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DEN 7102 Micro & Immuno Concepts > Urgent Review - Exam 3 > Flashcards

Urgent Review - Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Symptoms of Rocky Mountain Spotted fever

A
  • Severe myalgia
  • high fever
  • rash (including palms and soles)
  • headache
  • cough
  • confusion, ataxia
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2
Q

_____ causes bronchopneumonia

A

Chlamydophila pneumoniae

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3
Q

_____ causes tracheobronchitis

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

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4
Q

PCR used to diagnose:

A
  • B. pertussis
  • Chlamydia trachomatis
  • Mycoplasma
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5
Q

Legionella pneumophila best seen with:

A

Silver stains

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6
Q

____ affects unvaccinated/incompletely vaccinated children

A

H. influenzae b

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7
Q

____ produces beta lactamase

A

Legionella pneumophila

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8
Q

_____ is linked to arteriosclerosis

A

Chlamydophila pneumoniae

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9
Q

Pasteurella multocida often causes:

A

Cellulitis

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10
Q

Diphtheria can lead to damage of:

A

Nerve, heart, kidney

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11
Q

Prescription anti-inflammatory medications

A
  • leukotriene receptor antagonists (Singulair)
  • epinephrine or bronchodilators (primatene mist)
  • cromolyn sodium
  • asthma inhaler
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12
Q

eosinophils, basophils, mast cells found in:

A

skin, respiratory, GI tract

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13
Q

Contact hypersensitivity (type I) examples

A
  • latex gloves
  • dental dam
  • condoms
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14
Q

Type I hypersensitivity - ingestion

A

Antibiotics (penicillin)

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15
Q

Immediate mediators T1H

A
  • histamines
  • eosinophil chemotactic factor
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16
Q

H4R

A

mediates chemotaxis and inflammation

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17
Q

OTC antihistamin

A

diphenhydramine, competes for H1R

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18
Q

Prescription anti inflammatory mediciation

A
  • leukotriene receptor antagonists - singulair
  • epinephrine/bronchodilators (primatene mist)
  • cromolyn sodium
  • asthma inhaler
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19
Q

Rheumatic fever antibody response to

A

Protein M - cross react with cardiac antigens (molecular mimicry)

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20
Q

Sympathetic ophthalmia

A
  • form of uveitis
  • penetrating injury to eye releases sequestered antigens
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21
Q

drug induced hemolytic anemia

A

antibodies destroy rbc in presence of drug

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22
Q

grave’s disease

A
  • TSI against TSH receptor
  • most common cause of hyper thyroidism in the US
  • exophthalmos
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23
Q

Hashimoto’s disease

A
  • most common cause of hypothyroidism
  • weight gain
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24
Q

Goodpasture syndrom

A
  • autoimmune against type IV collagen
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25
Q

Pernicious anemia

A
  • antibodies against gastric intrinsic factor
  • macrocytic/megaloblastic anemia
  • glossitis - inflammation and depapillated tongue
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26
Q

Myasthenia gravis

A
  • antibodies against nicotinic Ach receptors
  • neuromuscular disease
  • ptosis
    dysphagia
  • hanging jaw
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27
Q

Sjogren syndrome

A
  • dry mouth, dry eyes
  • pilocarpine used
28
Q

Linear IgA

A
  • type II even though it is IgA
  • IgA in basement membrane zone
29
Q

Linear IgA bullous dermatosis

A
  • cutaneous presentation
30
Q

EBA

A

Ig against type 7 collagen

31
Q

Pemphigus

A
  • auto Ab IgG against desmoglein
32
Q

____ against desmoglein 3

A

pemphigus vulgaris

33
Q

____ against desmoglein 1

A

pemphigus foliaceus

34
Q

pemphigoid antibodies against

A

BP-1

35
Q

___ can have bullous or cicatricial presentation

A

Pemphigoid

36
Q

CIcatricial pemphigoid can cause

A

Desquamative gingivitis

37
Q

Bullous pemphigoid causes

A

Skin lesions

38
Q

Type III hypersensitivity diseases

A
  • lupus
  • rheumatoid arthritis
  • arthus reaction
  • serum sickness
39
Q

Lupus antibodies

A
  • anti-snRNP
  • Anti-smith
    -Anti-smDNA
40
Q

Lupus clinical presentation

A
  • malar rash
  • oral ulcers
41
Q

Lupus complication

A

non-infectious endocarditis
membranous glomerulonephritis
wire loop

42
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis antibody against

A

RF autoantibody against IgG Fc portion

43
Q

____ causes granulation at synovial lining (pannus) and ankylosis

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

44
Q

Type IV hypersensitivity is also known as

A

delayed type hypersensitivity

45
Q

Type IV H is mainly what response

A

Th1 (t cell mediated)

46
Q

Type IV happens after

A

48-72 hours

47
Q

Type IV contact hypersensitivity

A
  • poison ivy, poison oak
  • hair dyes
  • latex protein
  • nickel
48
Q

____ test is classic DTH

A

PPD

49
Q

Sex-specific predisposition

A
  • age associated B cells
  • CD11c surface marker
  • T-bet transcription factor
  • TLR7, TL9
50
Q

AABCs increase in age with

A

Females

51
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis happens in what ratio

A

1:3 (more in males!!)

52
Q

HLA-B27 associated with

A

anklylosing spondylitis

53
Q

lichen planus mediated by

A

CD8

54
Q

lichen planus affects

A

basal keratinocytes

55
Q

lichen planus presentation

A
  • bilateral white lesions
  • buccal mucosa (reticular lacy white lines)
  • dorsal tongue
56
Q

Systemic sclerosis

A

dysphagia

57
Q

Multiple sclerosis

A
  • T-lymphocyte cause damage
  • CNS macrophages
  • 32 fold increase after EBV infection
58
Q

Diabetes mellitus - name the HLAs

A
  • HLA-DR3
  • HLA-DR4
  • DLA-DQ*B1
59
Q

Addison’s disease

A
  • primary adrenal insufficiency, 21-hydroxylase
  • hyperpigmentation of oral mucosa
60
Q

lewis antigen

A

exocrine epithelial cells

61
Q

Repression of ____ in many oral cancers

Activation of ____ results in ____ in oral cancers

A

DNMT 1
DNMT 3; CIMP

62
Q

TSTA

A

tumor specific transplantation antigens

63
Q

TATA

A

tumor associated transplantation antigens

64
Q

TADA

A

tumor associated developmental antigens

65
Q

carcioembyogenic antigen

A
  • high serum levels in cancers (colon, oral cancers)
  • predictive value 4-5x normal level
66
Q

glylipican - 3 expressed in

A

human liver cancers and melanoma

67
Q

glylipican3 is an ___ antigrn

A

oncofetal antigen

DEN 7102 Micro & Immuno Concepts (26 decks)

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