vertebrae and bony thorax Flashcards

1
Q

what are zygapophyseal joints

A

the joints that pair adjacent vertebrae in the spine

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2
Q

what is the atlas vertebrae

A

C1

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3
Q

what does C1 lack

A

a body and spinous process

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4
Q

what is the anterior arch of C1

A

articulations for the odontoid process

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5
Q

how many arches does C1 have

A
  1. anterior and posterior
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5
Q

what vertebrae is called the axis

A

C2

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5
Q

what is another word for the lateral masses of C1

A

articular pillars

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6
Q

the atlanto-occipital joint allows what movement

A

nodding yes

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6
Q

what is the lower joint of the atlas

A

atlanto-axial joint

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7
Q

what is the dens

A

the odontoid process of C2

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8
Q

what is special about C2’s spinous process

A

it is very blunt

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9
Q

which vertebrae are bifid

A

C2-C6

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10
Q

what action does the atlanto-axial joint permit

A

shaking head no

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11
Q

in an open mouth odontoid view, what should line up

A

the width of the lateral masses of C1 and C2

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12
Q

what is a Jeffersons fracture

A

having the width of the lateral masses of C1 wider than C2
axial load right at top of head (like head into boards, diving in shallow end)

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12
Q

which vertebra is the vertebra prominens

A

C7

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13
Q

describe the spinous process of C7

A

long, non bifid

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13
Q

why is C7 a useful landmark

A

we know that it is the end of the cervical vertebrae
we know that all of the thoracic cage is in the light

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14
Q

which thoracic vertebrae resemble the lumbar vertebrae

A

T9-T12

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15
Q

which thoracic vertebrae resemble the cervical

A

T1-T4

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16
Q

describe spinous processes of the thoracic vertebrae

A

long and project inferiorly

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17
Q

which vertebrae have the largest spinous processes

A

thoracic

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17
Q

where are the transverse processes of the thoracic vertebrae

A

at the junction of the pedicle and lamina

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18
Q

what is a costovertebral joint

A

the joints that join the thoracic vertebrae and the ribs

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18
Q

what is the costotransverse joint

A

tubercle articulates with the transverse process of the vertebrae

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18
Q

what is a whole facet

A

if the rib only articulates with 1 body

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18
Q

what is a major distinguishing factor of the thoracic vertebrae

A

the articular facets

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19
Q

what is a demi facet

A

when the rib head articulates with 2 vertebral bodies

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20
Q

what facet does T1 have on the superior border

A

whole facet

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21
Q

what facet does T9 have on the inferior border

A

none

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22
Q

where do the costotransverse joint only exist

A

T1-T10
NOT T11 AND T12

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22
Q

what are costotransverse joint

A

Tubercle of rib articulates with the transverse process of vertebra

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23
Q

describe all articulations of the 7th rib (3pts)

A

costotransverse - tubercle of rib articulates with transverse process of T7
head of rib 7 articulates with the superior demifacet on T7 and the inferior demifacet on T6

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23
Q

when are the intervertebral foramina demonstrated

A

on a true lateral

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23
Q

at what angle are the zygapophyseal joints

A

15-20

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24
Q

how are lateral named for the axial region

A

with the side close to IR

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24
Q

how (position) to demonstrate the left zygapophyseal joint

A

LAO with 75 degree

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24
Q

an LPO 75 degree oblique demonstrates what

A

the right zygapophyseal joint

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25
Q

which vertebrae has the largest bodies

A

lumbar
specifically L5

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25
Q

if the inferior lumbar vertebrae is smaller than the superior, what does it demonstrate

A

a compression fracture

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26
Q

which side of the lumbar vertebrae is bigger

A

anterior

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27
Q

describe the spinous process of the lumbar vertebrae

A

thick, blunt, and project horizontally

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27
Q

the lumbar vertebral bodies are (concave/convex) (anteriorly/laterally)

A

concave anteriorly AND laterally

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28
Q

where does the spinal cord end

A

at the disc space between L1 and L2 in an ADULT patient

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29
Q

does the spinal cord go all the way down to L5?

A

no, it ends between L1 and L2

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29
Q

what are the functions of the vertebral column (5)

A

forms the trunk
provides flexible movement
encloses and protects spinal cord
supports the head
provides attachment for ribs, pelvis, back muscles

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29
Q

how many vertebrae do fetuses haves

A

33

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30
Q

how many vertebrae do adults have

A

26

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31
Q

what vertebrae fuse from fetal to adult

A

5 sacral to 1 sacrum
4 coccygeal to 1 coccyx

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31
Q

when are the lateral curves of the spine developed

A

a fetus has 1 curve
at 3 months, infants hold their head, so develop cervical curve
when infant sits up/walks develops the lumbar curve

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31
Q

what part of the vertebral arch connects to the vertebral body

A

the pedegal

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32
Q

what forms the zygapophyseal joints in the spine

A

superior process of the one below and the inferior process of the one above

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33
Q

what is the normal curve called in the lumbar spine of the adult patient

A

lordotic curve (not lordosis)

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34
Q

what opening does the spinal cord pass through as it descends through vertebrae

A

the vertebral foramina

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35
Q

how do you represent the left cervical vertebrae

A

RPO of 45 degrees with a 15 degree cephalad angle
OR, LAO of 45 degrees with a 15 degree caudad angle

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36
Q

what would represent

A
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37
Q

what would

A
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38
Q

what specific part of C1 articulates with the odontoid process

A

the anterior arch

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39
Q

what does the head of the 4th rib articulates with

A

superior demifacet of the 4th thoracic vertebrae and the inferior demifacet of the 3rd vertebrae

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40
Q
A
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41
Q

what does the tubercle of the fourth rib articulates with

A

the transverse process of the 4th thoracic vertebrae

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42
Q

what is the parts interarticularis

A

part of the lamina located between the superior and inferior articular processes

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42
Q

what is different about the lumbar spine’s articular process

A

they project more medially (anteriorly)

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43
Q

what is spondylolysis

A

a fracture in the pars interarticularis

43
Q

why is the pars articularis clinicaly significant

A

spond

44
Q

what is spondylolithesis

A

bilateral fractures of the pars interarticularis cause the vertebrae to slip forward onto the next

44
Q

what makes up the ear of a Scotty dog

A

superior articular process

45
Q

what makes up the front leg of a Scotty dog

A

inferior articular process

46
Q

what makes up the eye of a Scotty dog

A

pedicle

47
Q

what makes up the neck of a Scotty dog

A

pars interarticularis

48
Q

what makes up the body of a Scotty dog

A

the lamina

49
Q

which way will the scotty dog face

A

the same direction as the patient
it will also demonstrate that side
ie. LAO, Dems left side

50
Q

what does the LPO/RAO scotty dog demonstrate

A

the LEFT pars articularis
the LEFT zygapophyseal joint

51
Q

what makes someone have issues with sondylolysis

A

excessive and violent twisting
ie. figure skaters

52
Q

what is the pathology

A

spondylolysthesis

53
Q

what forms the intervertebral foramen

A

formed by the superior and inferior vertebral notch

54
Q

what projection allows the intervertebral foramina in the T and L spines

A

true lateral

55
Q

on what angle is the zygapophyseal joint

A

45 degrees from midline

56
Q

how to demonstrate the right zygapophyseal or facet joints

A

RPO, LAO

57
Q

RPO/LAO demonstrates what

A

RIGHT zygapophyseal joint
RIGHT facet joint
RIGHT pars interarticularis

58
Q

what vertebrae is this

A

C3-C6
- transverse foramen (is C)
- bifid spinous process (is C)
- doesn’t have a dens (not C2)
- tranverse process is at junction of pedicle and the body
- smaller vertebral body, larger vertebral foramen

59
Q

what vertebrae is this

A

thoracic
- has facets for rib attachment ( has to be 1-10)
- spinous processes are blunt, slope anteriorly
- smaller vertebral body (to L)
- superior articular process is angled more upwards

60
Q

what vertebrae is this

A

lumbar
- huge vertebral body
- superior articular process is angled very inwards

61
Q

what shape is the sacrum

A

triangular
concave interiorly

62
Q

how many vertebrae is the sacrum?

A

5 fused

63
Q

who has a greater curve of the sacrum

A

females

64
Q

can you do a PA sacrum

A

no!
must put CR into the curve, to get diverging beam to compensate for the curve

65
Q

where is the Ala of the sacrum

A

on the superior part

66
Q

what articulates with the auricular surface of the sacrum
what does it form

A

the auricular surface of the ilium
the SI joint

67
Q

what is the sacral promontory

A

makes up the posterior part of the pelvis brim / inlet

68
Q

where is the sacral canal

A

between the superior articular processes of the sacrum

69
Q

which side of the SI joint is more medial

A

posterior

70
Q

how many pairs of sacral foramina are there

A

4

71
Q

what forms the median and lateral sacral crests

A

median- fused spinous processes
lateral- fused tranverse processes

72
Q

what is the sacral hiatus

A
73
Q

what are the sacral cornu

A
74
Q

what passes through the scral canal

A

spinal nerves (NOT spinal cord)
caudad aquina (horse’s tail)

75
Q

what shape is the coccyx

A

triangular

76
Q

when does the coccyx fuse

A

20-30

77
Q

what does the base of the coccyx articulate with

A

sacrum

78
Q

what level does the tip of the coccyx end at

A

the greater trochanters

79
Q

how do you determine (landmark) if you did a good lateral of the sacrum and coccyx

A

the greater sciatic notch

80
Q

what makes up the thoracic cage

A

thoracic vertebrae
ribs
sternum

81
Q

what type of bone is the sternum
so it contains what

A

flat bone
red bone marrow

82
Q

what are the 3 parts of the sternum

A
83
Q

when do the segments of the sternum fuse (generally)

A
84
Q

where is the jugular notch

A

disc space between T2 and T3

85
Q
A
86
Q

where on the manubrium is the clavicular notch

A

superior lateral border

87
Q

what is special about the SC joint

A

only the inferior half of the clavicle articulates with the manubrium of the sternum

88
Q

what is the vertebral level of the sternal angle

A

T4/T5

89
Q

where does the 1st rib attach

A

just below the SC joint

90
Q

what is the sternal angle made up of

A

junction between the manubrium and body of the sternum

91
Q

what rib attaches to the sternal angle

A

2nd rib

92
Q

what is the landmark for the start of the aortic arch

A

T4/T5

93
Q

which ribs attach directly to the body of the sternum

A

3-7

94
Q

how do you ask a patient where their xiphoid process is

A

show me where your ribs meet up

95
Q

what is T10 a landmark for (3)

A

xiphoid process
bottom of the heart
diaphragm (sup/ant part)

96
Q

what does the loopy wires in the sternal body mean

A

open heart surgery occured

97
Q

how many ribs are there

A

12 pairs

98
Q

what landmark is close to the first rib

A

vertebra prominens (around C7)

99
Q

where is the costal groove

A

costal groove runs along the inferior surface of the rib

100
Q

what NEEDS to be counted in a PA projection to asses for a full inspiration

A

able to count 10 posterior ribs over the diaphragm on the left side

100
Q

the anterior part is hpw many inches inferior to the vertebral part

A

3-5

101
Q

where is the widest portion of the thorax

A

the inferior part

101
Q

what passes through the costal groove

A

arteries, veins, and nerve travels through

101
Q

the anterior part of the rib is attached to what

A

costocartilage

102
Q

what position is used for a PA chest

A

facing detector, arms internally rotated, shoulders rolled all the way forward

102
Q

why is the right diaphragm a bit higher

A

the liver pushes in up a little

102
Q

what does the vertebral head of the rib articulates with

A
102
Q

what are the true ribs

A

1-7

102
Q

why are 1-7 true ribs

A

they attach directly to the sternum via its costocartilage

102
Q

do all true ribs attach to the body of the sternum?

A

no, all except 1 and 2

103
Q

what does the first rib attach to

A

the manibrium

103
Q

what does the second rib attach to

A

the sternal angle

104
Q
A
104
Q

what makes ribs 11 and 12 floating ribs

A

they do not attach to anything anteriorly

104
Q

why do we have floating ribs

A

to protect the kidneys

104
Q

what are the floating ribs

A

11 and 12

105
Q

what are the false ribs

A

8-12

105
Q

what happens to the anterior 10th rib

A

attaches to the costocartilage of the 7th rib

105
Q
A
105
Q
A
105
Q
A
105
Q
A
105
Q
A
105
Q
A
105
Q
A
105
Q
A
105
Q
A
105
Q
A
105
Q
A
105
Q
A
105
Q
A
106
Q
A
106
Q
A
106
Q
A
106
Q
A