Urogenital Flashcards

1
Q

What is the equation for blood pressure?

A

Cardiac output (stroke volume x HR) X peripheral vascular resistance

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2
Q

Which cells detect low blood pressure within the RAAS ?

A

Juxtaglomerular cells of afferent arteriole of the glomerulus

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3
Q

Draw the RAAS

A

Angiotensinogen from liver – (renin secreted by kidney) –> angiotensin I – (ACE from lungs) –> angiotensin II –> aldosterone + increase resorption of sodium and water in proximal tubule + vasoconstriction

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4
Q

On which cells within the kidneys does aldosterone acts ?

A

Principle cells of collecting tubules (Na resorption and K excretion)
Intercalated cells of collecting tubules (H+ secretion)

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5
Q

Which one is the hormone that acts to decrease volume ? When is it secreted?

A

Atrial natriuretic hormone

Secreted by the heart in response to decrease volume

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6
Q

What are the characteristics of SIADH (4) ?

A

Hypotonic
Euvolemia
High urine sodium
High urine osmolality

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7
Q

What is the anion gap equation?

A

Na - (CL + HCO3)

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8
Q

Hyperchloric metabolic acidosis is due to the loss of which element?

A

Bicarbonate

From lower than stomach GI loss - diarrhea, renal tubular acidosis

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9
Q

Stretch of the bladder signal is conducted through which nerve?

A

Pelvic

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10
Q

The medulla blood supply is done through a structure called

A

Vasa recta

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11
Q

Describe the 2 types of cells within the late distal and collecting tubules

A

Principle cell

  • resorption of Na and water (through ADH)
  • Secretes potassium (through aldosterone)

Intercalated cells = acid base regulation

  • type A ( resorption of potassium and secretes H+) –> If acidosis
  • type B = opposite
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12
Q

What are the receptor effects of ADH?

A

Binds to V2 –> movement of aquaporin 2 to the luminal side (through AMPc and protein kinase)–> fuse with membrane to form water channels

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13
Q

Where is the urea passively reabsorbed from ?

A

Medullary collecting tubules

Especially with high concentration of ADH

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14
Q

On which receptor does desmopressin acts in the kidneys and which coagulation factor are also released?

A

V2 receptor

VW and 8

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15
Q

Which 3 changes occur in response to increased sodium intake ?

A

1) decrease aldosterone
2) increase GFR
3) decrease proximal tubular Na reabsorption

Both 2 and 3 leads to increased distal tubular flow rate

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16
Q

Where is magnesium stored ?

A

Mostly in bones and cells

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17
Q

Atrial natriuretic peptide acts on the kidneys and result in which 2 effects

A

Increases GFR

Decrease sodium reabsorption

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18
Q

Which reaction does carbonic anhydrase is involved with?

A

CO2 + H2O H2CO3

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19
Q

What are the 3 ddx of metabolic alkalosis ?

A

Diuretic
Excess aldosterone
Vomiting upper gastric content

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20
Q

Which medication can address metabolic alkalosis?

A

Ammonium chloride

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21
Q

PTH stimulates ans FGF23 inhibits the activation of which hormone?

A

Calcitriol

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22
Q

An acute kidney injury is defined by:

A

Increase in creatinine of > 0.3
Increase in creatinine more than 50% baseline
Oliguria of less than 0.5 ml/h/kg for more than 6 hours

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23
Q

The presence of low molecular weight proteins in the urine indicates damage to which segment of the kidneys?

A

Proximal tubule

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24
Q

What part of the kidney is affected by membranous glomerulopathy?

A

Immune complex in the basement membrane

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25
Q

What are the stages of AKI

A

1) initiation - pathological damage following injury
2) extension - ischemia, hypoxia and inflammation leading to apoptosis and necrosis
3) maintenance - azotemia and uremia
4) recovery

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26
Q

What are the 3 different mechanism of blood purification in dialysis system?

A
  • diffusion (based on concentration of urea within dialyzer)
  • convection (blood is exposed to positive transmembrane pressure)
  • adhesion
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27
Q

Which bacteria causes emphysematous cystitis?

A

E.coli

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28
Q

What is the difference between UTI relapse and reinfection and persistent?

A

Reinfection : relapse with a different isolate (suggest decrease local or systemic immunity)

Relapse: same isolate (suggest persistent nidus)

Persistence: appropriate therapy fails to clear infection during or within 1 week after treatment

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29
Q

What is the size of stone where hydroretropulsion can be done ?

A

F cat : 5 mm
F dog: 15 mm
M cat: 1 mm
M dog: 1-3 mm

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30
Q

What is the treatment of low bladder capacity?

A
Antimuscarinic 
Tricyclic antidepressant (amipramine)
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31
Q

What is the treatment for detrusor instability?

A

Anticholinergic (emepronium)

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32
Q

What would be the treatment for urethral hypertonicity?

A

A-antagonist (phenoxybenzamime, prazosin-A1 or tamsulosin-A1)

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33
Q

What is the treatment for dyssynergia?

A

Diazepam

Dantrolen (inhibits calcium movement)

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34
Q

What are the potential treatments for bladder atony?

A
  • bethanecol
  • cholinesterase inhibitor (pyridostigmine)
  • B blocking agents
  • dopamine antagonist
  • prostaglandins
  • prokinetic
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35
Q

Which ureter is most commonly affected with circumcaval ureter?

A

Right

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36
Q

What are the 3 ways to help prevent cystine stones ?

A

Limit protein and sodium intake
Thiola (binds to cysteine to form soluble complex)
Neutering

37
Q

What is the mechanism of cysteine stones ?

A

Failure of tubular reabsorption of cysteine (through SLC3A1 mutation)

*** Cats can also have neurological signs from lack of arginine

38
Q

Which gram bacteria usually results in pyelonephritis?

A

Negative (E.coli) because possess adhesion molecules

39
Q

Which bacteria is primarily associated with encrusted cystitis?

A

Corynebacterium urealyticum

40
Q

Which 2 medications can help prevent calcium oxalate stones?

A

Potassium citrate

Hydrochlorothiazide (enhance tubular reabsorption of calcium)

41
Q

What are the 2 ways to prevent urate stones formation?

A

Allopurinol (care for xanthine)

Reduce purine intake

42
Q

What is the mechanism behind urate stones formation?

A

Inefficient transport of uric acid into hepatocytes leading to increased allantoin (from PSS or SLC2A9 mutation)

43
Q

Which are the 2 purine based stones?

A

Urate and xanthine

44
Q

Feline ectopic ureters are mostly extra or intramural?

45
Q

What is the main bacteria involved in prostatitis?

46
Q

Which antibiotics can be use with prostatitis?

A

TMS, chloramphenicol, fluoroquinolones

47
Q

What is cystatin C?

A

Low molecular weight proteins filtered at glomerulus and resorbed by megalin-mediated endocytosis at the proximal tubule.

Can be affected by thyroid and neoplasia

48
Q

What are the 4 components of nephrotic syndrome?

A

Hypoalbuminemia
Hyperchlolesterolemia
Proteinuria
Edema

49
Q

On ultrasound, which condition causes the kidney to be hyperechoic? To have perirenal fluid?

A

Ethylene glycol

Leptospirosis, lymphoma

50
Q

Those parasites affect which organ?

Stephanurus dentalus
Capillaria plica or Felis
Dioctophyma renale

51
Q

Which vasopressor should I use with AKI

A

Vasopressin - affects efferent arteriole

norepinephrine affects the afferent arteriole causing decreased GFR

52
Q

Which medication can be given in AKI from leptospirosis?

53
Q

What mechanism is use in CRRT?

A

Diffusion and convection

54
Q

Why does CKD results in metabolic acidosis?

A
  • Decrease reabsorption bicarbonate
  • Increased excretion of H+ (with ammonia)
  • increased anion gap (urea)
55
Q

How much does kidney function have to be affected for the SDMA to increase?

A

30% decline in GFR

56
Q

What are the side effects of aluminum phosphorus binders?

A

Microcytosis
Neurology
Constipation

57
Q

What are the 3 ways of looking at renal biopsies?

A

TEM (transmission electron microscopy)
IFM (immunofluorescent microscopy)
Light microscopy

58
Q

Lyme disease is associated with which type of glomerulopathy?

A

Membranoproliferative

59
Q

What are the the histopathological characteristics of membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis?

A

Thickened capillaries
Mesangial hypercellularity
Railroad appearance

Mediated by C3 immunity

60
Q

Which type of glomerulopathy is the most common in dogs ? In cats

A

Dogs: Membranoproliferative
Cats: membranous nephropathy

61
Q

What are the clinical characteristics of membranous nephropathy?

A

More common in young males

Massive proteinuria and nephrotic syndrome

62
Q

What are the unique histopathological traits of membranous nephropathy ?

A

Antibodies on subepithelial side
Lack of inflammation
C5b-9 membrane attack complex
Thickened basal membrane with spikes

63
Q

What are the histopathological characteristics of proliferative glomerulopathy?

A

Endocapillary or mesangial hyperplasia secondary to proliferation of endothelial cells

IgG or IgM basement membrane and mesengium

64
Q

Immunoglobulin A nephropathy can be associated with which diseases?

A

Enteric or hepatic diseases

65
Q

Extracellular deposition of fibrils formed by polymerization of proteins with B-pleated sheet confirmation is associated with which disease?

A

Amyloidosis

66
Q

What are the histopathological characteristics of amyloidosis?

A

Diffuse glomerular deposit that are apparent on Congo red and can also be seen in walls of blood vessels and interstitial tissues

67
Q

What is the histopathological characteristic of minimal change nephropathy?

A

Marked podocyte effacement

68
Q

What is considered as a favorable response to treatment with proteinuria?

A

> 50% reduction in UPC
25% sustained reduction in creatinine
50% sustained improvement in albumin

69
Q

Hypertension is most commonly associated with which type of glomerulopathy?

A

Membranoproliferative

70
Q

The persistent loss of carnitine in the urine can lead to which disease?

71
Q

What is the maximum reabsorption capacity of the glucose in the proximal tubule?

A

Dogs: 180-220
Cats: 260-310

72
Q

Which solutes are abnormally absorb with Fanconi syndrome?

A

Glucose, cysteine, bicarbonate, sodium, potassium and urate

73
Q

Describe type II (proximal) RTA and its treatment

A

Inability to prevent loss of bicarbonate because of a defect in the basolateral membrane transporter

Potassium citrate

74
Q

Describe type I (distal) RTA and its treatment

A

Inability to excrete H+

Potassium and sodium citrate

75
Q

Which metabolic conditions can lead to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus?

A

Hypokalemia and hypercalcemia

76
Q

Which 2 abnormalities can lead to ADH secretion?

A

Hyperosmolality

Hypovolemia

77
Q

What are possible treatment for nephrogenic diabetes insipidus?

A

Limit protein and sodium intake

Thiazide diuretic

78
Q

Hereditary nephritis can be seen in which 2 breeds?

A

Samoyed (COL4A5 mutation). Bad prognosis in male, slower progression in female (X-linked)

Cocker spaniel (COL4A4 mutation). Autosomal recessive

In both cases, immunostaining will lead to abnormal pattern of type 4 collagen

79
Q

Which cancers have been associated with neutering?

A
Prostatic
Bladder
Lymphoma in male golden
OSA
HSA
80
Q

What are the treatments for mammary hyperplasia?

A
OVH (takes up to 6 months do remission)
Progesterone blocker (aglepristone)
81
Q

Which 6 infections can lead to abortion in dogs?

A

Brucella, toxoplasma gondii, neospora, herpesvirus type 1, parvovirus and cryptosporidium canos

82
Q

Which 5 infections can lead to abortion in cats ?

A

FeLV, panleukopenia, herpesvirus, FIV and toxoplasmose

83
Q

Which antibiotics should be used to treat mastitis or metritis

A

Clavamox or cephalexin

84
Q

Which hormone causes endometrial hyperplasia and pyometra?

A

Progesterone

85
Q

What is the medical management of pyometra?

A

Amoxicillin
Prostaglandins
+/-
Progesterone receptor blocker

86
Q

Which neoplasm is the most common in the penis?

87
Q

Sperm agglutination can be seen with which disease?

88
Q

Which mutation leads to polycystic kidney disease in Persian?

89
Q

In minimal change disease, lesions on glomeruli are present only with which type of histopathological evaluation?

A

Transmission electron microscopy

Normal on light microscopy and immunofluorescence