Protozoa (EXAM IV) Flashcards

1
Q

Protozoa have typically been classified as:

A

Parasites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is a parasite?

A

An organism that lives on or within another organism (the host) and benefits from the association while harming the host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Where does a parasite typically obtain its nutrients from?

A

Host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Types of parasites include:

A

Protozoa & Helminths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Protozoa can be described as a:

A

Diverse group of eukaryotic microbes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How are protozoa related?

A

Related only by their simple organization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The simple organization relating protozoa includes:

A

Unicellular or multicellular without specialized tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Most protozoa are ____ in ____ environments or on _____

A

free-living; aquatic; decaying organic matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Some protozoa are considered _____

A

Parasitic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Many protozoa are capable of:

A

Encystation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Formation of a cyst:

A

Encystation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Formation of a cyst by protozoa involves a ______ state with:

A

resting state; with a wall & low metabolic activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe the metabolic activity of protozoa during encystation:

A

Low metabolic activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

List the function of cysts: (3)

A
  1. Protection from changes in environment
  2. Sites for nuclear reorganization & cell division
  3. Transfer from one host to another
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Escape from vegetative form from cyst:

A

Encystation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Encystation is usually triggered by:

A
  1. Return to favorable environment
  2. Entry into new host
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the vegetative form released by parasitic species:

A

Trophozoite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Discuss the locomotion or protozoa:

A

Some are nonmotile some are motile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The motile species of protozoa use one of the following:

A

-Cilia
-Flagella
-Psuedopodia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Psuedopodia are:

A

Cytoplasmic extensions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Reproduction of protozoa may be:

A

Asexual or sexual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Asexual reproduction of protozoa typically occurs through:

A

Binary fission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Describe the binary fission:

A

Mitosis followed by cytokinesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Sexual reproduction of protozoa typically occurs through:

A

Conjugation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Describe conjugation:

A

Exchange of gametic nuclei between paired protozoa of opposite mating types

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Zooflagellates are motile due to:

A

One or more flagella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Species of protozoa that cause Giardiasis:

A

Giardia Lamblia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Giardiasis is a:

A

Gastrointestinal disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Species of protozoa that cause Trichomoniasis:

A

Trichomonas Vaginalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Trichomoniasis is a:

A

Sexually transmitted disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Hemoflagellates that are important blood pathogens:

A

Trypanosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Trypanosomes are:

A

Hemoflagellates (AKA blood parasites)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Give an example of a Trypanosome:

A

African sleeping sickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Most common cause of epidemic waterborne diarrheal disease:

A

Giardiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Giardiasis is a _____ disorder

A

Gastrointestinal disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Giardia lamblia forms ____ & _____

A

Cysts & trophozoites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Giardia lamblia forms cysts & trophozoites. The trophozoites attach to _____ & interfere with ____

A

intestinal epithelium; nutrient absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Discuss the transmission of Giardia lamblia:

A

Cyst-contaminated water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Discuss the reservoirs of Giardia lamblia:

A

numerous animal reservoirs & asymptomatic carriers are common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The clinical manifestations of ________ include- severe diarrhea, epigastric pain, cramps, voluminous flatulence & anorexia:

A

Acute giardiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The clinical manifestations of _____ include- intermittent diarrhea with periodic appearance and remission of symptoms:

A

Chronic gastritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What antiprotozoal agents are used for the treatment of giardiasis?

A

Metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How might one prevent contraction of giardiasis?

A

Avoiding contaminated water of puriy it by boiling or filtering (cysts are resistant to chlorine treatment)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The cysts formed in Giardia lamblia are resist to:

A

Chlorine treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

One of the most common sexually transmitted diseases:

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Trichomonas vaginalis is found in ____ % of women

A

15%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Trichomonas vaginalis lacks a ____ stage but does produce ____

A

Cyst stage; trophozoites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Discuss the clinical manifestations of Trichomoniasis:

A
  1. accumulation of leukocytes at site of infection
  2. In female, results in yellow purulent vaginal discharge and itching
  3. In males usual asymptomatic or burning urination
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Discuss how we diagnose trichomonas vaginalis:

A

Observation of parasite in vaginal discharge, semen or urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the treatment of trichomonas vaginalis:

A

Antiparasite therapy of metrodiazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Resides in the mouth; usually associated with poor oral hygiene:

A

Trichomonas tenax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Trichomonas tenar aspiration is associated with:

A

Pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Hemoflagellate diseases are caused by:

A

flagellated protozoa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Two major groups of flagellated protozoa include:

A

Leishmanias & trypanosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Hemoflagellate diseases are transmitted by:

A

bites of infected arthropods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Hemoflagellate disease infect:

A

Blood & tissues of humans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Also called African sleeping sickness:

A

African trypanosomiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

African trypanosomiasis is transmitted by:

A

Tsetse flies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

The reservoirs of African trypanosomiasis include:

A

Domestic cattle & wild animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

African trypanosomiasis symptoms are characterized as:

A

Chronic bloodstream infections with bouts of parasitemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what happens after months to years with African trypanosomiasis infection?

A

CNS invasion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

The clinical manifestations of African trypanosomiasis include:

A

Interstitial inflammation and necrosis within lymph node and small blood vessels of brain & heart, leading to lethargy & death within 1 to 3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Disease characterized by interstitial inflammation & necrosis within lymph nodes and small blood vessels of brain & heart leading to lethargy & death in about 1 to 3 years:

A

African trypanosomiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Disease characterized by interstitial inflammation & necrosis within lymph nodes and small blood vessels of brain & heart leading to lethargy & death in about 1 to 3 years:

A

African trypanosomiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

The causative agent of African trypanosomiasis is:

A

Trypanosoma Brucei

66
Q

How is African trypanosomiasis diagnosed?

A

observation of motile parasites in blood

67
Q

Treatment of African trypanosomiasis includes:

A

Drug therapy during systemic stage, but not as effective when CNS is involved

68
Q

Describe the vaccination for African trypanosomiasis:

A

Vaccine not useful due to antigenic variation

69
Q

Why is the vaccine for African trypanosomiasis not useful?

A

Due to antigenic variation due to genetic rearrangements

(multiple silent copeis & one expression locus)

70
Q

What is the intermediate host between animal reservoir and humans for African trypanosomiasis:

A

Tsetse fly

71
Q

What determines the disease range of African trypanosomiasis?

A

Tsetse fly

72
Q

American trypanosomiasis (Latin America; sporadic in southern USA)

A

Chagas disease

73
Q

Chagas disease is transmitted by:

A

Kissing bug (Reduviid bug)

74
Q

Reservoirs of Chagas disease include:

A

Domestic cattle & other animals

75
Q

In endemic regions, who is typically infected with chugs disease

A

Most people in population infected in childhood

76
Q

Describe the progression of chugs disease:

A

Early disease= mild; small % develop complications 10-20 years later

77
Q

When would individuals develop complications from chagas disease?

A

10-20 years later

78
Q

Chagas disease can result in heart disease and other disorder due to destruction of parasitize cells in the:

A

Liver, spleen, lymph nodes & CNS

79
Q

Chagas disease can result in heart disease & other disorders due to _____ in the liver, spleen, lymph nodes & CNS

A

Destruction of parasitized cells

80
Q

____ & ____ may occur in chagas disease due to damage to nerves in the GI tract

A

Megaesophagus & megacolon

81
Q

____ may occur in chagas disease due to damage to heart muscle

A

Cardiomyopathy

82
Q

Cardiomyopathy may occur in chagas disease due to damage to heart muscle, which may ultimately result in:

A

Sudden death from arrhythmia

83
Q

What is the treatment for Chagas disease?

A

No available for late complications; vaccines not useful due to antigenic variation

84
Q

Why are vaccines not useful against chagas disease?

A

Antigenic variation due to genetic switching

85
Q

What is causative agent of Chagas disease?

A

Trypanosoma cruzi

86
Q

Describe how the parasite is discharged in chagas disease:

A

Discharged in feces

87
Q

How does the vector enter the human body in chagas disease?

A

Enters the human body through bite wound

88
Q

Disease caused by Leishmania species (several, with different tissue tropisms):

A

Leishmaniasis

89
Q

Leishmaniasis is transmitted by:

A

Sandflies when they take a blood meal (usually tropical)

90
Q

What are the reservoirs for leishmania species?

A

Canines & rodents

91
Q

Leishmania survives & differentiated in:

A

Macrophages (superoxide dismnutase)

92
Q

The three forms of Leishmaniasis infection include:

A
  1. Mucocutaneous
  2. Cutaneous
  3. Visceral
93
Q

Form of leishmaniasis that involves lesions of the mouth, nose, throat & skin that cause extensive scarring & disfigurement:

A

Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis

94
Q

Form of leishmaniasis that involves papules that develop into crustated ulcers:

A

Cutaneous leishmaniasis

95
Q

Cutaneous leishmaniasis occurs with ____ & ____

A

Scarring & permanent immunity

96
Q

Form of leishmaniasis that involves tissue macrophage dysfunction with clinical manifestations of intermittent fever & enlargement of spleen or liver:

A

Visceral leishmaniasis

97
Q

Visceral leishmaniasis involves _____ dysfunction

A

Tissue macrophage

98
Q

Recovery from visceral leishmaniasis provides:

A

Permanent immunity

99
Q

Treatment of leishmaniasis includes:

A

Several types of drugs available including amphotericin B, the polyene antifungal agent

100
Q

What are ways to control contraction of leishmaniasis?

A

Vector & reservoir control along wit epidemiological surveillance

101
Q

Amoebiasis (Amoeboid protozoa) causes:

A

Amoebic dysentery

102
Q

The causative agent of Amoebiasis:

A

Entamoeba histolytica

103
Q

Transmission of Amoebiasis occurs through:

A

Ingestion of cysts

104
Q

The clinical manifestations of amoebiasis includes:

A

Asymptomatic to fulminating dysentery, exhaustive diarrhea, and abscesses of the liver, lungs & brain

105
Q

How is Amoebiasis diagnosed?

A

Observation of trophozoites in fresh warm stools or cysts in ordinary stools & serological tests

106
Q

What treatment may be used for Amoebiasis?

A

Metronidazole therapy

107
Q

Why is metronidazole therapy effective against Amoebiasis?

A

Because amoebas carry out anaerobic metabolism & the drug penetrates tissue well to destroy invasive pathogens

108
Q

What is one way to control the contraction of Amoebiasis?

A

Avoiding contaminated water & food and hyperchlorination/iodination of water supplies to destroy waterborne cysts

109
Q

Phylum Apicomplexa lack _____ except for ___ & ____

A

Locomotor organelles; male gamets & zygotes

110
Q

All Phylum Apicomplexa contain:

A

Apical complex

111
Q

Arrangement fibrils, tubules, vacuoles & other organelles at one end of the cell describe:

A

Apical complex of Phylum Apicomplexa

112
Q

The spirally arranged fibers:

A

Conoid

113
Q

Contains materials that are secreted and aid in penetration of host cell:

A

Rhoptry

114
Q

The life cycle of _____ invovles two different hosts, (usually mammal & mosquito)

A

Apicomplexan

115
Q

The apicomplexan life cycle involve both:

A

Sexual & asexual phases

116
Q

The asexual phase of the apicomplexan life cycle involving a rapid series of mitotic event producing infective organisms:

A

Schizogony

117
Q

What is produced during the sexual phase of apicomplexan life cycles?

A

Oocyst

118
Q

Describe the oocyst produced during the sexual phase of the apicomplexan life cycle:

A

Thick-walled diploid structure that undergoes meiosis to produce haploid spores

119
Q

Apicomplexan = ______

A

Sporozoan

120
Q

Important sporozoan (apicomplexan) generas include:

A
  1. Plasmodium
  2. Cryptosporidium
  3. Toxoplasma
121
Q

The important sporozoan (apicomplexan) responsible for malaria:

A

Plasmodium

122
Q

The important sporozoan (apicomplexan) responsible for cryptosporidiosis:

A

Cryptosporidium

123
Q

The important sporozoan (apicomplexan) responsible for Toxoplasmosis:

A

Toxoplasma

124
Q

Malaria is caused by four species of:

A

Plasmodium

125
Q

What species of plasmodium that causes malaria is most virulent?

A

Plasmodium falciparum

126
Q

What are the four species of plasmodium that cause malaria?

A
  1. P. Falciparum
  2. P. Vivax
  3. P. Malaria
  4. P. Ovale
127
Q

Malaria is transmitted by bite of an infected:

A

Female anopheles mosquito

128
Q

What is the reservoir of malaria?

A

Humans

129
Q

What is the intermediate host of malaria?

A

Humans- asexual reproduction

130
Q

What is the definitive host of malaria?

A

Mosquito sexual reproduction

131
Q

P. Vivax & P. Ovale form _____ which are the _____ forms within liver cells

A

Hypnozoites; dormant

132
Q

The hypnozoites formed by p. Vivax & P. Ovale within liver cells cause:

A

Recurrent malaria (months to years after initial disease)

133
Q

The clinical manifestations of malaria include:

A

Periodic attacks of chills & fever

134
Q

The periodic attacks of chills & fever seen with malaria coincide with:

A

RBC lysis and merozoite release, which stimulates cytokine production

135
Q

Describe the hepatocellular cycle involved in malaria infection:

A

8-14 Days; multiply asexually

136
Q

Describe the erythrocyte cycle involved in malaria infection:

A

2-3 days; multiple asexually

137
Q

In a malaria infection, a small number of merozoites develop into:

A

Gametocytes

138
Q

How is malaria diagnosed?

A

Demonstration of parasites within Wright- or Giemsa-stained red blood cells & serological tests

(But these are of little value in acutely ill patient)

139
Q

What is the treatment for malaria?

A

Antimalarial drugs

140
Q

What are the classic antimalarial drugs & how do they function?

A

Chloroquine & other quinine based drugs- these block heme detoxification in plasmodium food vacuole

141
Q

In treatment of malaria ____ resistance is widespread due to the drug being pumped out of the vacuole:

A

Chloroquine resistance

142
Q

What is the mechanism of Chloroquine resistance in malaria infections?

A

Drug pumped out of vacuole

143
Q

For individuals traveling to high endemic malaria areas what is recommended?

A
  1. Chemoprophylaxis
  2. Netting
  3. Insect repellants
144
Q

What is characteristic of early stages of malarial infection?

A

Early ring formation

145
Q

Endemic to the USA & transmitted by same Ixodes tick as Borrelia burgdorferi:

A

Babesia

146
Q

Babesia is caused by:

A

Babesia species

147
Q

Infections of Babesia range from______ & can be described as:

A

Subclinical to severe disease & “summer flu”

148
Q

Describe what happens when protozoa infect red blood cells & babesia:

A

Once protozoa infect red blood cells they cause fever upon release

149
Q

Babesia infection is similar to _____ but there is no ____

A

Malaria; no intermediate liver stage

150
Q

What is the reservoir for babesia?

A

The white-footed mouse (NOT HUMANS)

151
Q

Diagnosis of babesia is by:

A

Microscopy of Giemsa-stained blood samples & PCR

152
Q

What is the treatment of babesia?

A

Clindamycin + quinine (different from malaria)

153
Q

The causative agent of toxoplasmosis:

A

Toxoplasma gondii

154
Q

Transmission of toxoplasmosis occurs by:

A

Ingestion of undercooked meat, congenital transfer, blood transfusion, tissue transplant & ingestion of cat feces

155
Q

Toxoplasma gondii invade:

A

macrophages

156
Q

What is the definitive host of toxoplasma gondii?

A

Cats

157
Q

What are two common modes of transmission of Toxoplasmosisn for humans?

(list the most common1 mode first)

A
  1. Undercooked meat containing tissue cysts
  2. Humans handling kitty litter or soil
158
Q

The clinical manifestations of toxoplasmosis include:

A

-Usually asymptomatic (in greater than 99%) or resembles mono
-Can be fatal in immunocompromised hosts (mass lesions in the brain)
-congenital infections

159
Q

Treatment for toxoplasmosis include:

A

Antiparasite therapy for immunocompromised hosts

160
Q

Control of toxoplasmosis contraction includes:

A

-Minimizing exposure by avoidance of raw meat & eggs, washing hands after working in soil & cat-handling practices

-Women screened for anti toxoplasma antibody at marriage or very early in pregnancy, if positive, fetus is protected