical order ie:
Slip 30-35 days
Placentomes 70-75 days
Fremitus 90-120 days

513
Q

Several sheep are sick at a petting-zoo that has cows, horses, pigs, bison and white-tailed deer. One of the deer is also affected. Affected sheep are listless and off-feed, with serous or mucopurulent nasal discharge and rectal temperatures ranging from 105-107.5°F (40.5-42°C).

Physical exam shows swollen muzzles with edema and congestion of the lips, nose and face with small hemorrhages and ulcers on the mucous membranes. The ulcers appear where the teeth contact the swollen lips and tongue. Two affected sheep are lame. What is the diagnosis?

A

bluetongue virus. REPORTABLE.

Bluetongue is indistinguishable from Foot and Mouth disease (FMD), so that is a good second choice. But FMD is unlikely in the scenario above because FMD mainly affects pigs and cattle whereas blue tongue mainly affects sheep and white tailed deer

514
Q

A 4 year-old quarterhorse in California is presented with fever, lethargy, ataxia, icterus, petechiation, and limb edema. A complete blood count shows characteristic neutrophil inclusion bodies suggesting equine granulocytic ehrlichiosis. Which one of the following choices is the most appropriate treatment?

A

oxytetracycline

515
Q

Affected animals are off feed, uncoordinated and out of breath after exertion. On physical exam, affected cows have a rapid bounding pulse and pale mucous membranes. One animal appears icteric with a temperature of 105°F (40.6°C). What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Anaplasmosis

516
Q

An 8 year-old spayed female DSH cat is presented for right head tilt of 24 hours duration. The cat is up to date on vaccinations. Physical exam shows horizontal nystagmus with the fast phase to the left. The rest of the physical exam is unremarkable. What can the owner be told regarding the cat’s treatment and prognosis?

A

The nystagmus usually improves markedly within 72 hrs and the cat will likely completely return to normal in the next 2-3 weeks without any medication. This cat most likely has idiopathic vestibular disease. For severe disorientation, consider sedatives (diazepam and acepromazine). Glucorticoids do not usually alter course of disease. Anti-emetics usually not effective. In cats where you cannot rule out otitis externa or media, antibiotic therapy is warranted.

517
Q

what is the most common cause of Horner’s syndrome?

A

Idiopathic

See four things with Horner’s, ALL associated with an eye:
1. MIOSIS (constricted pupil)
2. PROTRUSION 3rd eyelid (nictitans)
3. ENOPHTHALMOS (sunken eye)
4. PTOSIS (drooped eyelid), +/- anisocoria.

518
Q

A herd of ewes has had an abortion storm in which 80% of animals are affected, all stages of gestation are affected, and lambs that are born are very weak. The fetal membranes have white spots of necrosis. Which one of the following choices is the primary differential diagnosis?

A

toxoplasma gondii– no approved tx but can try clindamycin

519
Q

A chicken farm has had several ill and dead birds over the past week.

Examination of the sick chickens shows severe depression, ecchymoses and edema of the comb and wattles, green diarrhea, and some are unable to walk with absent perching reflexes. Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Avian influenza

520
Q

A registered Hereford cow on pasture gave birth to this calf with a very short, curly, frosted-looking pale coat and normal-appearing skin.

By two weeks of age, some of the hair is falling out.
Which one of the following choices is the most likely explanation for its appearance?

A

This calf has congenital hypotrichosis of Herefords, an autosomal recessive genetic problem.

Hereditary hypotrichosis can be differentiated from the other disease choices because the dermis of the calf is normal in appearance.

521
Q

potassium is lost in what disease of cats?

A

renal disease

522
Q

This 11-year-old spayed female cat is presented with generalized weakness and unable to lift her head.

The owners have noticed her at the water bowl more often and she seems to be urinating more in the last month. what disease process do you expect to find?

A

renal failure

523
Q

a SINGLE calf in a herd of calves that is ages 1-4 weeks old has the following CS: 1 week history of watery, foamy diarrhea and exhibits tenesmus during examination, what is most likely the disease?

A

Cryptosporidium

524
Q

what is the disease that is likely with these CS:
-PAIN in the lumbosacral area (elicited by tail raise, hindlimb extension)
-LMN hindlimbs, especially Sciatic nerve damage at L7-S1 (lack withdrawal),
+/- urinary/fecal incontinence
+/- SELF-MUTILATION of tail, perineum, pelvic limb.

A

Cauda equina syndrome

525
Q

tx of salmonella in cows-

A

IV Fluids, NSAIDS, Frequent milk feeding and ABX if septic. FEVER + DIARRHEA says systemic, and sudden death in another calf the night before suggests SEPTIC. 8 weeks old suggests SALMONELLA.

526
Q

Two calves aged 8 weeks are presented that are both down and extremely weak. They are depressed and lying in pools of foul-smelling brown diarrhea with a small amount of blood. One other calf died suddenly the night before with no signs at all.

They are found to be dehydrated, with rectal temperatures of 105.2 and 105.6 F (40.7 - 40.9 C)..[N=101.5-103.5F, N=37.8-39.7 C], respectively.

Based on the condition at the top of the differential diagnosis list, what is the treatment plan?

A

Salmonella; IV Fluids, NSAIDS, Frequent milk feeding and ABX if septic. FEVER + DIARRHEA says systemic, and sudden death in another calf the night before suggests SEPTIC. 8 weeks old suggests SALMONELLA.

ISOLATE sick calves. Valuable animals may be treated with IV Banamine ®, IV fluids, oral fluids and frequent feedings of milk.

527
Q

A flock from a broiler chicken operation is presented to investigate a disease outbreak characterized by caseous accumulations in the throat and weight loss.

Two diseases are suspected: it is either candidiasis (“thrush”) or another, similar disease. What is the other disease and how might the diagnosis be confirmed?

A

This is trichomonosis , caused by Trichomonas gallinae, and diagnosed by microscopic smear exam of the caseous oral exudates. Look for trichomonads. More a problem in PIGEONS, but can cause disease in chickens.

528
Q

what is the most common CS of horses with urinary stones?

A

Hematuria after exercising

529
Q

why do we not give subQ fluids to birds in their neck?

A

bc want to avoid air sacs, so give it in their skin fold of the groin or between their should blades on their back

530
Q

___ are toxic to parrots and causse myocardial necrosis

A

avocados

531
Q

can safely draw up to __% of bird’s weight in blood

A

1%

532
Q

where do you do interosseous injections in birds?

A

ulna or tibiotarsus

533
Q

Mammary tumors in rats vs. mice

A

rats- benign (fibroadenoma)
mice- malignant associated with retrovirus - can be found anywhere, even on dorsum

534
Q

Mammary tumors in rats vs. mice

A

rats- benign (fibroadenoma)
mice- malignant associated with retrovirus - can be found anywhere, even on dorsum

535
Q

Mammary tumors in rats vs. mice

A

rats- benign (fibroadenoma)
mice- malignant associated with retrovirus - can be found anywhere, even on dorsum

536
Q

what abx can cause enamel hypoplasia and teeth staining

A

tetracyclines

537
Q

Mammary tumors in rats vs. mice

A

rats- benign (fibroadenoma)
mice- malignant associated with retrovirus - can be found anywhere, even on dorsum

538
Q

what abx can cause enamel hypoplasia and teeth staining

A

tetracyclines

Comprehensive guide NAVLE (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions