Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Maddy - First Aid > Random III > Flashcards

Random III Flashcards

1
Q

what virulence factor of staph aureus causing necrotizing pneumonia

A

leukocidin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

side effects of selective arteriolar vasodilators

examples

A

sodium and fluid retention from activation of RAAS system

hydralazine, minoxidil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

where does a stanford type B aortic dissection usually originate

A

close to left subclavian a.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what two ions contribute to resting membrane potential

A

mostly potassium and some sodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

elevated CEA levels are associated with what

A

colon cancer

higher levels associated with worse prognosis

failure to normalize after surgery indicates residual disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is the path of an embolus to the retinal artery

A

atherosclerosis in the internal carotid –> ophthalmic a. –> retinal a.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the antibodies directed against in goodpasture syndrome

A

alpha 3 chain of type IV collagen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

symptoms of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis

A

hypertension, edema, acute renal failure, hematuria, proteinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the function of the smith protein

anti-smith antibodies in SLE

A

complexes with small nuclear RNA (snRNA) in cytoplasm to form snRNPs –> become a part of the spliceosome and remove introns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is directive counseling

A

where only a single treatment option is recommended to a patient

(when there is only 1 medically reasonable treatment option)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

in melanoma, describe what the color variations mean:

  • red areas
  • brown or black
  • white and gray
A

red: vessel ectasia and local inflammation

brown or black: advancing, neoplastic melanocytes

white and gray: cytotoxic T cells recognize tumor antigens and induce apoptosis (melanocyte regression)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

symptoms of retinitis pigmentosa

A

poor night vision

visual field loss

funduscopic changes (pigment accumulation, optic disc pallor, retinal vessel attenutation)
- bone spicule-shaped deposits
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is retinitis pigmentosa

A

genetic disease characterized by progressive dystrophy of the retinal pigmented epithelium and photoreceptors (cones and rods)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

sudden cardiac death due to coronary artery disease normally occurs in the setting of _____

A

malignant ventricular arrhythmia (v fibv, tach)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

in the setting of exercise, how does minute ventilation, V/Q perfusion, mixed venous oxygen content change

A

minute ventilation: increases (increase in RR and tidal volume)

V/Q: increases (alveolar ventilation increases more than blood flow)

Mixed venous oxygen content: decreased (the fraction of arterial oxygen extracted by skeletal muscle markedly increases)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is chediak higashi syndrome

A

defect in NK cells and neutrophil phagosome lysosome fusion

–> causes giant lysosomal inclusions seen in neutrophils and macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

cilostazol MOA

A

reduces platelet activation by inhibiting platelet phosphodiesterase

also acts as an arterial vasodilator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

why does tachyphylaxis occur with alpha-adrenergic agonists used for nasal decongestion? (rebound rhinitis needing increased dosage)

A

receptor internalization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

cause of vitiligo

A

partial or complete loss of melanocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

describe the pathogenesis of tuberculoid leprosy

A

development of strong TH1 mediated response (IL-2, IFN-y, IL-12) in affected tissues –> activation of macrophages that kill M. leprae organisms, limiting the disease extent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

in a cystic fibrosis patient, how do PPIs affect fat absorption

A

increase fat absorption

(CF patients take pancreatic enzyme replacements with lipase, amylase, and protease - lipase is inactivated by the acidic environment of the stomach –> PPIs increase lipase activity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

how does C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency affect bradykinin levels

A

causes unregulated activation of kallikrein –> increases bradykinin

(causes bradykinin associated angioedema)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what determines potency of an inhaled anesthetic

A

MAC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

etanercept MOA

indications

A

decoy receptor for TNF-a (TNF-a inhibitor)

severe RA, especially in patients who have failed methotrexate therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

compare confounding error and effect modification

A

confounding error:

the exposure-related dz relationship is muddled by the effect of a confounding variable that is association with both exposure and disease
(students w/ bigger shoe sizes have higher level of intelligence, but really this is because of age not shoe size)

no difference when analysis performed based on stratification (RR and p values will be similar)

effect modification:

when an external variable positive or negatively impacts the observed effect of a risk factor on dz status
(aspirin use is association with Reye syndrome in children but not adults - age modifies the effect of aspirin on reye syndrome development)

large difference when analysis performed based on stratification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what gross changes occur in the LV of the heart in athletes

A

eccentric hypertrophy –> increases LV cavity size and muscle mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

describe the development of pulmonary hypertension in heart failure

A

left heart failure –> higher diastolic filling pressure –> pressure transmitted backward to left atrium and pulmonary veins –> pulmonary venous congestion –> pulmonary hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

when is autism spectrum disorder usually diagnoses

A

around age 2, before age of 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

sx of autism in toddlers

A
  • impaired joint attention (lack of pointing or bringing objects to others)
  • motor stereotypies (hand flapping, spinning)
  • hyperreacticity or hyporeacticity to sensory input (extreme responses to sounds or textures, indifference to pain)
  • lack of social engagement
  • speech delay
  • repetitive play
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is the pathogenesis of MG

A

autoantibody-mediated T cell dependent attack on acetylcholine receptors of postsynaptic NMJ –> reduces # of AChRs

31
Q

compare graft vs host disease and host-mediated rejection

A

GVHD:

  • involvement of other organs
  • most often involves skin, liver, and GI tract
  • diffuse maculopapular rash with predilection for palms and soles
  • T cells

Host-mediated:

  • graft failure without significant involvement of other organ systems
  • T cells
32
Q

is pseudomonas motile

does it ferment lactose

A

yep

nope

33
Q

describe factor V Leiden

A

autosomal dominant mutation (guanine –> adenine DNA point mutation –> Arg506Gln)

cause hyper-coagulability

resistant to inactivation by protein C

34
Q

symptoms of vitamin E deficiency

A

neuromuscular disease (skeletal myopathy, spinocerebellar ataxia, polyneuropathy)

hemolytic anemia

involvement of dorsal columns

35
Q

what medications are associated with the phenomenon of tachyphylaxix

A

a-adrenergic agonists

nitroglycerine

36
Q

pralidoxime MOA and indications

A

cholinesterase reactivating agent (when you have too much acetylcholine)

organophosphate toxicity

37
Q

what is physostigmine used for

A

anticholinergic toxicity (when you have not enough acetylcholine)

38
Q

absence of glutathione reductase causes what

A

inability to use NADPH to reduce glutathione –> clinically similar to G5PD deficiency

39
Q

quick clinical tests to assess attention and concentration

A
  • counting down from 100 by intervals of 3 or 7
  • reciting months of the year backwards
  • spelling “world” backwards
40
Q

clinical tests to assess comprehension

A

following multistep commands

41
Q

bronchoalveolar lavage results in hypersensitivity pneumonitis

A

lymphocyte predominant

42
Q

features of normal aging that impair response to heat

A

1) tonic contraction of peripheral vasculature which limits heat transfer to skin
2) reduced sweat gland density
3) loss of rete pegs and dermal capillaries (reduces effective epidermal area available for heat transfer)

43
Q

compare purulent and non-purulent cellulitis

A

purulent:
- skin warmth, edema, erythema, NO fluctuant nodules
- beta hemolytic strep

non-purulent:

  • painful, fluctuant nodule in dermis or subcutaneous tissue w/ or w/o surround erythema
  • staph aureus (strains that express virulence factor Panton-Valentine leukocidin are likely to cause skin abscesses)
44
Q

protocol for intimate partner vilence

A

assess for immediate safety and give additional resources (info about a domestic violence program)

45
Q

who should acquire informed consent

A

best obtained by attending physician performing the procedure

46
Q

what drugs have anticholinergic side effects

A
  • TCAs

- first generation H1 receptor antagonists

47
Q

what is a “case series” observational study

A

where a small group of patients with a similar diagnosis or treatment are described at a point in time or followed over a certain period of time

48
Q

what is a cross sectional study

A

an observational study that assesses a population of interest at a single point in time

49
Q

findings on a tzanck smear in VZV

A

intranuclear inclusions in keratinocytes and multinucleated giant cells

50
Q

what is the earliest clinical sign of PKD

A

hypertension

51
Q

what is hydronephrosis

A

swelling of a kidney due to build up of urine (due to blockage or obstruction)

52
Q

what is epidermolysis bullosa

A

group of inherited disorders caused by mutations in intra-epidermal and dermo-epidermal adhesion complexes in the basement membrane

most common: mutations in keratin genes that impair assembly of keratin into filaments
- presents early in life with friction-induced blisters at palms and soles, oral blisters

causes epithelial fragility –> bullae, erosions, ulcers

53
Q

what fragments need to be known to perform PCR

A

the sequence of the regions flanking the target region to make the primers necessary to start PCR

54
Q

what is the treatment for methemoglobinemia

A

methylene blue

55
Q

what is the treatment for arsenic poisoning

A

dimercaprol

chelating agent that increases urinary excretion of heavy metals

56
Q

antidote for cyanide poisoning

A

hydroxycobalamin

57
Q

CaNa2EDTA is used to treat what

A

lead poisoning

58
Q

describe the pathway of multi-compartment drug distribution

A

immediately: drug levels high in the central compartment (plasma

quickly distributed to the well-perfused peripheral compartment (brain, liver, kidneys, lungs)

over time, occurs through the central compartment into the poorly perfused peripheral compartment (skeletal muscle, fat, bone) which has the highest volume of distribution for lipophilic agents

59
Q

what is the effect of taking fluconazole with methadone

A

fluconazole inhibits CYP3A4 which can increase plasma methadone concentration and lead to opioid toxicity

60
Q

describe myopia

A

near-sightedness

a refractive error caused by an increased anterior-posterior diameter of the eye

the focal point of a refracted image lies anterior to the retina

61
Q

most common form of renal cell carcinoma

A

clear cell carcinoma

62
Q

why is renal clear cell carcinoma “clear”

A

clear cell carcinoma originates from proximal tubular epithelial cells and contains copious amounts of intracellular glycogen and lipids –> glycogen and lipid accumulation –> clear cell

63
Q

what is a randomized control trial

A

participants are randomly allocated to 2 or more groups to assess the effect of specific interventions

64
Q

what causes black biliary stones

A
  • chronic hemolysis (sickle cell, spherocytosis) –> increases circulating levels of free bilirubin –> taken up by liver and excreted into bile
  • altered enterohepatic circulation of bilirubin
65
Q

what causes brown biliary stones

A

biliary tract infection (E. coli, liver flukes) –> release of microbial B-glucuronidases

66
Q

what is diabetic diarrhea

A

long standing hyperglycemia –> cross-linked glycosylated serum proteins in vasa nervorum –> inflammation and damage to peripheral nerves

most commonly results in symmetric polyneuropathy of feet, can also damage sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves, leading to autonomic dysfunction (disordered motility of the intestines)

67
Q

MOA theophylline

indications

A

adenosine receptor antagonist and phosphodiesterase inhibitor (increases cAMP –> bronchodilation)

asthma and COPD

68
Q

drugs commonly affected by CYP450 interactinos

A

theophylline

antiepileptics

warfarin

69
Q

macular lesions cause what visual defect

A

central scotoma

70
Q

unintentional ureteral ligation causes waht

A

obstruction with hydronephrosis and flank pain

71
Q

what happens to the skin in acute eczematous dermatitis

A

spongiosis (accumulation of edema fluid in intercellular spaces of the epidermis)

72
Q

what markers is melanoma positive for

A

S-100 and HMB-45

73
Q

how do you distinguish between tuberculoid and lepromatous leprosy

A

tuberculoid:
- indurated nodule with lepromin skin test due to strong TH1 response
- TH1 response elements (IL-2, IFN-y, IL-12)

lepromatous:
- nonreactive to lepromin skin test
- TH2 response elements (IL-4, IL-5, IL-10)

Maddy - First Aid (23 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions