Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MRCS A(My Own) > VASCULAR > Flashcards

VASCULAR Flashcards

1
Q

saccular dilation of veins (

A

Varicose veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Histological change in Varicose Veins

A

the typical changes include fibrous scar tissue dividing smooth muscle within media in the vessel wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Tissue damage in chronic venous insufficiency occurs because

A

perivascular cytokine leakage resulting in localised tissue damage coupled with impaired lymphatic flow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Features of Venous Stasis Ulcer

A

Located above the medial malleolus
Indolent appearance with basal granulation tissue
Variable degree of scarring
Non ischaemic edges
Haemosiderin deposition in the gaiter area (and also lipodermatosclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

clinical features of venous insufficiency

A

ulceration
varicose eczema
haemosiderin deposition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

I’d concurrent DVT and Varicose

A

Don’t treat superficial incompetence as the blood will not have any way back.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Tests for varicose veins

A

Brodie-Trendelenburg test: to assess level of incompetence
Perthes’ walking test: assess if deep venous system competent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Doppler vs Duplex for Varicose Veins investigation

A

Doppler exam: if incompetent a biphasic signal due to retrograde flow is detected
Duplex scanning: to ensure patent deep venous system (do if DVT or trauma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is usedin injection sclerotherapy

A

5% Ethanolamine oleate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Jf varicose vein with ulcer or skin changes then

A

Compression stocking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Rx of symptomatic Varicose Veins with no skin changes or ulcer

A

1st line is Endothermal Ablation
2nd line is Injection Sclerotherapy
3rd line is surgery which is saphenofemoral / popliteal disconnection, stripping and avulsions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Saphenous vein should be stripped till

A

Saphenous vein stripped to level of knee/upper calf. NB increased risk of saphenous neuralgia if stripped more distally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Gold standard investigation for Varicose veins

A

Gold standard investigation is duplex ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

rocker-bottom” sole

A

Any deformity causing the loss of the transverse arch is termed a “rocker-bottom” sole
In charcot foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Indications for surgery to revascularise the lower limb

A

Intermittent claudication
Critical ischaemia
Ulceration
Gangrene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Leriche’s syndrome

A

Buttock claudication in association with sexual impotence resulting from arterial insufficiency is eponymously called Leriche’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Charcot foot

A

Bounding pulsesin early phase
Always associated with trauma even minor
Erythema in early phase
Peripheral and autonomic neuropathy both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Bilateral swollen leg since birth vs after

A

Milroy disease before
Meige after

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Lympuedema causes

A

accumulation of protein rich fluid, subdermal fibrosis and dermal thickening.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Fluid is confined to which region in lymphedema

A

Epifascial space (skin and subcutaneous tissue
muscle compartments are free of oedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Foot findings in lymphedema

A

Buffalo hump’ on the dorsum of the foot and the skin cannot be pinched due to subcutaneous fibrosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Indications for surgery of lymphedema

A

Marked disability or deformity from limb swelling

Lymphoedema caused by proximal lymphatic obstruction with patent distal lymphatics suitable for a lymphatic drainage procedure

Lymphocutaneous fistulae and megalymphatics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Procedures for lymphedema

A

Homan
Charles
Arteriovenous anastomosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Compression bandaging contra indicated at which ABPI

A

0.3 to 0.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Type 2 diabetics ABPI

A

> 1.2 as they have calcification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Normal ABPI

A

1 to 1.2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Congenital lymphedema

A

Milroy’s disease is congenital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

most common cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease

A

TOF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Shunting in TOF

A

Right to left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Features of TOF

A

causes a right-to-left shunt
ejection systolic murmur due to pulmonary stenosis (the VSD doesn’t usually cause a murmur)
a right-sided aortic arch is seen in 25% of patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

cyanotic episodes of TOF may be helped by

A

beta-blockers to reduce infundibular spasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Degree of cyanosis in TOF depends upon

A

The severity of the right ventricular outflow tract obstruction determines the degree of cyanosis and clinical severity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Gritti Stokes amputation

A

through knee amputation ()

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

commonest cause of acute limb ischaemia

A
  • Thrombosis of a pre-existing site of atherosclerosis is the commonest cause of acute limb ischaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Clinical Appearance of acute ischemic limb

A

Less than 6 hours = White leg

At 6 -12 hours = Mottled limb with blanching on pressure

More than 12-24 hours = Fixed mottling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Rx in these situation
1. White leg with sensorimotor deficit.
2. Dusky leg, mild anaesthesia

A
  1. Surgery and embolectomy
  2. Angiography
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

outof 6 P’s of C/F of acute limb which are ealry

A

Pain
Pallor
Pulselessness

Paralysis is last

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

irreversible tissue damage in acute ischemic after how many hours

A

within 6 hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Initial Rx of Acute limb ischemia

A

Start the patient on high-flow oxygen and ensure adequate IV access. A therapeutic dose heparin or preferably a bolus dose then heparin infusion should be initiated as soon as is practical.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Ischemic Reperfusion Injury

A

An important complication of acute limb ischaemia is reperfusion injury; sudden increase in capillary permeability can result in:

Compartment syndrome
Release of substances from the damaged muscle cells, such as:
K+ ions causing hyperkalaemia
H+ ions causing acidosis
Myoglobin, resulting in significant AKI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

When to consider Fasciotomy in Acute limb ischaemia patient to prevent compartm3nt syndrome

A

Fasciotomy should be considered if the time between onset and surgery exceeds 6 hours

42
Q

Klippel-Trenaunay-Weber syndrome vs Sturge - Weber syndrome

A

Sturge - Weber syndrome is a an arteriovenous malformation affecting the face and CNS, the peripheral vessels are not affected
KTW : mostly affect limbs

43
Q

Varicose veins plus port wine lesions

A

Klippel-Trenaunay-Weber syndrome

44
Q

Klippel-Trenaunay-Weber syndrome features

A

One or more distinctive port-wine stains with sharp borders

Varicose veins

Hypertrophy of bony and soft tissues, that may lead to local gigantism or shrinking.

An improperly developed lymphatic system

45
Q

atypical Klippel-Trenaunay syndrome’.

A

When no port wine lesion

46
Q

Arterial vs venous ulcers

A

A are well demarcated
V are with irregular borders

47
Q

Marjolin’s ulcer

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

Occurring at sites of chronic inflammation e.g; burns, osteomyelitis after 10-20 years

Mainly occur on the lower limb

48
Q

features associated with venous insufficiency,

A

varicose eczema or thrombophlebitis,
haemosiderin skin staining,
lipodermatosclerosis,
or atrophie blanche.

49
Q

Compression application only when ABPI is

A

> 0.6

50
Q

skin grafting may be needed for venous ulcers when

A

If fail to heal after 12 weeks or >10cm2

51
Q

Arterial vs neuropathic ulcers

A

A has sensation but N doesn’t.

52
Q

Common site of Neuropathic ulcer

A

plantar surface of metatarsal head and plantar surface of hallux

53
Q

Lymphangiosarcoma

A

Lymphangiosarcoma is a rare condition arising as a result of chronic oedema. It is an aggressive malignancy.

54
Q

Femoro-femoral bypass indication

A

Unilateral iliac artery obstruction with normal other side.

55
Q

When the overlying skin is healthy (and limb deformity a problem) in lymphedema patient
Which procedure to perform

A

Homans operation

56
Q

1st line Rx of Stanford type B

A

Beta blockers
2nd line Ca channel blockers

57
Q

Debakey and Stanford classification

A

For aortic dissection

58
Q

DeBakey classification

A

Type Site affected
I Ascending aorta, aortic arch, descending aorta
II Ascending aorta only
III Descending aorta distal to left subclavian artery

59
Q

Stanford Classification

A

Type Location Treatment
A Ascending aorta/ aortic root Surgery- aortic root replacement
B Descending aorta Medical therapy with antihypertensives

60
Q

Most common site of dissection of aorta

A

90% occurring within 10 centimetres of the aortic valve

61
Q

Venous ulcers have granulation tissue but doesn’t have

A

Exophytic granulation tissue

62
Q

Initial Rx of Stanford type A and B

A

Stanford Type A dissections should be managed surgically in the first instance and carry a worse prognosis than Type B dissections.
Any uncomplicated Type B dissections can usually be managed medically.

63
Q

Lifelong Rx of all kind of aortic dissection

A

antihypertensive therapy and surveillance imaging*, due to the high risk of developing further dissection or other complications.

*Imaging would usually be at 1, 3, and 12 months post-discharge, with further scans at 6-12 month intervals thereafter depending on the size of the aorta.

64
Q

Imaging criteria post Rx of aortic dissection

A

*Imaging would usually be at 1, 3, and 12 months post-discharge, with further scans at 6-12 month intervals thereafter depending on the size of the aorta.

65
Q

Klippel-Trenaunay-Weber syndrome usually spares which vein

A

Long saphenous
As it’s a lateral

66
Q

}Klippel-Trenaunay vein

A

The Klippel-Trenaunay vein is a large, lateral, superficial vein sometimes seen at birth. This vein begins in the foot or the lower leg and travels proximally until it enters the thigh or the gluteal area.

67
Q

Klippel-Trenaunay syndrome vs Parker Weber syndrome

A

low flow rates in klippel in contrast to Parkes Weber syndrome where high flow rates are seen.

68
Q

Patient with cardiac Hx and B/L iliac vessel occlusion
Which graft to be done

A

Axillo bifemoral

69
Q

technique is particularly useful in providing a distal arterial roadmap prior to bypass

A

Angiogram

70
Q

Before any vascular surgery

A

Always perform a test
If known juntional problem even then perform Venous duplex scan

71
Q

Monophonic vs triphasic signals

A

Monophasic signals are associated with a proximal stenosis and reduction in flow.
Triphasic signals provide reassurance of a healthy vessel.

72
Q

Ejection systolic murmur

A

Aortic stenosis
Pulmonary stenosis, HOCM
ASD, Fallot’s

73
Q

Austin-Flint murmur

A

(severe aortic regurgitation)

74
Q

Late systolic murmur in

A

Mitral valve prolapse
Coarctation of aorta

75
Q

Graham-Steel murmur is also called

A

pulmonary regurgitation

76
Q

Filariasis is caused by

A

Filariasis is caused by the nematode Wuchereria bancroft

77
Q

Treatment of filariasis

A

diethylcarbamazine

78
Q

Always have what before saphenofemoral junction ligation

A

Du0lex scan
Proceed to surgery post this procedure.

79
Q

diastolic murmur at the apex

A

Mitral stenosis

80
Q

Cyanotic disease at birth

A

TGA

81
Q

Paget–Schrötter disease

A

Thrombosis of the axillary vein

82
Q

Thoracic outlet syndrome is caused by which kind of movement

A

hyperextension injuries, repetitive stress injuries

83
Q

Investigation of choice of Thoracic outlet syndrome/ Axillary vein thrombosis

A

Duplex

84
Q

which cord is affected in Thoracic outlet syndrome

A

Lower cord thus ulnar nerve

85
Q

Treatment of axillary vein thrombosis

A

Treatment
Local catheter directed TPA
Heparin
Warfarin

86
Q

Features of marfan syndrome

A

Erotic dissection causing mediastinal Widening
bilateral inguinal hernia
tall

87
Q

which antihypertensives may exacerbate claudication

A

antihypertensives (particularly β-blockers) may exacerbate claudication

88
Q

The arteries that form the three-vessel runoff include

A

the peroneal artery
posterior tibial artery (PTA) and
anterior tibial artery (ATA).

89
Q

Superficial femoral artery disease can be treated

A

by femoropopliteal bypass

90
Q

Rx of Raynaud’s disease

A

Treatment is with calcium antagonists

91
Q

Which surgical method is used for treatment of cervical rib

A

A transaxillary approach is the traditional operative method for excision

92
Q

Favourable situation for endoscopic vascular aneurysmal repair

A

Long neck

Straight iliac vessels

Healthy groin vessels

93
Q

supra renal AAAare treated by

A

Fenestrated grafts

94
Q

connective tissue disease associated with AAA

A

Marfan’s disease, Ehler’s Danlos, Loey Dietz

95
Q

Takayasu’s aortitis) is associated with which vascular disaese

A

AAA

96
Q

Which disease is a negative risk factor for abdominal aortic aneurysm

A

Diabetes mellitus is a negative risk factor for AAA

97
Q

Abdominal aortic aneurysms screening at what age and by which method

A

abdominal US scan for all men in their 65th year.

98
Q

If AAA <5.5 cm then how to asses

A

3.0 – 4.4cm: yearly ultrasound
4.5 – 5.4cm: 3-monthly ultrasound

99
Q

classic triad’ of ruptured AAA

A

flank or back pain, hypotension, and a pulsatile abdominal mass).

100
Q

At which stage during aortic abdominal aneurysmal surgery does cardiac issue is very high

A

When clamps or off End tidal CO2 Rises

101
Q

Cervical rib
Tests 1st line vs GS

A

Arterial Duplex 1st line
CT Angio GS

102
Q

Cervical rib Rx

A

Angioplasty
Bypass

MRCS A(My Own) (28 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions