Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Microbiology-Jenn Edition > Module 7 > Flashcards

Module 7 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q
  1. The process of transcription is going from ____ to ____.
    (A) DNA, DNA
    (B) DNA, RNA
    (C) RNA, RNA
    (D) RNA, Protein
    (E) DNA, Protein
A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. The main difference between prokaryotic organisms and eukaryotic organisms is that prokaryotic organisms have ___DNA while eukaryotic organisms have ___ DNA.
    (A) Circular, rectangular
    (B) Circular, linear
    (C) Linear, circular
    (D) Linear, rectangular
    (E) There is no difference, both are linear
A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. Supercoiling is important for DNA structure because ________.
    (A) It holds together the antiparallel strands of DNA in the double helix
    (B) It provides energy for transcription
    (C) It condenses the DNA so that it can fit inside the cell
    (D) It prevents RNA from pairing with DNA in the double helix
    (E) None of the above
A

Believe c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. Genes that encoded for polymerases, gyrases, ribosomal proteins, and other proteins essential to replication, transcription, and translation are present on ________.
    (A) Chromosomes
    (B) Plasmids
    (C) Chromosomes and plasmids
    (D) Neither chromosomes nor plasmids
    (E) None of the above
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. In Bacteria, a chromosome can be distinguished from a plasmid, because a chromosome is a genetic element that ________.
    (A) Is circular
    (B) Is linear
    (C) Encodes for essential functional genes
    (D) Encodes for non-essential (“luxury”) genes
    (E) None of the above
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. ________ is an essential enzyme in DNA replication that unwinds the double-stranded DNA, creating a ________ and exposing single-stranded DNA templates.
    (A) DNA ligase / replication fork
    (B) DNA gyrase / transcription bubble
    (C) DNA helicase / replication fork
    (D) DNA polymerase / transcription bubble
    (E) None of the above
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. During DNA replication, the enzyme ________ synthesizes short strands of RNA (primers) that serve as a starting point for DNA elongation.
    (A) Primase
    (B) Polymerase
    (C) Gyrase
    (D) Helicase
    (E) None of the above
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a method of DNA replication in vitro that uses ______ instead of the enzyme ______ to denature double-stranded DNA and expose single-stranded DNA templates.
    (A) Heat / DNA helicase
    (B) Primers / DNA helicase
    (C) Heat / DNA polymerase
    (D) Primers / DNA polymerase
    (E) None of the above
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. During the ________ step of the polymerase chain reaction (PCR), the reaction mixture is heated to 72ºC to allow the binding of the ________.
    (A) Extension / DNA polymerase
    (B) Extension / primers
    (C) Annealing / DNA polymerase
    (D) Annealing / primers
    (E) None of the above
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. During the ________ step of the polymerase chain reaction (PCR), the reaction mixture is cooled to 55ºC to allow the binding of ________.
    (A) Denaturing / primers
    (B) Annealing / DNA polymerase
    (C) Annealing / primers
    (D) Extension / DNA polymerase
    (E) None of the above
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. The specificity of PCR amplification is determined by which ingredient in the reaction mixture?
    (A) DNA helicase
    (B) DNA polymerase
    (C) Nucleotides
    (D) Primers
    (E) None of the above
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. In the process of transcription, promoters are specific sequences of ________ that are recognized by ________.
    (A) DNA / DNA polymerase
    (B) RNA / DNA polymerase
    (C) DNA / sigma factors
    (D) RNA / ribosomes
    (E) None of the above
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. ________ is an essential enzyme in DNA transcription that unwinds the double-stranded DNA, creating a ________ and exposing single-stranded DNA templates.
    (A) DNA helicase / replication fork
    (B) DNA helicase / transcription bubble
    (C) RNA polymerase / replication fork
    (D) RNA polymerase / transcription bubble
    (E) None of the above
A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. ________ result from hydrogen bonds that form between nucleotides in the SAME strand of an RNA molecule.
    (A) Primary structures
    (B) Secondary structures
    (C) Tertiary structures
    (D) Quaternary structures
    (E) None of the above
A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. The structure of RNA polymerase in Archaea is ______.
    (A) More similar to Eukaryotes than to other Prokaryotes (Bacteria)
    (B) More similar to other Prokaryotes (Bacteria) than to Eukaryotes
    (C) Simpler (fewer subunits) than bacterial RNA polymerase
    (D) Simpler (fewer subunits) than eukaryotic RNA polymerase
    (E) None of the above
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. Many pharmaceutical drugs specifically inhibit transcription in Bacteria but not Archaea. Why would drugs that inhibit transcription only affect Bacteria and not Archaea even though they are both prokaryotes?
    (A) Bacteria lack a nucleus
    (B) Archaea lack operons
    (C) Archaea have ribosomes that are more similar to Eukaryotes than Bacteria
    (D) Archaea have RNA polymerases that are more similar to Eukaryotes than Bacteria
    (E) None of the above
A

D

17
Q
  1. Transfer RNA molecules ________.
    (A) Function to transfer ribonucleotides to RNA polymerase during transcription
    (B) Function to transfer the correct amino acids to the ribosome during translation
    (C) Contain codons that bind to ribosomes during translation
    (D) Are only present in the nucleus or eukaryotes
    (E) None of the above
A

B

18
Q
  1. Translation is terminated by ________ that recognize the stop codon and release the newly synthesized protein.
    (A) Inverted repeats
    (B) Molecular chaperones
    (C) Release factors
    (D) Ribosome-release sequences
    (E) None of the above
A

C?

19
Q
  1. You are studying the expression of a bacterial gene coding for a new protein. By randomly mutating the DNA sequence directly upstream of the start codon of the gene, you create a mutant that produces the SAME amount of mRNA, but very FEW proteins. You conclude that the DNA sequence that you mutated is MOST likely a ________.
    (A) Promoter region
    (B) Ribosome-binding site
    (C) Transcription termination sequence
    (D) Non-coding DNA region
    (E) None of the above
A

D

20
Q
  1. ________ is a mechanism by which bacteria assess population density, producing internal signal molecules called autoinducers.
    (A) Autophosphorylation
    (B) Response regulation
    (C) Signal transduction
    (D) Quorum sensing
    (E) None of the above
A

D

21
Q
  1. Aliivibrio fischeri is a symbiotic bacterium whose bioluminescence is controlled by quorum sensing. During a growth curve of A. fischeri, when would you expect to see the strongest bioluminescence?
    (A) Lag phase
    (B) Early to middle log phase
    (C) Late log to early stationary phase
    (D) Death phase
    (E) None of the above
A

B

22
Q
  1. A triplet of bases on an mRNA molecule is known as a(n) ________.
    (A) Amino acid
    (B) Anticodon
    (C) Codon
    (D) Ribosome-binding sequence
    (E) None of the above
A

C

23
Q
  1. Alpha-helices and Beta-sheets are formed by hydrogen bonds between amino acids and are examples of ________ structure in proteins.
    (A) Primary
    (B) Secondary
    (C) Tertiary
    (D) Quaternary
    (E) None of the above
A

B

24
Q
  1. Which type of protein would exhibit the MOST stability?
    (A) A protein with more a-helices than b-sheets
    (B) A protein with more a-sheets than a-helices
    (C) A protein with equal amounts of b-sheets and a-helices
    (D) A protein with only b-sheets
    (E) None of the above
A

A-often seen in heliophiles

25
Q
  1. Hydrophobic interactions and disulfide bonds aid in the formation of ________ structure in proteins.
    (A) Primary
    (B) Secondary
    (C) Tertiary
    (D) Quaternary
    (E) None of the above
A

C

26
Q
  1. ________ assist in the proper folding of newly synthesized and partially denatured proteins, ensuring proper protein structure and function.
    (A) tRNA
    (B) Ribosomes
    (C) Release factors
    (D) Molecular chaperones
    (E) None of the above
A

D

27
Q
  1. The codon on the ________ matches with the anticodon on the ________ to direct the addition of the correct amino acid to the growing polypeptide chain.
    (A) mRNA / tRNA
    (B) tRNA / mRNA
    (C) DNA / mRNA
    (D) tRNA / rRNA
    (E) None of the above
A

B

Microbiology-Jenn Edition (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions