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Microbiology-Jenn Edition > Questions Lecture 13 > Flashcards

Questions Lecture 13 Flashcards

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1
Q
  1. Which of the following is a factor in disease emergence?
    (A) Human demographics and behavior
    (B) Increased sanitation
    (C) Loss of health standards
    (D) A and C
    (E) None of the above
A

D

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following are one (or more) of the 5 steps to disease management?
    (A) Controls against vehicles
    (B) Kill all reservoirs
    (C) Increase sensitivity to our antibodies
    (D) Increase your immune system with supplements
    (E) None of the above
A

A

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3
Q
  1. Diphtheria is an example of what type of toxin?
    (A) Cytolytic
    (B) AB toxin
    (C) Alpha-toxin
    (D) Endotoxin
    (E) None of the above
A

B

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following could you use to figure out if a culturable pathogen is antibiotic resistant?
    (A) Direct Elisa
    (B) Indirect Elisa
    (C) Q-PCR
    (D) Disc Diffusion
    (E) None of the above
A

D

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5
Q
  1. What does RT-PCR stand for?
    (A) mating type A
    (B) Reverse Time PCR
    (C) RNA Transcriptase PCR
    (D) Reverse Transcriptase
    (E) None of the above
A

D

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6
Q
  1. Malaria is common in some parts of Africa and at low incidence. What disease classification would malaria be considered?
    (A) Pandemic
    (B) Endemic
    (C) Epidemic
    (D) Incidence
    (E) None of the above
A

B

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7
Q
  1. What method is used for the disease management to control against vehicles?
    (A) Domestic animals
    (B) Insect vectors
    (C) Water purification
    (D) Child immunization
    (E) None of the above
A

C

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8
Q
  1. What is one public measure to control against reservoirs?
    (A) Water purification
    (B) Air filtration
    (C) Pasteurization
    (D) Insecticides
    (E) None of the above
A

D

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9
Q
  1. Endotoxins come from ______.
    (A) Pathogen cells
    (B) The environment
    (C) Internal cell features
    (D) the LPS of the outer membrane
    (E) None of the above
A

D

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10
Q
  1. What are the characteristic of nosocomial infections?
    (A) Host-independent
    (B) Low host resistance
    (C) Breaching of the skin barrier
    (D) There are many pathogen reservoirs
    (E) All of the above
A

E

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11
Q
  1. How does pathogen virulence relate to overall herd immunity?
    (A) The more virulent the pathogen, a smaller percentage of the population with immunity is needed
    (B) The less virulent the pathogen, a smaller percentage of the population with immunity is needed
    (C) The more virulent the pathogen, a greater percentage of the population with immunity is needed
    (D) The more virulent the pathogen, a smaller percentage of the population with immunity is needed
    (E) None of the above
A

C

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12
Q
  1. What kind of immunity is it when the immunity is acquired by the transfer of immune cells or antibodies through the placenta or breast milk?
    (A) Active artificial immunity
    (B) Passive artificial immunity
    (C) Active natural immunity
    (D) Passive natural immunity
    (E) None of the above
A

B

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13
Q
  1. _____ is an example of artificial active immunity.
    (A) Adaptive immune response to an infection
    (B) Exposure to attenuated pathogens through vaccination
    (C) Antibodies transferred through breast milk
    (D) Direct injection of antibodies
    (E) None of the above
A

B

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14
Q
  1. A host-dependent pathogen decides to use an animal as a reservoir, this type of reservoir would be considered an _______ reservoir.
    (A) Imaginary
    (B) Physical
    (C) Animate
    (D) Inanimate
    (E) None of the above
A

C

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15
Q
  1. A patient arrived at a hospital for a broken bone that protruded through the skin; during the patient’s visit they came in contact with a contaminated surface and contracted an infection, this type of infection would be characterized as a ________ infection.
    (A) Bacterial
    (B) Viral
    (C) Nosocomial
    (D) Contact
    (E) None of the above
A

c

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16
Q
  1. One public health measure is the control against vehicles this includes _______.
    (A) Air filtration
    (B) Water purification
    (C) Food Purity/Preparation
    (D) All the above
    (E) None of the above
A

D

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17
Q
  1. When the use of a fluorescent tag on antibodies is used, and a light is emitted when an antibody binds this type of diagnostic technique is called ____.
    (A) Nucleic Acid Probes
    (B) ELISA
    (C) Immunofluorescence
    (D) PCR Testing
A

C

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18
Q
  1. ____ is an immunoassay that has a high specificity and sensitivity and can be used for at homes tests, such as pregnancy and COVID test.
    (A) PCR testing
    (B) Culturing
    (C) Nucleic Acid Probes
    (D) Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
    (E) None of the above
A

D

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19
Q
  1. When a person receives a direct injection that contains antibodies this is considered ______.
    (A) Indirect Artificial Immunity
    (B) Active Artificial Immunity
    (C) Passive Artificial Immunity
    (D) Direct Artificial Immunity
    (E) None of the above
A

C

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20
Q
  1. A hospital environment, where nosocomial infections occur, favors selection for what kind of pathogens?
    (A) Low virulence
    (B) Antibiotic resistance
    (C) Host-independent
    (D) B and C
    (E) All the above
A

D

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21
Q
  1. What is the purpose of selective media in agar plates?
    (A) To identify microbes based on appearance
    (B) To determine susceptibility of a pathogen to antibiotics
    (C) There’s no purpose, it’s just fun to have different types of agar plates
    (D) To inhibit growth of non-target microbes
    (E) None of the above
A

D

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22
Q
  1. Dr. Green observes a piece of a pathogen in a vaccine in his lab that looks like a real pathogen but is not very effective. The pathogen does not cause many side effects. What type of pathogen does this vaccine contain?
    (A) Attenuated Pathogen
    (B) Inactivated Pathogen
    (C) Puzzle Piece Pathogen
    (D) Both F and G
    (E) All of the above
A

B

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23
Q
  1. Which is/are characteristics of a host-dependent pathogen?
    (A) Grows/Reproduces only in the host
    (B) Acute Infections
    (C) Chronic Infections
    (D) Both A and B
    (E) Both A and C
A

E

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24
Q
  1. Rank the disease classification from lowest to highest incidence.
    (A) Pandemic < Endemic < Epidemic
    (B) Endemic < Epidemic < Pandemic
    (C) Epidemic <Pandemic < Endemic
    (D) Epidemic < Endemic < Pandemic
    (E) None of the above
A

B

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25
Q
  1. Which of the following is a method of active artificial immunity?
    (A) Direct injection of antibodies
    (B) Vaccination (Immunization)
    (C) Voluntary methods (facemasks)
    (D) Quarantining (self-isolation)
    (E) None of the above
A
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26
Q
  1. Which is true about Nosocomial Infections?
    (A) They are host-dependent
    (B) They have low host resistance
    (C) They have few pathogen reservoirs
    (D) They have high host resistance
    (E) None of the above
A
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27
Q
  1. An enzyme linked immunosorbent assay that detects the antigen is referred to as?
    (A) Indirect ELISA
    (B) PCR
    (C) Direct ELISA
    (D) Antibiograms
    (E) None of the above
A

C

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28
Q
  1. What is an Antigenic shift?
    (A) When a single virus mutates into a new dangerous virus
    (B) When a virus undergoes a major change to its antigen via gene reassortment
    (C) When a virus swaps species
    (D) When a mom passes a virus on to her child
    (E) None of the above
A

B

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29
Q
  1. Streptococcus pyogenes (flesh eating bacteria) harms the body through what…
    (A) Causes the immune system to attack the body
    (B) Over activating the immune system,
    (C) Creates a super antigen
    (D) All of the above
    (E) None of the above
A

D

30
Q
  1. What is the designation of a virus in your blood?
    (A) Systemic viremia
    (B) Systemic bacteremia
    (C) Mama mia, here I go again
    (D) Systemic virulence
    (E) None of the above
A

A

31
Q
  1. Tamiflu treats the influenza by preventing what?
    (A) Release of the virus from the cell
    (B) Infection of the cell
    (C) Attachment to the cell
    (D) Replications of the virus
    (E) None of the above
A

A

32
Q
  1. What are some virulence factors of a staph infection.
    (A) Lyses red blood cells
    (B) Forms a clot
    (C) Lyses white blood cells
    (D) All of the above
    (E) None of the above
A

D

33
Q
  1. Where is an Influenza Virus infection typically found during early stages in the body?
    (A) In the kidneys
    (B) In the blood
    (C) In the upper lungs
    (D) In the lower intestines
    (E) none of the above
A

C

34
Q
  1. What direct-contact disease is caused from the Epstein-Bar Viruses (EBV)?
    (A) Staphylococcal Infections
    (B) Gastric Ulcers
    (C) Mononucleosis
    (D) Hepatitis
    (E) None of the above
A

C

35
Q
  1. Which of these diseases stays in the body and has a latent period?
    (A) Tuberculosis
    (B) Staphylococcus pyogenes
    (C) Mononucleosis
    (D) Both A and C
    (E) None of the above
A

d

36
Q
  1. Which airborne disease can become flesh-eating bacteria?
    (A) Streptococcus pyogenes
    (B) Streptococcus pneumoniae
    (C) Pertussis
    (D) Tuberculosis
    (E) None of the above
A

a

37
Q
  1. What disease relies on herd immunity the most?
    (A) Colds
    (B) Tuberculosis
    (C) Pertussis
    (D) Measles
    (E) None of the above
A

d

38
Q
  1. There is an outbreak at New Hanover hospital of a direct contact transmission disease. You are a part of a research team that has determined that the unknown pathogen is facultatively aerobic, Gram positive, and is often a nosocomial infection. What should you identify the pathogen as?
    (A) Epstein-Barr Virus
    (B) Hepatitis A
    (C) Helicobacter pylori
    (D) Staphylococcus aureus
    (E) None of the above
A

d

39
Q
  1. A barrier to transmission is oxygen tolerance. What property does mycobacterium have in order to overcome this barrier?
    (A) Mycolic acids, a waxy layer of cell walls
    (B) Gram (+), thick cell walls
    (C) Gram (-), thin cell walls
    (D) All of the above
    (E) None of the above
A

b

40
Q
  1. Strepptococcus pyogenes is the bacterium that causes strep throat. What kind of pathogen is this?
    (A) Obligate aerobes, Gram (-)
    (B) Obligate aerobes, Gram (+)
    (C) Obligate anaerobes, Gram (+)
    (D) Aerotolerant, Gram (+)
    (E) None of the above
A

d

41
Q
  1. Which of the following airborne diseases are viral?
    (A) Influenza
    (B) Streptococcus
    (C) Pertussis
    (D) Tuberculosis
    (E) None of the above
A
42
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of a bacterial airborne disease?
    (A) Streptococcus
    (B) Pertussis (Whooping Cough)
    (C) Tuberculosis
    (D) A and C only
    (E) All of the above
A

E

43
Q
  1. Which of the following is causative agent of strep throat?
    (A) Streptococcus spp.
    (B) Streptococcus pyogenes
    (C) Streptococcus pneumonia
    (D) Streptococcus throat
    (E) None of the above
A

B

44
Q
  1. The MMR vaccine is for which of the following diseases?.
    (A) Measles
    (B) Mumps
    (C) Rubella
    (D) A, B, and C
    (E) None of the above
A

D

45
Q
  1. The number one cause of disease is caused by_
    (A) Colds
    (B) Diabetes
    (C) Chlamydia
    (D) Rubella
    (E) None of the above
A

A

46
Q

Scheller, Sophia
CORRECT ANSWER (A, B, C, D, or E)
97. When two viruses infect the same cell and recombine genomes, this is called__
(A) Viral mating
(B) Antigenic shift
(C) Antigenic push
(D) Virus matching
(E) None of the above

A

B

47
Q
  1. Staphylococcal infections can cause__
    (A) Pyogenic infections
    (B) Food poising
    (C) Toxic shock syndrome
    (D) All of the above
    (E) None of the above
A

D

48
Q
  1. An advantage of using a MRSA media cultures for diagnosing staphylococcal infections is__
    (A) It can be cultured very rapidly
    (B) Positive cultures show up blue and are easy to detect
    (C) Positive cultures show up red which is easy to detect
    (D) A and B
    (E) A and C
A

D

49
Q
  1. ___ of individuals with Helicobacter pylori do not have stomach ulcers
    (A) 80%
    (B) 20%
    (C) 90%
    (D) 5%
    (E) None of the above
A

A

50
Q
  1. ___ IV drug usage commonly results in ___ Hepatitis cases.
    (A) Increased, decreased
    (B) Increased, increased
    (C) Decreased, decreased
    (D) Decreases, increased
    (E) None of the above
A

B

51
Q
  1. Which statement is NOT true regarding person-to-person transmission?
    (A) People can be reservoirs
    (B) People can be infected hosts
    (C) Eradication is possible
    (D) We are unable to control reservoirs
    (E) None of the above
A

D

52
Q
  1. What method can reduce the M. bovis mycobacterium transmission from cows to humans?
    (A) Pasteurization
    (B) Immunization
    (C) Antibiotics
    (D) Vehicle control
    (E) None of the above
A

A

53
Q
  1. A double stranded DNA virus that persists in a lifelong infection and is spread through fomites is:
    (A) Pertussis
    (B) Hepatitis
    (C) Tuberculosis
    (D) Epstein-Barr
    (E) None of the above
A

C

54
Q
  1. When Dr. Erwin was a freshman, he contracted this pathogen. The mortality for this disease is extremely low, morbidity very high, it is caused by Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV) and is considered a direct-contact disease and infects your B-cells. This viral disease is ______.
    (A) Staphylococcal
    (B) Hepatitis
    (C) Mononucleosis
    (D) Gastric Ulcers
    (E) None of the above
A

C

55
Q
  1. This Gram (-) pathogen is aerobic, highly contagious, once infected the host will carry it for the rest of their life (i.e., Dr. Erwin), can be diagnosed with a skin prick, and has a worldwide morbidity of 1/3, this disease is _______.
    (A) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
    (B) Pertussis
    (C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
    (D) Streptococcus pyogenes
    (E) None of the above
A

A

56
Q
  1. An obligate anaerobe has the best chance of survival through ___ transmission.
    (A) Vehicle
    (B) Direct contact
    (C) Sexual
    (D) Airborne
    (E) None of the above
A

C

57
Q
  1. Pandemic strains of viruses are most commonly due to ___.
    (A) Antigenic drift
    (B) High population resistance
    (C) Antigenic shift
    (D) A or C
    (E) None of the above
A

C

58
Q
  1. You work in a lab helping identify cultures. You are given a unknown sample of staphylococcus. In order to identify what kind of staphylococcus infection this is, you streak a plate and the culture that grows is blue. You can identify that this is _____ .
    (A) Staphylococcus aureus
    (B) MRSA
    (C) A and B
    (D) Staphylococcus epidermis
    (E) None of the above
A

B

59
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT an airborne bacterial disease?
    (A) Streptococcus
    (B) TB
    (C) Measles
    (D) None of the above
    (E) All the above
A

C

60
Q
  1. The #1 cause of disease is:
    (A) Rhinovirus
    (B) Coronavirus
    (C) Influenza
    (D) Measles
    (E) None of the above
A
61
Q
  1. The #1 cause of disease is:
    (A) Rhinovirus
    (B) Coronavirus
    (C) Influenza
    (D) Measles
    (E) None of the above
A

A

62
Q
  1. Which of the following is FALSE statement regarding mononucleosis?
    (A) The pathogen that causes mononucleosis is the Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV)
    (B) The mortality and morbidity rate of mononucleosis is extremely low
    (C) Symptoms include fatigue, sore throat, and fever
    (D) PCR and microscopy (blood samples) can diagnosis mononucleosis
    (E) All of the statements are true
A

B

63
Q
  1. Which of the following is a major cause of pandemics?
    (A) Person-to-person contact
    (B) Antigenic shifts
    (C) Contact with bodily fluids of infected person
    (D) Magic
    (E) None of the above
A

B

64
Q
  1. What type of pathogen causes Measles?
    (A) Negative-strand RNA Virus
    (B) Positive-strand RNA Virus
    (C) Negative-strand DNA Virus
    (D) Positive-strand DNA Virus
    (E) None of the above
A

A

65
Q
  1. All of the following are characteristics of Tuberculosis EXCEPT…
    (A) Gram-negative bacterium
    (B) Aerobic bacterium
    (C) Mycobacterium
    (D) Anerobic bacterium
    (E) None of the above
A

D

66
Q
  1. Which of the following is considered the most common infectious disease?
    (A) COVID-19
    (B) Seasonal influenza
    (C) Cold
    (D) Measles
    (E) Strep throat
A

C

67
Q
  1. What type of test is most common when dealing with Hepatitis?
    (A) ELISA
    (B) Selective media culturing
    (C) Nucleic acid probes
    (D) PCR test
    (E) All of the above are used
A

A

68
Q
  1. If you were to look at streptococcus pneumoniae under a microscope, it would look like ______.
    (A) A cluster of sphere shaped bacteria
    (B) A chain of spiral shaped bacteria
    (C) A chain of sphere shaped bacteria
    (D) A cluster of rod shaped bacteria
    (E) None of the above
A

B

69
Q
  1. You start experiencing a recurrent, violent cough and go to the doctor. He/she wants to run some tests to determine if you have a case of pertussis. Which type of diagnostic test might he/she run to diagnose you?
    (A) PCR
    (B) Bacterial Culture
    (C) Immunoassay
    (D) All of the Above
    (E) None of the Above
A

D

70
Q
  1. The mode of transmission for disease that encounters the most barriers is?
    (A) Direct-Contact
    (B) Sexually-Transmitted
    (C) Airborne
    (D) A and C
    (E) None of the above
A

C

71
Q
  1. ______________ is the responsible for the common cold.
    (A) Streptococcos pyogenes
    (B) Measles
    (C) Rhinovirus
    (D) Influenza
    (E) None of the above
A

C

72
Q
  1. What percent of microorganisms are disease causing?
    (A) 0.001%
    (B) 0.01%
    (C) 1%
    (D) 10%
    (E) 100%
A

B

Microbiology-Jenn Edition (20 decks)

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