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Microbiology-Jenn Edition > Vector- and Soilborne Diseases Sic Questions > Flashcards

Vector- and Soilborne Diseases Sic Questions Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a way to diagnose Lyme Disease?
    (A) ELISA
    (B) Using a compound microscope
    (C) Western blot
    (D) PCR assays
    (E) None of the above
A

B

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2
Q
  1. In the human body, when acetylcholine is released, we can expect a muscle contraction. When ______ toxin blocks acetylcholine, the body’s muscle relaxation is permanent.
    (A) AB
    (B) Tetanus
    (C) Glycine
    (D) Botulinum
A

D

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3
Q
  1. You are working as a doctor in an urgent care office when you get a patient complaining of fever, headache, and dry cough. Initial tests have ruled out the flu, strep throat, and mononucleosis. You continue to talk to the patient and are now suspicious of Psittacosis infection. What question likely led you to this conclusion?
    (A) “Have you been hiking recently?”
    (B) “Do you have any infected cuts?”
    (C) “Do you have any pet birds?”
    (D) “Have you traveled outside of the country recently?”
    (E) None of the above
A

C

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4
Q
  1. At what stage in the plasmodium life cycle do you see symptoms start showing in the reservoir?
    (A) merozoites
    (B) sporozoites
    (C) fertilization
    (D) gametocytes
    (E) None of the above
A

A

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5
Q
  1. If a patient lives in Sub-Saharan Africa and starts to experience sleep cycle disruption and neurological problems doctors may test the patient for what Arthropod-Transmitted Disease?
    (A) Trypanosomiasis
    (B) West Nile Virus
    (C) Malaria
    (D) Plague
    (E) None of the above
A

a

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6
Q
  1. What Animal-Transmitted Disease had a 100% effective rate when used with passive and active therapy?
    (A) Hantavirus
    (B) Rabies
    (C) Psittacosis
    (D) Trypanosomiasis
    (E) None of the above
A

B

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7
Q
  1. Bubonic plague is spread by what specific vector
    (A) Rats
    (B) Fleas
    (C) Coughing
    (D) Mist
    (E) None of the above
A

B

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8
Q
  1. Which life stage of Plasmodium is able to be fertilized
    (A) Gametocytes in Humans
    (B) Sporozoites in Mosquitos
    (C) Sporozoites in Humans
    (D) Gametocytes in Mosquitos
    (E) None of the above
A

D

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9
Q
  1. What does Chloroquine do for treating Malaria
    (A) It kills merozoites inside the blood cells
    (B) It kills sporozoites outside the blood cells
    (C) It kills the gametes outside the blood cells
    (D) It kills merozoites outside the blood cells
    (E) All of the above
A

A

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10
Q
  1. At the merozoite stage of the plasmodium life cycle, an infected person starts to see symptoms of malaria due to___.
    (A) Damage of red blood cells
    (B) Damage of white blood cells
    (C) Damage to lymph nodes
    (D) A and C
    (E) None of the above
A

a

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11
Q
  1. Fertilization in the Malaria plasmodium life cycle can only occur in which host?
    (A) Only in a Human Host
    (B) Only in a Mosquito Host
    (C) Both human and mosquito host
    (D) Only in a Flea host
    (E) None of the above
A

B

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12
Q
  1. Bacterial arthropod- transmitted diseases include__.
    (A) Lyme disease
    (B) Plague
    (C) Malaria
    (D) A and B
    (E) All of the above
A

D

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13
Q
  1. The __ Plague shows no symptoms and occurs in death before diagnosis.
    (A) Bubonic
    (B) Pneumonic
    (C) Septicemic
    (D) All of the above
    (E) None of the above
A

C

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14
Q
  1. You’re a physician and have diagnosed a patient with Psittacosis. What treatment options can you utilize?
    A. A series of vaccines
    B. Antibiotics
    C. There’s nothing that they can do
    D. Antibody treatments
    E. More than one answer is correct
A

b

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15
Q
  1. You have been exposed to a soilborne disease. Your symptoms are pretty common, and your doctor tells you to treat this disease topical and oral compounds will be needed. What type of soilborne disease do you most likely have?
    (A) Bacterial disease
    (B) Viral disease.
    (C) Fungal disease.
    (D) Not enough information provided could be bacterial or fungal.
    (E) None of the above
A

C

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16
Q

What diagnostic test is done to detect the negri bodies found in a positive case of rabies?
A. PCR
B. ELISA
C. Western Blot
D. Microscopy
E. None of the above

A

D

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17
Q

Which of the following is considered an emerging disease?
A. Lyme
B. The Plague
C. West Nile Virus
D. Malaria
E. Trypanosomiasis

A

(Correct Answer: A)

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18
Q
  1. How is the viral infection Rabies transmitted?
    A. Through inhalation of feces
    B. Through an infected animal bite
    C. From person to person
    D. Through a tick bite
    E. From drinking contaminated water
A

B

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19
Q
  1. What is the pathology of Rabies?
    A. Initial infection of muscle cells then nerve cells
    B. Initial infection of skin cells then nerve cells
    C. Initial infection of nerve cells then muscle cells
    D. Initial infection of bone cells then blood cells
    E. None of the above
A

A

20
Q
  1. What is the correct treatment of Rabies?
    A. Passive immunization
    B. Active immunization
    C. Hydration and Motrin
    D. Quarantine
    E. Both A and B
A

E

21
Q
  1. What disease(s) are contracted by inhalation of fecal dust from infected animals?
    A. Rabies
    B. Viral Hemorrhagic Fever
    C. Hantavirus Syndrome
    D. Psittacosis
    E. Both C and D
A

E

22
Q

What is a common way to diagnose Psittacosis in a patient?
A. Fever
B. Headache
C. Dry cough
D. Asking the patient if they have been around birds
E. All of the above

A

E

23
Q
  1. All of the following diseases are NOT transmitted from person to person EXCEPT?
    A. Rabies
    B. Plague
    C. Lyme disease
    D. Hantavirus
    E. Psittacosis
A

B

24
Q
  1. Which type(s) of the Plague is transmitted through a flea vector?
    A. Septicemic
    B. Pneumonic
    C. Bubonic
    D. Slyvatic
    E. Both C and D
A

E

25
Q
  1. What reservoir(s) do Plasmodium need in order to complete its life cycle?
    A. Human host
    B. Still water
    C. Mosquito host
    D. Africa
    E. Both A and C
A

E

26
Q
  1. What treatment is needed in order to cure the symptoms of malaria?
    A. Chloroquine
    B. Primaquine
    C. Ramoquine
    D. Both A and B
    E. All of the above
A

D

27
Q
  1. Which of the following can cross the blood-brain barrier?
    A. Malaria
    B. Trypanosomiasis
    C. Tetanus
    D. All of the above
    E. None of the above
A

b

28
Q

What is the best method of disease management for malaria?
(A) Reservoir control
(B) Prophylactic drugs
(C) Vaccination
(D) Vector control
(E) None of the above

A

D

29
Q

Why is rabies infection relatively undetected until it becomes severe?
a. It infects & moves through nerve cells in the body
b. Symptoms don’t appear until the virus infects the salivary glands
c. It can take months for the virus to reach the head, depending on bite location
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

D

30
Q

____ infection is mycosis in the deeper skin layers.
a. Superficial
b. Subcutaneous
c. Systemic
d. Secondary
e. A & B

A

B

31
Q
  1. Which toxin permanent causes muscle contraction?
    a. Botulinum
    b. Tetanus
    c. Glycine
    d. Tetracycline
    e. Chloroquine
A

A

32
Q
  1. What is the correct reservoir for Bacillus anthracis?
    a. Mosquitos
    b. Birds
    c. Soil
    d. Rodents
    e. Humans
A

C

33
Q

Which is an example of a bacterial disease transmitted by animals?
a. Rabies
b. Lyme disease
c. Plague
d. Psittacosis
e. Hantavirus

A

D

34
Q

Where is Hemorrhagic Fever with Renal Syndrome geographically common?
a. Asia
b. Russia
c. United States
d. A & B
e. All of the above

A

d

35
Q

Which is an example of a protist disease transmitted through arthropods?
(A) Lyme Disease
(B) Hantavirus
(C) Malaria
(D) West Nile
(E) Psittacosis

A

C

36
Q

Which parts of the plasmodium life cycle does the anti-malaria drug primaquine kill?
a. Merozoites
b. Gametes
c. Sporozoites
d. A&B
e. All of the above

A

E

37
Q
  1. Which of the following is a soil-borne disease that comes from a saprophytic organism?
    (A) Chagas
    (B) Anthrax
    (C) Tetanus
    (D) Ergotism
    (E) None of the above
A

D

38
Q
  1. Which disease is caused by an intracellular bacterium that produces elementary bodies and spores?
    (A) Psittacosis
    (B) Chagas
    (C) Rhabdovirus
    (D) Malaria
    (E) None of the above
A

A

39
Q
  1. Which toxin makes your muscles permanently relaxed and is used in face lifts?
    A. Enterotoxins
    B. Excitotoxins
    C. Botulin toxins
    D. Tetanus toxins
    E. None of the above
A

C

40
Q
  1. What is the historical significance of the disease Ergotism?
    A. It caused the bubonic plague
    B. It made the people hallucinate causing the people to think they were cursed by witches
    C. It caused the dust bowl in the 1930’s
    D. It caused Mad Cow disease to spread rapidly
    E. All of the above
A

B

41
Q
  1. What disease caused the American Chestnut tree to almost become extinct?
    A. Ergotism
    B. West Nile Virus
    C. Cryphonectria parasitica
    D. Tetanus
    E. Anthrax
A

C

42
Q
  1. What sort of treatment(s) are used for tetanus?
    A. Antitoxin
    B. Antibiotics
    C. Antifungal cream
    D. Both A and B
    E. None of the above
A

D

43
Q
  1. What age group has the highest risk of contracting tetanus?
    A. 0-9 years old
    B. 10-20 years old
    C. 25-59 years old
    D. 60-75 years old
    E. 76+ years old
A

C

44
Q
  1. When Anthrax is left untreated, what germination location will result in 100% mortality?
    A. Cutaneous
    B. Inhalation
    C. Intestinal
    D. Subcutaneous
    E. All of the above
A

B

45
Q
  1. Which of the following fungal disease categories is the infection of internal organs and is considered most serious?
    (A) Subcutaneous
    (B) Systemic
    (C) Superficial
    (D) Serial
    (E) None of the above
A

B

Microbiology-Jenn Edition (20 decks)

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