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DEN 7102 Micro & Immuno Concepts > Exam 3 Fastidious, Intracellular, Other > Flashcards

Exam 3 Fastidious, Intracellular, Other Flashcards

1
Q

Respiratory disease-causing bacteria

A
  • Corynebacterium diphtheriae
  • Bordatella pertussis
  • Haemophilus influenzae
  • Legionella pneumophila
  • Mycoplasma pneumonia
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2
Q

Meningitis-causing bacteria

A

Listeria monocytogenes

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3
Q

STD bacteria

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

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4
Q

Zoonotic disease causing bacteria

A
  • Francisella tularensis
  • Rickettsia ricketsii
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5
Q

C. diphtheria has ____ growth on what agar?

A

aerobic; Loeffler’s agar or Tisdale’s (tellurite) agar

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6
Q

How is diphtheria transmitted?

A

Aerosol, human to human

youbreathe it out

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7
Q

Diphtheria causes disease in what part of the body?

A

Upper respiratory tract or skin

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8
Q

Where does C. diphtheria colonize?

A

Nasopharynx or adjacent regions

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9
Q

____ is responsible for the severe symptoms of diphtheria

A

Prophage-coded diphtheria toxin

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10
Q

Diphtheria causes a ____ in the back of the throat which can lead to _____

A

Thick covering; respiratory obstruction and myocarditis

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11
Q

Diphtheria - thick covering in the back of the throat presents as:

A

Pharyngitis with grayish adherent pseudomembrane

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12
Q

Diphtheria can lead to ____ damage

A
  • kidney
  • heart
  • nerve
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13
Q

Diphtheria toxin is a phage tox gene produced by:

A

Lysogenized strains

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14
Q

Diphtheria toxin structure

A

A-B toxin

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15
Q

Diphtheria toxin blocks:

A

Protein synthesis

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16
Q

____ inhibits transcription of diphtheria toxin operon

A

Iron (corepressor)

Excess iron represses toxin production

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17
Q

A subunit of AB toxin - function

A
  • Possesses catalytic activity
  • inactivates elongation factor 2 (EF-2), prevents protein synthesis by ribosome
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18
Q

B subunit of AB toxin - function

Corynebacterium diphtheria

A

Membrane binding region

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19
Q

Diphtheria treatment

A
  • DOC penicillin
  • anti toxin
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20
Q

Prevention of diphtheria

A

Toxoid vaccine (DTAP)

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21
Q

True or false: diphtheria is rare in the US

A

True - due to effective vaccine

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22
Q

Diphtheria toxin is inactivated by:

A

Heat or chemical

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23
Q

Diphtheria is a _____ disease

A

Reportable (by law)

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24
Q

Bordatella pertussis classification

A

Gram negative coccobacillus

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25
Q

Bordatella pertussis causes:

A

Whooping cough

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26
Q

Bordatella pertussis invades what cells?

A

Alveolar macrophages

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27
Q

Bordatella pertussis is aerobic/nonaerobic

A

Strict aerobe

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28
Q

Whooping cough is described as:

A
  • uncontrollable violent coughing
  • hard to breathe
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29
Q

Whooping cough is highly _____. _____ are at greatest risk

A

Communicable; Children less than a year old

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30
Q

Whooping cough is endemic in the:

A

US

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31
Q

Whooping cough mortality before vaccination

A

21-31%

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32
Q

Bordatella pertussis virulence factors

A
  • Adhesins (FHA)
  • 2 distinct toxins (pertussis toxin, tracheal cytotoxin)
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33
Q

Bordatella pertussis adhesins

A
  • filamentous hemagglutinin (FHA)
  • pertactin
  • fimbriae
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34
Q

____ is a major colonizing factor in nasopharynx

Bordatella pertussis

A

FHA

Bordatella pertussis

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35
Q

Pertussis toxin is secreted by ____

A

Type IV secretion system

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36
Q

Pertussis toxin function

A

increases mucus, leading to cough

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37
Q

Tracheal cytotoxin function

A
  • damages respiratory tissues and paralyzes cilia
  • leads to stagnant mucus and prevention of pathogen removal
  • damage leads to paroxysmal cough
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38
Q

Tracheal cytotoxin damage leads to

A

Paroxysmal cough (whooping cough)

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39
Q

Bordatella pertussis - pertussis toxin pathogenesis

A
  1. AB toxin binds to ciliated respiratory cells
  2. unregulated activation of adenylate cyclase leads to increase in cAMP, increasing signal transduction
  3. increase in respiratory secretions and mucus
  4. mucus leads to coughing
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40
Q

Tracheal cytotoxin causes inflammation and ciliostasis to interfere with:

A

Secretions clearance

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41
Q

Where does Bordatella pertussis colonize?

A

Trachea - attach to cilia of respiratory epithelial cells

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42
Q

True or false: If you have whooping cough, you are most contagious during the paroxysmal (coughing) phase

A

False - you are more contagious (higher bacterial culture) during the catarrhal phase

More infectious before the cough starts

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43
Q

Bordatella pertussis diagnosis

A

PCR

Can culture but is is much slower

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44
Q

Bordatella pertussis DOC

A

Erythromycin

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45
Q

Whooping cough incidence is highest in ____ since 1955

A

2012

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46
Q

Decrease in whooping cough due to

A

DTAP vaccine

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47
Q

DTAP/Tdap vaccine contains ____ to stimulate immune response to toxin

A

inactivated tetanus toxin

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48
Q

Tdap must be given to all:

A

Pregnant women (between weeks 27-36)

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49
Q

H. influenza main virulence factor

A
  • PRP capsule (antiphagocytic)
  • Also has IgA protease and endotoxin
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50
Q

PRP capsule stands for:

A

Phosphoribosylribitol phosphate

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51
Q

Most serious serotype of H. flu

A

Type b (Hib)

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52
Q

H. influenzae grows as satellite colonies around:

A

S. aureus (secretes required growth factors - X factor and V factor)

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53
Q

H. influenzae causes major diseases among

A

Infants and elderly

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54
Q

H. influenzae infection can cause:

A
  • epiglottitis (can be life threatening)
  • meningitis (before vaccines)
  • bacteremia
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55
Q

Before vaccines, H. flu meningitis was a major cause of:

A

90% of meningitis in children 6 months - 2 years

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56
Q

H. influenzae treatment

A

Broad spectrum antibiotics (cephalosporins, azithromycin)

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57
Q

Ampicillin resistant strains are common in _____ and conferred by ____

A

H. influenza; plasmid

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58
Q

True or false: there is no vaccine for H. influenzae

A

False - conjugate vaccine (PRP-tetanus toxoid) is very effective

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59
Q

H. flu ____ vaccine is poorly immunogenic

A

PRP capsule polysaccharide

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60
Q

When is H. flu vaccine administered?

A
  • 2, 4, 6 months
  • booster at 12 months
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61
Q

____ vaccine is T dependent, efficient, has good memory

A

Conjugate

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62
Q

True or false: H. influenzae cases have decreased

A

True due to effective Hib vaccine
< 1 case/100,000 children under 5 years of age

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63
Q

H. influenzae primarily affects:

A

unvaccinated/incompletely vaccinated children

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64
Q

H. influenzae and H. aegyptius can both cause:

A

Bacterial conjunctivitis

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65
Q

Legionella pneumophila killed 34 at:

A

American Legion convention in Philadelphia (1976)

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66
Q

Legionella pneumophila is fastidious - it is best seen with:

A

Silver stains

67
Q

_______ is facultative intracellular

A

Legionella pneumophila

68
Q

_____ causes 90% of legionellosis in US

A

Legionella pneumophila

69
Q

Legionella pneumophila inhabits _____ environments

A

Aquatic

70
Q

Legionella pneumophila is transmitted by:

A

inhalation of aerosolized bacteria

71
Q

True or false: Legionella pneumophila can be spread person to person

A

False - is not spread person to person

72
Q

Legionella pneumophila produces:

A

Beta lactamase

73
Q

Legionellosis: types of disease

A
  • pontiac fever
  • Legionnaire’s disease (pneumonia)
74
Q

Pontiac fever is a milder form of _____. It is characterized by acute ____ with no _____

A

legionellosis; flu-like syndrome; no lung involvement

75
Q

Pontiac fever is usually ____ with good prognosis

A

Self-limiting

76
Q

Legionnaire’s disease incubation time

A

2-10 days

77
Q

Legionnaire’s disease causes pneumonia that can lead to:

A

Septic shock and kidney failure

78
Q

Major predisposing factors to getting Legionnaire’s disease

A
  • chronic lung diseases
  • smoking
  • older males
79
Q

Legionnaire’s disease symptoms

A
  • fever
  • chills
  • headache
  • cough
  • diarrhea
  • changes in mental status
80
Q

Legionella pneumophila clinical presentation

A

Lower lobe filled with fluid, obscuration of hemidiaphragm silhouette

81
Q

Smallest free living organisms

A

Mycoplasmas

82
Q

____ lack a cell wall so they do not gram stain

A

Mycoplasmas

83
Q

Mycoplasma cell membranes contain:

A

Sterols (modified steroid)

84
Q

Which type of bacteria forms fried egg colonies?

A

Mycoplasmas

85
Q

True or false: Mycoplasma pneumoniae is not as deadly as other pneumonia-causing bacteria

A

True

86
Q

Mycoplasma pneumoniae causes ____ in 70-80% of infections

A

Tracheobronchitis

87
Q

Mycoplasma pneumoniae causes ____ in 10% of infections

A

Walking pneumonia

88
Q

Mycoplasma pneumoniae causes pneumonia in what age groups?

A

Teens and young adults

89
Q

Walking pneumonia is also called:

A

Atypical pneumonia

90
Q

True or false: walking pneumonia has a severe disease but short duration

A

False - mild disease but long duration

91
Q

Walking pneumonia is characterized by what kind of cough?

A

Persistent, non productive

92
Q

Walking pneumonia presentation on xray

A

Patchy lower lobe

93
Q

Walking pneumonia is ____ fatal

A

Rarely

94
Q

Recommended method of diagnosis for Mycoplasma pneumoniae

A

PCR (amplify its genes)

95
Q

_____ not recommended for diagnosis of Mycoplasma pneumoniae

A

Cold agglutins (does not work at body temp - only lower temps 4 degrees C)

96
Q

M. genitalium causes:

A

Non-gonococcal urethritis (NGU)

97
Q

How is M. genitalium transmitted?

A

Sexually

98
Q

Mycoplasma hominis causes:

A

Pyelonephritis

99
Q

Ureaplasma urealyticum causes:

A
  • NGU
  • Pyelonephritis
100
Q

Mycoplasmas should be treated with:

A

Tetracyclines

101
Q

____ grows well at 5-40 degrees celsius

A

Listeria monocytogenes

102
Q

Listeria monocytogenes has a tropism for:

A

Fetus and placenta of most animals

103
Q

Listeria outbreak usually occurs in:

A

Ready to eat meat and cheese

104
Q

Listeria monocytogenes causes opportunistic infection in:

A
  • Neonates
  • Immunocompromised adults
  • pregnant women
  • diabetics
105
Q

Transmission - Listeria can cross:

A
  • intestine (processed meat products)
  • placenta
  • blood brain barrier
106
Q

Listeriosis is often ____ in healthy adults

A

Asymptomatic

107
Q

Clinical forms of Listeriosis

A
  • Non-invasive
  • Invasive
108
Q

Non-invasive listeriosis can cause:

A

gastroenteritis

109
Q

Invasive listeriosis can cause:

A

meningitis in neonates and older adults

110
Q

________ is the leading cause of meningitis in cancer and renal transplant patients

A

Listeria monocytogenes

111
Q

Listeria monocytogenes can be found in

A

CSF (facultative intracellular in monocytes, macrophages, and PMN)

remember, it causes meningitis so makes sense it is in CSF

112
Q

14% of listerosis cases occurs in:

A

pregnant women

transplacental transmission results in miscarriage or stillbirth

113
Q

Neonates can contract listeriosis at ___ and often causes ____

A

birth; meningitis (CNS most often affected)

114
Q

What diseases can be caused by Chlamydia trachomatis?

A
  • Chlamydia (sexually transmitted)
  • ocular diseases
  • lymphogranuloma venereum
115
Q

Chlamydophila pneumoniae causes:

A

Bronchopneumonia

116
Q

____ is clinically similar to Mycoplasma pneumonia

A

Chlamydophila pneumoniae

117
Q

____ is linked to arteriosclerosis

A

Chlamydophila pneumoniae

118
Q

Chlamydiaceae life cycle

A
  1. Elementary bodies attach to cell receptors and gets internalized
  2. Reticulate bodies (replicating form) form inclusion bodies; binary fission
  3. Replication results in death of the cell (releases infectious EB)
119
Q

Most commonly reported notifiable disease in the US

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

120
Q

Most common bacterial STD in the US

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

121
Q

Local Chlamydia trachomatis infection in men causes:

A
  • conjunctivitis
  • urethritis
122
Q

Local Chlamydia trachomatis infection in women causes:

A
  • conjunctivitis
  • urethritis
  • cervicitis
123
Q

Infants infected with Chlamydia trachomatis can get infection of the conjunctiva known as:

A

Ophthalmia neonaturum (can cause blindness)

124
Q

___ can experience sequelae from chlamydia infection, which include:

A

Women; infertility, ectopic pregnancy, chronic pelvic pain

125
Q

_____ causes 15-40% of urethritis cases in the US

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

126
Q

Trachoma

A

Chronic keratoconjunctivitis

127
Q

Symptoms of trachoma

A
  • cornea and conjunctiva inflammation
  • inflamed granulation of inner surface of eyelids
128
Q

Leading cause of preventable blindness globally

A

Trachoma

129
Q

Trachoma is rare in:

A

developed countries (prevented by antibiotics)

130
Q

Perinatal transmission of Chlamydia trachomatis to infant can result in infections of the:

A
  • conjunctiva
  • respiratory tract
  • pneumonia
131
Q

Children older than 1 year with signs of Chlamydia trachomatis serves as possible evidence of

A

Sexual abuse

132
Q

Pap smear with cervicitis showing inclusion bodies indicates ____ infection

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

133
Q

Venereal disease

A

lymphogranuloma venerum caused by Chlamydia trachomatis

134
Q

Stages of venereal disease

A

First stage: small painless vesicular lesion at infection site
Second stage: 2-6 weeks later; regional lymphadenopathy, draining buboes

sexually transmitted

135
Q

Diagnosis of Chlamydia trachomatis

A

PCR

136
Q

If a patient has chlamydia, also check for:

A

Gonorrhea

137
Q

DOC for Chlamydia trachomatis

A

tetracyclines

138
Q

Francisella tularensis causes ____ disease, also known as:

A

zoonotic; tularemia/rabbit fever

139
Q

____ has many animal reservoirs

A

Francisella tularensis

140
Q

____ has been weaponized and is referred to as Select Agent Tier 1

A

Francisella tularensis

141
Q

_____ is highly infectious and can be used as a biological weapon

A

Francisella tularensis

142
Q

Major clinical manifestations of tularemia

A
  • acute pneumonia
  • skin ulcers
  • lymphadenopathy
143
Q

Francisella tularensis acute pneumonia has ____ fatality

A

30-80%

144
Q

____ reservoir is in cats (infects through bite or scratch)

A

Bartonella henselae

145
Q

Cat Scratch Disease causes:

A
  • chronic regional lymphadenopathy in children
  • pustular lesion at scratch site
  • spreads to adjacent lymph nodes
  • fever. malaise
  • disseminates to spleen, joints, CNS
146
Q

Bacillary angiomatosis occurs in patients who have ____ due to infection via ____

A

late stage AIDS; Bartonella henselae

147
Q

Bartonella henselae DOC

A

Azithromycin

148
Q

Zoonotic infection by pasteurella multocida is often due to _____

A

cat or dog scratch, bite, lick

149
Q

Pasteurella multocida often causes:

A

Cellulitis

150
Q

Rocky mountain spotted fever is caused by

A

Rickettsia rickettsii

151
Q

Most common rickettsial pathogen in the US

A

Rickettsia rickettsii

152
Q

Typhus fever forms of Rickettsiaceae

A
  • Rickettsia prowazekii
  • Rickettsia typhi

both now rare

153
Q

Rickettsia rickettsii infects you via:

A

Infected ticks

154
Q

Rickettsia rickettsii causes:

A
  • Vasculitis (leakage from blood vessels)
  • hypovolemia (decreased blood plasma)
  • poor blood flow to organs
155
Q

Most common rickettsial infection in the US

A

Rickettsia rickettsii

156
Q

Most common vector-borne infection in the US

A

Rickettsia rickettsii

157
Q

What tick is the most common source of Rickettsia rickettsii?

A

American dog tick (Eastern US)

158
Q

Which tick is most commonly found in western parts of US?

A

Rocky mountain wood tick

159
Q

There is an estimated ____ cases per year of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever, but only ____ cases were reported

A

300,000; 30,000

160
Q

Symptoms of Rocky Mountain Spotted fever

A
  • Severe myalgia
  • high fever
  • headache
  • rash (including palms and soles)
  • cough
  • confusion, ataxia
161
Q

Mortality is ____ in Rocky Mountain Spotted fever if untreated

A

35%

162
Q

Diagnosis of Rickettsia rickettsii

A
  • Serology (antibodies produced late, < 8 weeks)
  • Microimmunofluorescence assay (IFA) test for IgM, IgG
  • Skin biopsy (staining)
163
Q

Rickettsia rickettsii DOC

A

Tetracyclines (can reduce mortality to 5%)

164
Q

How to remove tick

A
  • Tweezers and pull upward with steady even pressure
  • do not set tick on fire
  • keep tick for 3 weeks for ID

DEN 7102 Micro & Immuno Concepts (26 decks)

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