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Maddy - First Aid > Uworld > Flashcards

Uworld Flashcards

1
Q

where does lichen planus normally occur

A

wrists and ankles

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2
Q

pathogenesis of lichen planus

A

T cell mediated response to cells along junction of dermis and epidermis

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3
Q

gross appearance of lichen planus

A

pruritic, pink papule and plaques

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4
Q

how does ionizing radiation (for cancer) cause cell damage

A

1) DNA double strand breaks

2) generation of reactive oxygen species

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5
Q

in a patient with a fib, what is the most likely source of a thrombus formation?

A

left atrial appendage

a small saclike structure in left atrium that is particularly susceptible to thrombus formation

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6
Q

direct and indirect hernia - where do they lie in relation to the inferior epigastric vessels

A

direct: abdominal contents protrude MEDIAL to the vessels
indirect: abdominal components protrude LATERAL to the vessels

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7
Q

acute angle closure glaucoma occurs in what patients

A

those w/ predisposing narrow chamber angle

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8
Q

acute angle closure glaucoma can occur after taking what medications

A

those that cause pupillary dilation, such as alpha adrenergic agonists and drugs with anticholinergic effects

dilation of pupil in susceptible individuals causes iris to press against the anterior surface of the lungs –> limits flow of aqueous humor through the pupil –> causes iris to bulge forward

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9
Q

according to epidemiological data, overdose with what drugs cause the majority of OD deaths in the US

A

opioids

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10
Q

most common cause of pericarditis/pericardial effusion

A

viral infection

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11
Q

how to calculate half life

A

(0.7 x volume of distribution) / clearance rate

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12
Q

in first order kinetics, how many half lives elapse before 75% of the drug is eliminated?

A

2 half lives

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13
Q

in first order kinetics, what percentage of the drug is eliminated after:

  • 1 half life
  • 2 half lives
  • 3 half lives
  • 4 half lives
  • 5 half lives
A

1: 50%
2: 75%
3: 87.5%
4: 93.75%
5: 96.875%

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14
Q

positive psychotic symptoms in schizophrenia are thought to be caused by what

A

an excess of dopamine in the mesolimbic dopamine pathway

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15
Q

characteristics of ADHD

A

inattentive (forgetful, disorganized, loses things)

hyperactive/impulsive symptoms (difficulty staying seated, interrupts other)

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16
Q

why do multiple myeloma patients have more infections

A

neoplastic plasma cells crowd the bone marrow –> impairs normal hematopoiesis (particularly B cell development)

*limits the generation of targeted immunoglobulins against infectious agents –> recurrent bacterial infections

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17
Q

coarctation of the aorta can be associated with what

A

other congenital cardiac anomalies or with berry aneurysms of the circle of willis

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18
Q

side effects of theophylline OD

A

seizures and tachyarrhythmias

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19
Q

histology of Ewing sarcoma

A

uniform, small, round cells with clear scant cytoplasm separated by fibrous septa and patches of necrosis/hemorrhage

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20
Q

what connect the dermal-epidermal junction

A

hemidesmosomes

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21
Q

MOA beta blockers

A

prevent interaction of epinephrine and norepinephrine with receptors at adrenergic synapses

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22
Q

first line therapy for essential tremor

A

b blocker

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23
Q

function of 3’ to 5’ exonuclease

A

removing mismatched nucleotides

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24
Q

prokaryotes have 3 types of DNA polymerase (I, II, III) and they have all ______ activity

only DNA polymerase I has _____ activity

A

all have 3’ to 5’ exonuclease (proofreading) activity

only DNA polymerase I has 5’ to 3’ exonuclease activity

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25
Q

MOA staph bullies impetigo

A

exfoliative toxin A that targets desmoglein 1 in superficial epidermis

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26
Q

what is the Hawthorne effect

A

tendency of study subjects to change their behavior as a result of their awareness that they are being studied

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27
Q

metastatic cancer in the liver most likely spread how

A

through the portal circulation

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28
Q

MOA anemia of chronic disease

TIBC levels?

A

chronic inflammation leads to release of hepcidin –> binds and inhibits iron channels –> reduced iron absorption

decreased TIBC due to suppression of transferrin

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29
Q

imiquimod MOA

A

topic immunomodulatory drug

upregulates TLR-7 which unregulates NF-kB –> initiates immune response

30
Q

what disease processes have osteoBLASTIC bone lesions

A
  • prostate cancer
  • small cell lung cancer
  • hodgkin lymphoma
31
Q

what disease processes have osteoCLASTIC bone lesions

A
  • multiple myeloma
  • non-small cell lung cancer
  • non hodgkin lymphoma
  • renal cell carcinoma
  • melanoma
32
Q

what kind of pleural effusion occurs with heart failure

A

transudative

33
Q

describe protein and lactate dehydrogenase levels in transudative effusions

A

low protein

low lactate dehydrogenase

34
Q

describe protein and lactate dehydrogenase levels in exudative effusions

A

high protein

high lactate dehydrogenase

35
Q

what is a “consensual response” when light is shined in one eye

A

shining light in one eye causes pupillary constriction of the other eye

  • indicates CN II is functional in the ipsilateral eye, since it caused the other eye to constrict
36
Q

function of calcineurin

inhibiting calcineurin can be of what use

A

calcium and calmodulin dependent serine/threonine protein phosphatase that activates T cells of the immune system

inhibition of calcineurin blocks T cell proliferation

37
Q

what drugs inhibit calcineurin

A

cyclosporine and tacrolimus

38
Q

hyperprolactinemia from use of anti-psychotics is due to dopamine blockage in what pathway

A

tuberoinfundibular

you want to block the dopamine in the mesolimbic pathway, but adverse effects can occur when the tuberoinfundibulnar pathway is involved

39
Q

how must the p value change when doing an experiment with 100,000 study subjects

A

decrease the p value to decrease the # of false positives

40
Q

describe the phases of Paget disease

A

initial: osteolytic

mixed phase

final: osteoblast-dominated

41
Q

in wegener disease, what are the antibodies against

A

neutrophils

anti-neutrophilic cytoplasmic antibodies

42
Q

what stage of sleep does sleep walking occur

A

non-REM stage 3

deep, slow wave sleep - delta waves

43
Q

when in the sleep cycle do you see theta waves

A

non-REM sleep stage 1 and 2

44
Q

when in the sleep cycle do you see sleep spindles and K complexes

A

non-REM sleep stage 2

45
Q

when in the sleep cycle do you see occasional sawtooth patterns

A

REM sleep

46
Q

what causes keloids

A

excessive collagen formation

47
Q

compare TTP and HUS

A

both:
- triad of thrombocytopenia, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, and acute kidney injury
- normal PT and PTT

TTP:
- triad + fever + neurologic symptoms

HUS:
- triad + bloody diarrhea

48
Q

what is the treatment in an emergency setting for rapid relief of symptoms in panic disorder

A

benzos

49
Q

what does carbon tetrachloride do

A

causes free radical injury –> causes lipid peroxidation

50
Q

what tests can you do to determine the relationship between two qualitative variables

A

chi square

logistic regression

51
Q

what tests can you do to determine the relationship between two quantitative variables

A

correlation

linear regression

52
Q

what tests can you do to determine the relationship between a qualitative independent variable and a quantitative dependent variable

A

t-test

ANOVA

linear regression

53
Q

what tests can you do to determine the relationship between a quantitative independent variable and a qualitative dependent variable

A

logistic regression

54
Q

first line treatment for psoriasis

A

topical corticosteroids and vitamin D analogs

55
Q

why do you give vitamin D analogs for psoriasis

A

they activate the vitamin D receptor –> inhibition of T cell and keratinocyte proliferation

(anti-inflammatory)

56
Q

first line treatment for PTSD

A

SSRI or SNRI

57
Q

why give epinephrine with lidocaine

A

prolongs duration of action because lidocaine remains at site of injection

also decreases local bleeding

58
Q

what enzyme causes bruises to green

A

heme oxygenase

degrades heme into biliverdin

59
Q

what are some complications of varicose veins in the LEs

A

stasis dermatitis

skin ulcerations

poor wound healing

60
Q

why are magnesium and aluminum hydroxide combined when treating GERD

A

mangesium salts cause osmotic diarrhea

aluminum hydroxide causes constipation

they reduce the adverse effects of each other

61
Q

what is fanconi syndrome

A

generalized reabsorption defect in the PCT

leads to increased excretion of amino acids, glucose, HCO3-, and PO43-

62
Q

what acid base disturbance can come from fanconi syndrome

what anion disturbances

A

metabolic acidosis

hypophosphatemia

63
Q

what is barterr syndrome

A

reabsorption defect in the thick ascending loop of Henley

affects Na/K/2Cl cotransporter

64
Q

what acid base disturbance can come from barterr syndrome

what anion disturbances

A

metabolic alkalosis

hypokalemia, hypocalciuria

65
Q

what is gitelman syndrome

A

reabsorption defect of NaCl in DCT

66
Q

what acid base disturbance can come from gitelman syndrome

what anion disturbances

A

metabolic alkalosis

hypokalemia, hypertension, decreased aldosterone

67
Q

what is liddle syndrome

A

gain of function mutation in ENaC channels in collecting tubule

increases Na+ reabsorption in collecting tubules

68
Q

what acid base disturbance can come from liddle syndrome

what anion disturbances

A

metabolic alklaosis

hypokalemia, hypertension, decreased aldosterone

69
Q

what is syndrome of apparent mineralocorticoid excess (SAME)

A

cortisol activates mineralocorticoid receptors

cortisol tries to be the SAME as aldosterone

70
Q

what acid base disturbance can come from SAME syndrome

what anion disturbances

A

metabolic alkalosis

hypokalemia, hypertension, deceased serum aldosterone

71
Q

what causes fanconi anemia

A

autosomal recessive DNA repair defect causing bone marrow failure –> aplastic anemia

72
Q

DQ2 and DQ8

A

celiac

Maddy - First Aid (23 decks)

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