Exam 3 Fastidious, Intracellular, Other Flashcards

1
Q

Respiratory disease-causing bacteria

A
  • Corynebacterium diphtheriae
  • Bordatella pertussis
  • Haemophilus influenzae
  • Legionella pneumophila
  • Mycoplasma pneumonia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Meningitis-causing bacteria

A

Listeria monocytogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

STD bacteria

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Zoonotic disease causing bacteria

A
  • Francisella tularensis
  • Rickettsia ricketsii
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

C. diphtheria has ____ growth on what agar?

A

aerobic; Loeffler’s agar or Tisdale’s (tellurite) agar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How is diphtheria transmitted?

A

Aerosol, human to human

youbreathe it out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Diphtheria causes disease in what part of the body?

A

Upper respiratory tract or skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where does C. diphtheria colonize?

A

Nasopharynx or adjacent regions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

____ is responsible for the severe symptoms of diphtheria

A

Prophage-coded diphtheria toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Diphtheria causes a ____ in the back of the throat which can lead to _____

A

Thick covering; respiratory obstruction and myocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Diphtheria - thick covering in the back of the throat presents as:

A

Pharyngitis with grayish adherent pseudomembrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Diphtheria can lead to ____ damage

A
  • kidney
  • heart
  • nerve
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Diphtheria toxin is a phage tox gene produced by:

A

Lysogenized strains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Diphtheria toxin structure

A

A-B toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Diphtheria toxin blocks:

A

Protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

____ inhibits transcription of diphtheria toxin operon

A

Iron (corepressor)

Excess iron represses toxin production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A subunit of AB toxin - function

A
  • Possesses catalytic activity
  • inactivates elongation factor 2 (EF-2), prevents protein synthesis by ribosome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

B subunit of AB toxin - function

Corynebacterium diphtheria

A

Membrane binding region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Diphtheria treatment

A
  • DOC penicillin
  • anti toxin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Prevention of diphtheria

A

Toxoid vaccine (DTAP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

True or false: diphtheria is rare in the US

A

True - due to effective vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Diphtheria toxin is inactivated by:

A

Heat or chemical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Diphtheria is a _____ disease

A

Reportable (by law)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Bordatella pertussis classification

A

Gram negative coccobacillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Bordatella pertussis causes:

A

Whooping cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Bordatella pertussis invades what cells?

A

Alveolar macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Bordatella pertussis is aerobic/nonaerobic

A

Strict aerobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Whooping cough is described as:

A
  • uncontrollable violent coughing
  • hard to breathe
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Whooping cough is highly _____. _____ are at greatest risk

A

Communicable; Children less than a year old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Whooping cough is endemic in the:

A

US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Whooping cough mortality before vaccination

A

21-31%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Bordatella pertussis virulence factors

A
  • Adhesins (FHA)
  • 2 distinct toxins (pertussis toxin, tracheal cytotoxin)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Bordatella pertussis adhesins

A
  • filamentous hemagglutinin (FHA)
  • pertactin
  • fimbriae
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

____ is a major colonizing factor in nasopharynx

Bordatella pertussis

A

FHA

Bordatella pertussis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Pertussis toxin is secreted by ____

A

Type IV secretion system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Pertussis toxin function

A

increases mucus, leading to cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Tracheal cytotoxin function

A
  • damages respiratory tissues and paralyzes cilia
  • leads to stagnant mucus and prevention of pathogen removal
  • damage leads to paroxysmal cough
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Tracheal cytotoxin damage leads to

A

Paroxysmal cough (whooping cough)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Bordatella pertussis - pertussis toxin pathogenesis

A
  1. AB toxin binds to ciliated respiratory cells
  2. unregulated activation of adenylate cyclase leads to increase in cAMP, increasing signal transduction
  3. increase in respiratory secretions and mucus
  4. mucus leads to coughing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Tracheal cytotoxin causes inflammation and ciliostasis to interfere with:

A

Secretions clearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Where does Bordatella pertussis colonize?

A

Trachea - attach to cilia of respiratory epithelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

True or false: If you have whooping cough, you are most contagious during the paroxysmal (coughing) phase

A

False - you are more contagious (higher bacterial culture) during the catarrhal phase

More infectious before the cough starts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Bordatella pertussis diagnosis

A

PCR

Can culture but is is much slower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Bordatella pertussis DOC

A

Erythromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Whooping cough incidence is highest in ____ since 1955

A

2012

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Decrease in whooping cough due to

A

DTAP vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

DTAP/Tdap vaccine contains ____ to stimulate immune response to toxin

A

inactivated tetanus toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Tdap must be given to all:

A

Pregnant women (between weeks 27-36)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

H. influenza main virulence factor

A
  • PRP capsule (antiphagocytic)
  • Also has IgA protease and endotoxin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

PRP capsule stands for:

A

Phosphoribosylribitol phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Most serious serotype of H. flu

A

Type b (Hib)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

H. influenzae grows as satellite colonies around:

A

S. aureus (secretes required growth factors - X factor and V factor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

H. influenzae causes major diseases among

A

Infants and elderly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

H. influenzae infection can cause:

A
  • epiglottitis (can be life threatening)
  • meningitis (before vaccines)
  • bacteremia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Before vaccines, H. flu meningitis was a major cause of:

A

90% of meningitis in children 6 months - 2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

H. influenzae treatment

A

Broad spectrum antibiotics (cephalosporins, azithromycin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Ampicillin resistant strains are common in _____ and conferred by ____

A

H. influenza; plasmid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

True or false: there is no vaccine for H. influenzae

A

False - conjugate vaccine (PRP-tetanus toxoid) is very effective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

H. flu ____ vaccine is poorly immunogenic

A

PRP capsule polysaccharide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

When is H. flu vaccine administered?

A
  • 2, 4, 6 months
  • booster at 12 months
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

____ vaccine is T dependent, efficient, has good memory

A

Conjugate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

True or false: H. influenzae cases have decreased

A

True due to effective Hib vaccine
< 1 case/100,000 children under 5 years of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

H. influenzae primarily affects:

A

unvaccinated/incompletely vaccinated children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

H. influenzae and H. aegyptius can both cause:

A

Bacterial conjunctivitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Legionella pneumophila killed 34 at:

A

American Legion convention in Philadelphia (1976)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Legionella pneumophila is fastidious - it is best seen with:

A

Silver stains

67
Q

_______ is facultative intracellular

A

Legionella pneumophila

68
Q

_____ causes 90% of legionellosis in US

A

Legionella pneumophila

69
Q

Legionella pneumophila inhabits _____ environments

A

Aquatic

70
Q

Legionella pneumophila is transmitted by:

A

inhalation of aerosolized bacteria

71
Q

True or false: Legionella pneumophila can be spread person to person

A

False - is not spread person to person

72
Q

Legionella pneumophila produces:

A

Beta lactamase

73
Q

Legionellosis: types of disease

A
  • pontiac fever
  • Legionnaire’s disease (pneumonia)
74
Q

Pontiac fever is a milder form of _____. It is characterized by acute ____ with no _____

A

legionellosis; flu-like syndrome; no lung involvement

75
Q

Pontiac fever is usually ____ with good prognosis

A

Self-limiting

76
Q

Legionnaire’s disease incubation time

A

2-10 days

77
Q

Legionnaire’s disease causes pneumonia that can lead to:

A

Septic shock and kidney failure

78
Q

Major predisposing factors to getting Legionnaire’s disease

A
  • chronic lung diseases
  • smoking
  • older males
79
Q

Legionnaire’s disease symptoms

A
  • fever
  • chills
  • headache
  • cough
  • diarrhea
  • changes in mental status
80
Q

Legionella pneumophila clinical presentation

A

Lower lobe filled with fluid, obscuration of hemidiaphragm silhouette

81
Q

Smallest free living organisms

A

Mycoplasmas

82
Q

____ lack a cell wall so they do not gram stain

A

Mycoplasmas

83
Q

Mycoplasma cell membranes contain:

A

Sterols (modified steroid)

84
Q

Which type of bacteria forms fried egg colonies?

A

Mycoplasmas

85
Q

True or false: Mycoplasma pneumoniae is not as deadly as other pneumonia-causing bacteria

A

True

86
Q

Mycoplasma pneumoniae causes ____ in 70-80% of infections

A

Tracheobronchitis

87
Q

Mycoplasma pneumoniae causes ____ in 10% of infections

A

Walking pneumonia

88
Q

Mycoplasma pneumoniae causes pneumonia in what age groups?

A

Teens and young adults

89
Q

Walking pneumonia is also called:

A

Atypical pneumonia

90
Q

True or false: walking pneumonia has a severe disease but short duration

A

False - mild disease but long duration

91
Q

Walking pneumonia is characterized by what kind of cough?

A

Persistent, non productive

92
Q

Walking pneumonia presentation on xray

A

Patchy lower lobe

93
Q

Walking pneumonia is ____ fatal

A

Rarely

94
Q

Recommended method of diagnosis for Mycoplasma pneumoniae

A

PCR (amplify its genes)

95
Q

_____ not recommended for diagnosis of Mycoplasma pneumoniae

A

Cold agglutins (does not work at body temp - only lower temps 4 degrees C)

96
Q

M. genitalium causes:

A

Non-gonococcal urethritis (NGU)

97
Q

How is M. genitalium transmitted?

A

Sexually

98
Q

Mycoplasma hominis causes:

A

Pyelonephritis

99
Q

Ureaplasma urealyticum causes:

A
  • NGU
  • Pyelonephritis
100
Q

Mycoplasmas should be treated with:

A

Tetracyclines

101
Q

____ grows well at 5-40 degrees celsius

A

Listeria monocytogenes

102
Q

Listeria monocytogenes has a tropism for:

A

Fetus and placenta of most animals

103
Q

Listeria outbreak usually occurs in:

A

Ready to eat meat and cheese

104
Q

Listeria monocytogenes causes opportunistic infection in:

A
  • Neonates
  • Immunocompromised adults
  • pregnant women
  • diabetics
105
Q

Transmission - Listeria can cross:

A
  • intestine (processed meat products)
  • placenta
  • blood brain barrier
106
Q

Listeriosis is often ____ in healthy adults

A

Asymptomatic

107
Q

Clinical forms of Listeriosis

A
  • Non-invasive
  • Invasive
108
Q

Non-invasive listeriosis can cause:

A

gastroenteritis

109
Q

Invasive listeriosis can cause:

A

meningitis in neonates and older adults

110
Q

________ is the leading cause of meningitis in cancer and renal transplant patients

A

Listeria monocytogenes

111
Q

Listeria monocytogenes can be found in

A

CSF (facultative intracellular in monocytes, macrophages, and PMN)

remember, it causes meningitis so makes sense it is in CSF

112
Q

14% of listerosis cases occurs in:

A

pregnant women

transplacental transmission results in miscarriage or stillbirth

113
Q

Neonates can contract listeriosis at ___ and often causes ____

A

birth; meningitis (CNS most often affected)

114
Q

What diseases can be caused by Chlamydia trachomatis?

A
  • Chlamydia (sexually transmitted)
  • ocular diseases
  • lymphogranuloma venereum
115
Q

Chlamydophila pneumoniae causes:

A

Bronchopneumonia

116
Q

____ is clinically similar to Mycoplasma pneumonia

A

Chlamydophila pneumoniae

117
Q

____ is linked to arteriosclerosis

A

Chlamydophila pneumoniae

118
Q

Chlamydiaceae life cycle

A
  1. Elementary bodies attach to cell receptors and gets internalized
  2. Reticulate bodies (replicating form) form inclusion bodies; binary fission
  3. Replication results in death of the cell (releases infectious EB)
119
Q

Most commonly reported notifiable disease in the US

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

120
Q

Most common bacterial STD in the US

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

121
Q

Local Chlamydia trachomatis infection in men causes:

A
  • conjunctivitis
  • urethritis
122
Q

Local Chlamydia trachomatis infection in women causes:

A
  • conjunctivitis
  • urethritis
  • cervicitis
123
Q

Infants infected with Chlamydia trachomatis can get infection of the conjunctiva known as:

A

Ophthalmia neonaturum (can cause blindness)

124
Q

___ can experience sequelae from chlamydia infection, which include:

A

Women; infertility, ectopic pregnancy, chronic pelvic pain

125
Q

_____ causes 15-40% of urethritis cases in the US

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

126
Q

Trachoma

A

Chronic keratoconjunctivitis

127
Q

Symptoms of trachoma

A
  • cornea and conjunctiva inflammation
  • inflamed granulation of inner surface of eyelids
128
Q

Leading cause of preventable blindness globally

A

Trachoma

129
Q

Trachoma is rare in:

A

developed countries (prevented by antibiotics)

130
Q

Perinatal transmission of Chlamydia trachomatis to infant can result in infections of the:

A
  • conjunctiva
  • respiratory tract
  • pneumonia
131
Q

Children older than 1 year with signs of Chlamydia trachomatis serves as possible evidence of

A

Sexual abuse

132
Q

Pap smear with cervicitis showing inclusion bodies indicates ____ infection

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

133
Q

Venereal disease

A

lymphogranuloma venerum caused by Chlamydia trachomatis

134
Q

Stages of venereal disease

A

First stage: small painless vesicular lesion at infection site
Second stage: 2-6 weeks later; regional lymphadenopathy, draining buboes

sexually transmitted

135
Q

Diagnosis of Chlamydia trachomatis

A

PCR

136
Q

If a patient has chlamydia, also check for:

A

Gonorrhea

137
Q

DOC for Chlamydia trachomatis

A

tetracyclines

138
Q

Francisella tularensis causes ____ disease, also known as:

A

zoonotic; tularemia/rabbit fever

139
Q

____ has many animal reservoirs

A

Francisella tularensis

140
Q

____ has been weaponized and is referred to as Select Agent Tier 1

A

Francisella tularensis

141
Q

_____ is highly infectious and can be used as a biological weapon

A

Francisella tularensis

142
Q

Major clinical manifestations of tularemia

A
  • acute pneumonia
  • skin ulcers
  • lymphadenopathy
143
Q

Francisella tularensis acute pneumonia has ____ fatality

A

30-80%

144
Q

____ reservoir is in cats (infects through bite or scratch)

A

Bartonella henselae

145
Q

Cat Scratch Disease causes:

A
  • chronic regional lymphadenopathy in children
  • pustular lesion at scratch site
  • spreads to adjacent lymph nodes
  • fever. malaise
  • disseminates to spleen, joints, CNS
146
Q

Bacillary angiomatosis occurs in patients who have ____ due to infection via ____

A

late stage AIDS; Bartonella henselae

147
Q

Bartonella henselae DOC

A

Azithromycin

148
Q

Zoonotic infection by pasteurella multocida is often due to _____

A

cat or dog scratch, bite, lick

149
Q

Pasteurella multocida often causes:

A

Cellulitis

150
Q

Rocky mountain spotted fever is caused by

A

Rickettsia rickettsii

151
Q

Most common rickettsial pathogen in the US

A

Rickettsia rickettsii

152
Q

Typhus fever forms of Rickettsiaceae

A
  • Rickettsia prowazekii
  • Rickettsia typhi

both now rare

153
Q

Rickettsia rickettsii infects you via:

A

Infected ticks

154
Q

Rickettsia rickettsii causes:

A
  • Vasculitis (leakage from blood vessels)
  • hypovolemia (decreased blood plasma)
  • poor blood flow to organs
155
Q

Most common rickettsial infection in the US

A

Rickettsia rickettsii

156
Q

Most common vector-borne infection in the US

A

Rickettsia rickettsii

157
Q

What tick is the most common source of Rickettsia rickettsii?

A

American dog tick (Eastern US)

158
Q

Which tick is most commonly found in western parts of US?

A

Rocky mountain wood tick

159
Q

There is an estimated ____ cases per year of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever, but only ____ cases were reported

A

300,000; 30,000

160
Q

Symptoms of Rocky Mountain Spotted fever

A
  • Severe myalgia
  • high fever
  • headache
  • rash (including palms and soles)
  • cough
  • confusion, ataxia
161
Q

Mortality is ____ in Rocky Mountain Spotted fever if untreated

A

35%

162
Q

Diagnosis of Rickettsia rickettsii

A
  • Serology (antibodies produced late, < 8 weeks)
  • Microimmunofluorescence assay (IFA) test for IgM, IgG
  • Skin biopsy (staining)
163
Q

Rickettsia rickettsii DOC

A

Tetracyclines (can reduce mortality to 5%)

164
Q

How to remove tick

A
  • Tweezers and pull upward with steady even pressure
  • do not set tick on fire
  • keep tick for 3 weeks for ID