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Microbiology > Vaccine & Immunizations (Exam IV) > Flashcards

Vaccine & Immunizations (Exam IV) Flashcards

1
Q

The two key public health measures that have a major effects on lowering the incidence of infectious disease:

A
  1. Public sanitation
  2. Vaccines
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2
Q

Potable water supplies, sewage disposal & improvements in housing:

A

Public sanitation

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3
Q

Prevention of infectious diseases by inducing immune responses:

A

Vaccine

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4
Q

An immunizing agent derived from microorganisms:

A

Vaccines

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5
Q

Vaccines may consist of the following:

A
  1. Live, attenuated microorganisms
  2. Killed (irreversible inactivated) microogranisms
  3. Products or derivatives of microorganisms
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6
Q

Types of immunization include:

A
  1. Active immunization
  2. Passive immunization
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7
Q

Administration of a vaccine:

A

Active immunization

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8
Q

Administration of exogenously produced or preformed antibodies:

A

Passive immunization

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9
Q

Passive immunization may also be considered:

A

Postexposure treatment

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10
Q

Passive immunization involved the injection of purified antibody or antibody-containing serum to provide:

A

Rapid, temporary protection or treatment

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11
Q

_____ receive natural passive immunization

A

Newborns

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12
Q

How do newborns receive natural passive immunization?

A

Maternal immunoglobulin that crosses the placenta & os present in breast milk

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13
Q

What are the uses of passive immunization (4):

A
  1. To prevent disease after a known exposure
  2. To ameliorate the symptoms of an ongoing disease
  3. To protect immunodeficient individuals
  4. To block the action of bacterial toxins and prevent the diseases they cause
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14
Q

Human immune globulins are used against:

A

Hepatitis A
Hepatitis B
Rabies
Respiratory syncytial virus
Varicella zoster
Tetanus

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15
Q

Animal antitoxins are used against:

A

Botulism
Diptheria

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16
Q

One limitation of passive immunization is that:

Sometimes ____ are not high enough

A

Antiviral titers

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17
Q

One limitation of passive immunization is that:

_____ can occur with other infectious agents

A

Contamination

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18
Q

One limitation of passive immunization is that:

Needs to be used _____

A

Early after exposure

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19
Q

One limitation of passive immunization is that:

It is often:

A

Not possible

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20
Q

One limitation of passive immunization is that:

Is that seen viruses have a limited:

A

Extracellular phase

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21
Q

What viruses have a limited extracellular phase, limiting the efficacy of passive immunity?

A
  1. Herpesviruses
  2. Enteroviruses
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22
Q

What can inhibit the immune response elicited by vaccines?

A

Antibody-containing products

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23
Q

Because antibody-containing products can inhibit the immune response elicited by vaccine, administration of vaccines should be:

A

Delayed until passive antibody has degraded

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24
Q

For disease with long incubation periods, both ____ & ____ are used for postexposure control

A

Active & passive immunization

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25
Q

What are some diseases with long incubation periods that require both active & passive immunization for postexposure control:

A

Rabies, hepatitis B, Tetanus

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26
Q

Use of vaccines to elicit immune responses:

A

Active immunizations

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27
Q

Active immunizations may be:

A

Inactivated, subunit & killed vaccines or live (attenuated) vaccines

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28
Q

Type of vaccine in which their is no risk of infection:

A

Inactivated, subunit & killed vaccines

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29
Q

What type of active immunizations used large amounts of antigen?

A

Inactivated, subunit & killed vaccines

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30
Q

How are inactivated, subunit or killed vaccines created for bacteria, viruses?

A

Inactivated or killed by chemical treatment or heat

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31
Q

What are required to boost the immunogenicity of inactivated, subunit & killed vaccines?

A

Adjuvants

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32
Q

Alum (aluminum salt) & secretory IgA are types of:

A

Adjuvants

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33
Q

Modern adjuvants are designed to be or mimic:

A

PAMPs

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34
Q

List some modern adjuvants:

A
  1. Bacterial cell wall components
  2. Synthetic polymers
  3. Bacterial toxins (attenuated)
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35
Q

Adjuvants influence the type of:

A

Immune response

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36
Q

Adjuvants influence the type of immune response, such as:

A

TH1 or TH2

37
Q

Some disadvantages of inactivated, subunit & killed vaccines include:

Immunity is not usually:

A

Long-lived

38
Q

Why is immunity generally not long-lived in inactivated, subunit & killed vaccines?

A

Because they generate a TH2 response that does not elicit effective immune memory

39
Q

Some disadvantages of inactivated, subunit & killed vaccines include:

Immunity may be ____ & not ____

A

Humoral not cell-mediated

40
Q

Some disadvantages of inactivated, subunit & killed vaccines include:

The vaccine does not usually elicit a:

A

Local IgA response

41
Q

Some disadvantages of inactivated, subunit & killed vaccines include:

_____ are required

A

Booster shots

42
Q

Some disadvantages of inactivated, subunit & killed vaccines include:

Larger _____ must be used

43
Q

Bacterial vaccine that are toxoids include:

A
  1. Cornybacterium diptheriae
  2. Clostridium tetani
44
Q

Inactivated, killed bacterial vaccines include:

A

Vibrio cholerae

45
Q

Capsule or protein subunits of bacteria creating capsular polysaccharide vaccines include:

A

Haemophilus influenza B.

46
Q

Cornybacterium diptheriae & Clostridium tetani are both:

A

Bacterial toxoid vaccines

47
Q

What type of vaccine is the vibrio cholera vaccine?

A

Inactivated, killed bacterial vaccibne

48
Q

The haemophilus influenza B vaccine is what type of vaccine?

A

Capsular polysaccharide vaccine

49
Q

Hib polysaccharide + diphtheria toxoid are conjugated in a vaccine because polysaccharides are poor:

A

Immunogens

50
Q

Viral vaccines are made of:

A

Inactivated viruses and protein subunits of viruses

51
Q

Polio, hepatitis A, influenza & rabies vaccines are all _____ vaccines made of ____

A

Viral vaccines; inactivated viruses

52
Q

Hepatitis B vaccine is a _____ vaccine made of ____

A

Viral vaccine; proteins subunits of the virus

53
Q

Vaccines that use avirulent or attenuated organisms:

A

Live vaccines

54
Q

The immunization with a live vaccine resembles:

A

natural infection

55
Q

Following immunization with a live vaccine, the host reaction progresses through:

A

TH1 & TH1 immune responses

56
Q

What immune responses are developed following immunization with a live vaccine?

A

Humoral, cellular & memory immune responses

57
Q

With administration of a live vaccine, how many doses are generally required:

A

Single dose

58
Q

With administration of a live vaccine, describe the resulting immunity:

A

Generally long-lived

59
Q

Are adjuvants required with live vaccines?

60
Q

Disadvantages of live vaccines include:

Vaccine microorganisms may still be dangerous for:

A

Immunosupressed people or pregnant women

61
Q

Why might vaccine microorganisms in live vaccines be dangerous for immunosuppressed or pregnant women?

A

They do not have the immunologic resources to resolve even a weakened infection

62
Q

Disadvantages of live vaccines include:

The vaccine microorganism may revert to:

A

A virulent form

63
Q

Disadvantages of live vaccines include:

The viability of the vaccine must be:

A

Maintained

64
Q

Calmette-Guerin bacillis (for tuberculosis) is what type of vaccine?

A

Live bacterial vaccine

65
Q

Calmette-Guerin bacillus vaccine is composed of:

A

Attenuated strain of mycobacterium Boris

66
Q

Why is the Calmette-Guerin bacillus vaccine not routinely used in the United States?

A

Because vaccinated individuals show false-positive reaction to the tuberculosis test used in this country

67
Q

What test is used to test for tuberculosis?

A

PPD test (purified protein derivative test)

68
Q

The MMR vaccine is a ____ vaccine

A

A live viral vaccine

69
Q

What does the MMR vaccine protect against?

A

Measles virus, mumps vires & rubella virus

70
Q

What family of viruses does measles & mumps belong to?

A

Paramyxovirus family

71
Q

What genus of measles is included in the MMR vaccine?

A

Morbillivirus

72
Q

What genus of mumps is included in the MMR vaccine?

A

Paramyxovirus

73
Q

What genus of rubella is included in the MMR vaccine?

74
Q

What family of viruses does rubella virus belong to?

A

Togavirus family

75
Q

What other virus may be included in the MMR vaccine?

A

Varicella-Zoster (making it MMRV)

76
Q

The host immune responses associated with disease protection:

A

Correlates of protection

77
Q

Vaccine that protect solely or principally by induction of serum antibodies include:

A

Hep A & Tetanus

78
Q

_____ play a role in protect against infections caused by agents that must first replicate on mucosal surfaces

A

Secretary antibodies

79
Q

Example of secretory antibodies that play a role in protection against infections that must first replication on mucosal surfaces:

80
Q

Vaccines for which T-Cell responses are essential include:

A

Measles & Varicella

81
Q

SARS-CoV-2 vaccines generate:

A

Active immunity

82
Q

The SARS-CoV-2 vaccines Pfizer-BioNTech & Moderna are a _____ vaccine, encoding the ____

A

mRNA vaccine; spike protein

83
Q

The SARS-CoV-2 vaccine Johnson & Johnson- Janssen is a _____ vaccine, encoding the ____

A

Viral vector vaccine; spike protein

84
Q

The SARS-CoV-2 vaccine Novavax is a _____ vaccine, containing parts of the ____

A

Protein subunit vaccine; spike protein & adjuvants

85
Q

Treatment for Covid-19 based on massive immunity to SARS-CoV-2 include:

A

Monoclonal antibodies (mAb’s)

86
Q

Monoclonal antibodies (mAb’s) against SARS-CoV-2 are:

A

Viral entry inhibitors

87
Q

How do the monoclonal antibodies used to treat SARS-CoV-2 function to produce passive immunity?

A

These monoclonal antibodies bind SARS-CoV-2 virions & “neutralize” them

88
Q

When discuss monoclonal antibodies ability to “neutralize” SARS-CoV-2 virions what do we mean?

A

This means they block the virus from interacting with ACE2 receptors & entering cells

89
Q

The first mAb for treating COVID-19 was derived from a patient who recovered from the disease in which their serum contained:

A

A neutralizing IgG1 antibody directed against the SARS-CoV-2 spike (S) protein

Microbiology (22 decks)

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