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MRCS A(My Own) > Infections > Flashcards

Infections Flashcards

1
Q

MC cause of epiglottistis in immunized vs nonimmunized child

A

Immunized: Group A beta hemolytic streptococcus
Non immunized: Hermophilos influenza type B

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2
Q

Moraxella Catarrhalis cause

A

otitis media
bronchitis
laryngitis

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3
Q

Epiglottitis Symptoms

A

Sore throat
Inspiratory stridor
Raised temperature
Sits fOrward in tripod position and drool

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4
Q

Toxic shock syndrome causedby

A

Staphylococcus aureus or Group A Streptococcus

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5
Q

Infections postsplenectomy by which organisms

A

S. Pneumoniae, N. Meningitis, H.influenza type b and influenza virus

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6
Q

Reimmunization postsplenectomy should be done after first dose

A

In 5 years after 1st dose

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7
Q

Life long prophylactic Ab postsplenectomy

A

Macrolides
Phenoxymethylpenicillin

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8
Q

Which drug causes C.difficle diarrhea

A

C rule
Clindamycin
Cephalosporins
Ciproflooxacin
Co amoxiclav

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9
Q

Rx of C.difficle

A

Metronidazole and vancomycin

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10
Q

SOFA tool for organ failure includes

A

PaO2/FiO2
Platelets
Bilirubin
Cardiovascular
GCS
Creatinine
Urine output

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11
Q

qSOFA score

A

Respiratory rate >22/min
Altered mentation
Systolic blood pressure <100 mm Hg

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12
Q

intraoperative bile spillage
Causative agent

A

C. DIFF

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13
Q

most common organism for acute tonsillitis

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

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14
Q

risk of a wound infection in a male undergoing a Hartmanns procedure for perforated sigmoid diverticular disease

A

35%

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15
Q

protracted terminal ileitis/ inflamed terminal ileum

A

Yersinia enterocolitica

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16
Q

Yersinia pestis causes

A

plague

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17
Q

undergone an inguinal hernia repair

A

Staphylococcus aureusInfection

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18
Q

In sickle cellOsteomyelitis

A

Salmonellaspecies

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19
Q

intravenous drug users osteomyelitis

A

P. aeruginosa

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20
Q

If ventilated /intubated patients receive a course of Ab
which replacement flora

A

Klebsiella in URT

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21
Q

Ifsuspected MRSA then take swab from

A

Hairline
Nose
Axilla
Groin
Perineum

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22
Q

cholangitis infections

A

E Coli

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23
Q

ERCP for Cholangitis timing

A

usually after 72 hours of antibiotics

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24
Q

Diarrhea in HIV

A

Cryptosporidium

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25
Q

hard painless ulcer affecting the genital area

A

Teperenoma Pallidum

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26
Q

Recurrentinfection afterimplants

A

Staph epidermidis

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27
Q

The classic presentation of EBV infectious mononucleosis in children and young adults consists of

A

the triad of fever, pharyngitis, and lymphadenopathy.

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28
Q

combination of pharyngitis and tonsillitis is often seen in

A

glandular fever

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29
Q

watercress farmer withhyperechoic areasin uss dueto parasites

A

fasicola hepatica

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30
Q

Fasciola hepaticaAlso known as

A

common liver fluke (parasitic trematode

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31
Q

Rx of fasciola hepatica

A

triclabendazole

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32
Q

Two phases of Fasciola hepatica infection

A

Acute: Immatere worms Penetrate gut
Chronic:Bileduct penetration, by Mature worms

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33
Q

HUS is typically developed by which age group

A

children not adults

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34
Q

Eo coli

A

Maybe complicated by microoangiopathic hemolytic anemia
Transmits by contaminated food consumption
Grom-ve

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35
Q

Birds are a recognised reservoir of .

A

campylobacter

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36
Q

Pruritus is the main symptom in which parasitic infection

A

Enterobius Enterobius vermicularis

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37
Q

worms+ lung involvesmest

A

Ascariasis in gut
Ancylostoma duodenale Penetrate through Skin

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38
Q

Hookworms that anchor in proximal small bowel

A

Ancylostoma duodenale

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39
Q

Ancylostoma duodenale can cause which anemic

40
Q

Organisms produce cysts which are excreted

A

Cryptosporidium

41
Q

Rx for giardiasis

A

Metronidazole

42
Q

In resistant MRSA give

A

Vancomycin + Rifampicin

43
Q

How should a patient be screened for MRSA?

A

nasal swab and skin lesions or wounds

44
Q

MRSA Rx in nose and Skin

A

nose: mupirocin
skin: chlorhexidine gluconate particularly to the axilla, groin and perineum

45
Q

following antibiotics are commonly used in the treatment of MRSA infections:

A

vancomycin

teicoplanin

46
Q

Rx of MRSA only when ISt line doesnt work

A

rifampicin

macrolides

tetracyclines

aminoglycosides

clindamycin

47
Q

normalendoscopic appearances,
microscopic features of colonic inflammation
and thickening of the sub epithelial collagen layer.

A

Microscopic colitis

48
Q

Septic arthritis - most common organism
vs
Sexually active individuals

A

Staphylococcus aureus
Neisseria gonorrhoeae

49
Q

Rx of septic arthritis

A

Penicillin
flucloxacillin or clindamycin if penicillin allergic
Antibiotic treatment is normally be given for several weeks (BNF states 6-12 weeks)

50
Q

commonest cause of lactational mastitis.

A

staph aureus

51
Q

Ototoxicity is a recognised adverse reaction with the

A

aminoglycoside antibiotics.

52
Q

Inhibit cell wall formation

A

penicillins

cephalosporins

53
Q

cause misreading of mRNA)

A

aminoglycosides

54
Q

Inhibit protein synthesis

A

aminoglycosides (cause misreading of mRNA)

chloramphenicol

macrolides (e.g. erythromycin)

tetracyclines

fusidic acid

55
Q

Inhibit DNA synthesis

A

quinolones (e.g. ciprofloxacin)

metronidazole

sulphonamides

trimethoprim

56
Q

Inhibit RNA synthesis

A

rifampicin

57
Q

Commonest cause of non viral diarrhea

A

Campylobacter jejuni

58
Q

Which infection accounts for 26% of GBS

A

Campylobacter

59
Q

Adverse effects of erythromycin

A

gastrointestinal side-effects are common

cholestatic jaundice: risk may be reduced if erythromycin stearate is used

P450 inhibitor

60
Q

Tests for HIV

A

HIV antibody test ( present at 3 to 5 weeks bur can rom3 months)
P24: positive in 1 week to 3 to 4 weeks

61
Q

bulls neck appearance.

62
Q

thick grey membrane which bleeds following attempted removal.

63
Q

Rx of late infection of graft

A

Removal of metal work implantation of gentamicin beads and delayed revision is the mainstay of managing this complication after 4 weeks

64
Q

Streptococcus bovis septicaemia is associated with carcinoma of the

65
Q

Strep Bovis

A

Gram pos
Cause endocarditis

66
Q

HBV

A

double stranded DNA

67
Q

Rx of HepB

A

lamivudine, tenofovir and entecavir

68
Q

Infection with Ascaris lumbricoides usually

A

individuals have visited places like sub Saharan Africa or the far east.

69
Q

Diagnosis of Ascaris vs ancylclostoma duodenale

A

Diagnosis of Ascaris
Both worms and eggs in the stool.vs only larvae

70
Q

In straightforward uncomplicated laparoscopic cholecystectomy the wound infection rates are

A

around 3-5%

71
Q

Exo vs endotoxin of staph causes

A

Exo causes TSS
Endo causes gastroenteritis

72
Q

Which organism causes malabsorption and resistant to chlorination

73
Q

Which kind of drapes decrease risk of infection

A

Iodophor impregnated drapes have been demonstrated to reduce the risk of wound infection.

74
Q

Malignant otitis externa is caused by

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

75
Q

Severe pain, headaches and granulation tissue within the external auditory meatus are key features of

A

malignant otitis externa

76
Q

Commonest risk factor ofMalignant otitis externa

A

Diabetes mellitus

77
Q

Severe abdominal pain tends to favour

A

Campylobacter infection.

78
Q

Meleney v S Necrotising fascitis

A

Meleneys is a similar principle but the infection is more superficially sited than necrotising fasciitis and often confined to the trunk

79
Q

Fournier gangrene

A

Necrotising fasciitis affecting the perineum

Polymicrobial with E-coli and Bacteroides acting in synergy

80
Q

Late findings o f Necrotising fascitis

A

Purple/black skin discolouration
Blistering
Haemorrhagic bullae
Crepitus
Dirty Dishwater fluid discharge
Septic shock

81
Q

rheumatic fever with Valve abnormality
Causative agent

A

Strep visidans

82
Q

Severe peritoneal infection with foul smelling pus

A

Bacteroides Fragilis

83
Q

Bacterides fragilis

A

Severe peritoneal infections
facultatively anaerobic
Maybe in pus
Pungent Aroma

84
Q

most likely pathogen to be associated with gangrene.

A

Clostridium perfringens

85
Q

Fournier’s Gangrene

A

Bothaerobic and anaerobic
Most commonly E-coli and bacteroides

86
Q

Best diagnostic test for actinomycosis

A

Direct visualisation of organisms and sulphur granules from lesions

87
Q

Schistosoma mansoni and Schistosoma intercalatum
Schistosoma haematobium
Causes

A

Schistosoma mansoni and Schistosoma intercalatum: intestinal schistosomiasis

Schistosoma haematobium: urinary schistosomiasis

88
Q

Rx of Schistosoma haematobium

A

Single oral dose of praziquantel

89
Q

Diarrhoea in immunocompromised

A

Cyrptosporudium

90
Q

appearances of melanosis coli are identified and confirmed on biopsy.

A

may occur as a result of laxative abuse and consists of lipofuschin laden macrophages that appear brown.

91
Q

antibiotic of choice for group A streptococcal/ streptococcus pyogens infections.

A

Penicillin

92
Q

Alpha haemolytic streptococci

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae
Streptococcus viridans

93
Q

neonatal meningitis causes by

A

Group B

Streptococcus agalactiae

94
Q

scarlet fever is caused by

A

erythrogenic toxinsof group A streptococcus

95
Q

Dirty Dishwater fluid discharge

A

Gas gangrene

MRCS A(My Own) (28 decks)

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